Course Introduction
Health Sciences
Textbook Exam Questions
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the study, research, and application of knowledge to improve the health and well-being of individuals and communities. This course explores the biological, behavioral, social, and environmental factors that influence health and disease. Students will develop foundational knowledge in areas such as human anatomy and physiology, epidemiology, nutrition, public health, healthcare systems, and health promotion. By integrating theory and practice, the course prepares students for a wide range of careers in healthcare, policy, research, and wellness, fostering an understanding of both individual and population health.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology Global 10th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the A)hypothalamus.
B)skin.
C)temperature sensor.
D)positive feedback center.
E)thermostat.
Answer: A
Q2) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except
A)right upper quadrant (RUQ).
B)right lower quadrant (RLQ).
C)left upper quadrant (LUQ).
D)left lower quadrant (LLQ).
E)pelvic quadrant.
Answer: E
Q3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs,heart,trachea,esophagus,thymus,major blood vessels connected to the heart
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3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Helium (He)has an atomic number of 2.It is chemically stable because it
A)is neutral in electrical charge.
B)readily ionizes to react with other atoms.
C)has a full outer electron shell.
D)will form a covalent bond with another He atom.
E)lacks electrons,thus the He atom is stable.
Answer: C
Q2) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________ acid group.
A)linoleic
B)ribonucleic
C)hydroxyl
D)glycosidic
E)carboxylic
Answer: E
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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4
Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Microfilaments
A)anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins.
B)control the consistency of cytoplasm.
C)with myosin,produce cell movement.
D)consist of the protein called actin.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Q2) Which organelle renews the cell membrane and modifies and packages proteins for secretion?
A)4
B)5
C)6
D)7
E)8
Answer: C
Q3) Define osmosis.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeable solute.
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5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood vessels.
A)leukocytes
B)lymphocytes
C)chondrocytes
D)erythrocytes
E)mesenchymal cells
Q2) Glands that secrete their product by the bursting of cells are ________ glands.
A)apocrine
B)sudoriferous
C)holocrine
D)endocrine
E)merocrine
Q3) Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by A)keratin.
B)interfacial canals.
C)a basement membrane.
D)a reticular lamina.
E)proteoglycan.
Q4) During the inflammatory process,blood vessels dilate.What does this accomplish?
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except
A)protection of underlying tissue.
B)excretion of salts and wastes.
C)maintenance of body temperature.
D)synthesis of vitamin C.
E)detection of sensations.
Q2) Which of the following statements about rickets is not true?
A)It is usually genetic.
B)It leads to weak bones.
C)It leads to skeletal deformity.
D)It is prevented by vitamin D.
E)It is prevented by sunlight.
Q3) Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs?
A)also known as "peach fuzz"
B)persists throughout the entire life
C)deeply pigmented and somewhat coarse
D)exists primarily in fetuses
E)never found on the feet
Q4) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Q5) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trabeculae of spongy bone
A)are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone.
B)are organized along stress lines.
C)are composed mostly of cartilage.
D)will collapse under stress.
E)are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis.
Q2) In a ________ fracture one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent.
A)comminuted
B)greenstick
C)compression
D)transverse
E)spiral
Q3) ________ are squamous stem cells that develop into osteoblasts.
A)Osteoclasts
B)Osteocytes
C)Osteomedullary cells
D)Osteoprogenitor cells
E)Osteoid cells
Q4) What is the difference between ossification and calcification.?
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many bones make up the axial skeleton?
A)50
B)60
C)70
D)80
E)90
Q2) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it
A)provides protection for reproductive,digestive,and excretory organs.
B)provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.
C)articulates with the pelvic bones.
D)articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
E)articulates with the coccyx.
Q3) Of the following bones,which is unpaired?
A)vomer
B)maxillary
C)palatine
D)nasal
E)lacrimal
Q4) Billy is injured during a high school football game.His chest is badly bruised and he is experiencing difficulty in breathing.What might the problem be?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A)olecranon process
B)medial epicondyle
C)lateral epicondyle
D)greater tubercle
E)trochlea
Q2) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
A)rib pairs 1 and 2
B)manubria
C)coracoid processes
D)clavicles
E)acromial processes
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A)acromion
B)scapular process
C)spine of scapula
D)coracoid process
E)scapular notch
Q4) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the pectoral girdle?
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the A)patella.
B)lateral meniscus.
C)ligaments.
D)tendons.
E)medial meniscus.
Q2) An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the A)ribs with the sternum.
B)radius and the ulna.
C)femur with the acetabulum.
D)atlas and the axis.
E)navicular bone with the cuniform bones.
Q3) Identify the type of joint at label "5."
A)hinge
B)condylar
C)gliding
D)saddle
E)pivot
Q4) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Q5) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts,what movements does it produce?
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A)protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B)repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C)storage and release site for calcium ions
D)thin filaments are anchored here
E)largely made of myosin molecules
Q2) Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction?
A)thin filaments and thick filaments
B)thick filaments and titin filaments
C)z disks and actin filaments
D)thick filaments and t-tubules
E)thin filaments and t-tubules
Q3) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is
A)active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma.
B)active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C)active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft.
D)diffusion of calcium out of the cell.
E)diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the muscle labeled "27."
A)rectus femoris
B)gastrocnemius
C)soleus
D)gracilis
E)biceps femoris
Q2) The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the A)serratus anterior.
B)trapezius.
C)sternocleidomastoid.
D)pectoralis minor.
E)levator scapulae.
Q3) Identify the muscle labeled "6."
A)trapezius
B)tensor fasciae latae
C)latissimus dorsi
D)adductor magnus
E)rhomboid major
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen.What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish his goal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
A)active
B)gated
C)leak
D)regulated
E)local
Q2) The all-or-none principle states that
A)all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B)all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action potentials.
C)the greater the magnitude of the stimuli,the greater the magnitude of the action potential.
D)only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E)only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
Q3) Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called
A)spatial propagation.
B)saltatory propagation.
C)divergent propagation.
D)synaptic transmission.
E)continuous propagation.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The outermost connective-tissue covering of nerves is the A)endoneurium.
B)endomysium.
C)perineurium.
D)epineurium.
E)epimysium.
Q2) Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the A)pia mater.
B)dura mater.
C)epidural space.
D)subdural space.
E)subarachnoid space.
Q3) If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed,
A)output to skeletal muscles would be blocked.
B)output to visceral organs would be blocked.
C)the spinal cord would not be able to process information at that level.
D)the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord.
E)sensory input would be blocked.
Q4) What would happen if the dorsal root of a spinal nerve were completely transected?
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are
A)fissures.
B)sinuses.
C)lobes.
D)sulci.
E)gyri.
Q2) A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________ reflex.
A)corneal
B)tympanic
C)auditory
D)vestibulo-ocular
E)consensual
Q3) Which of the following help to protect the brain?
A)the blood-brain barrier
B)the bones of the skull
C)the cranial meninges
D)the CSF
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called A)nociceptors.
B)chemoreceptors.
C)baroreceptors.
D)proprioceptors.
E)thermoreceptors.
Q2) The pyramidal system provides
A)voluntary control over skeletal muscles.
B)voluntary control over smooth muscles.
C)involuntary control over skeletal muscles.
D)involuntary control over smooth muscles.
E)involuntary control over cardiac muscle.
Q3) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the stimuli that excite each type?
Q4) The axon labeled "2" synapses with which structure?
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the A)cerebrum.
B)thalamus.
C)cerebellum.
D)pituitary gland.
E)hypothalamus.
Q2) Postganglionic axons usually are
A)myelinated.
B)unmyelinated.
C)larger than preganglionic fibers.
D)located in the brain.
E)located in the spinal cord.
Q3) Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
A)two nerves from the spinal cord.
B)both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.
C)both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation.
D)nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord.
E)both sensory and motor nerves.
Q4) List the different types of adrenergic receptors,the responses they produce,and by what mechanisms.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The superficial hard part of the inner ear is called the ________ and contains
A)bony labyrinth; perilymph
B)membranous labyrinth; perilymph
C)membranous labyrinth; endolymph
D)cochlea; perilymph
E)bony labyrinth; endolymph
Q2) The structure that supports the organ of Corti is the A)tectorial membrane.
B)basilar membrane.
C)membranous labyrinth.
D)vestibular duct.
E)tympanic membrane.
Q3) The cochlear receptors that provide our sense of hearing are A)hair cells.
B)modified interneurons.
C)otoliths.
D)pyramidal cells.
E)mucous cells.
Q4) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus,
A)blood glucose levels are very high.
B)excessive thirst is shown.
C)glucose is present in the urine in large amounts.
D)a large excretion of urine occurs.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about paracrine communication?
A)It is used for the regulation of cell and organ activities.
B)Paracrine factors are rather similar to hormones.
C)Many cells produce paracrine factors.
D)The cells make local hormones,made by cells that affect surrounding cells.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The interstitial cells of the testes produce
A)LH.
B)progesterone.
C)testosterone.
D)inhibin.
E)FSH.
Q4) Describe the four patterns of hormonal interaction.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consider the following results from a blood lab test.Which value is most likely abnormal?
A)RBCs-5.2 million/µl
B)platelets-280,000/µl
C)leukocytes-8600/µl
D)hemoglobin-10.7 g/100 ml
E)hematocrit-44 percent
Q2) Tissue factor (Factor III)is a factor in the ________ pathway.
A)extrinsic
B)intrinsic
C)common
D)retraction
E)fibrinolytic
Q3) Identify the cell labeled "2."
A)lymphocyte
B)eosinophil
C)basophil
D)neutrophil
E)monocyte
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes is the
A)ejection fraction.
B)end-diastole volume.
C)start-diastolic volume.
D)end-systolic volume.
E)stroke volume.
Q2) The first heart sound is heard when the A)AV valves open.
B)AV valves close.
C)semilunar valves close.
D)atria contract.
E)blood enters the aorta.
Q3) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?
A)cardiac output
B)stroke volume
C)end-diastolic volume
D)end-systolic volume
E)total cardiac volume
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the A)celiac trunk.
B)inferior mesenteric artery.
C)internal iliac artery.
D)abdominal aorta.
E)external iliac artery.
Q2) At the ankle,the anterior tibial artery becomes the ________ artery.
A)dorsalis pedis
B)plantar arch
C)dorsal arch
D)posterior tibial
E)tarsal
Q3) ________ form elaborate capillary networks within tissues that allow for very slow blood flow.
A)Varicosities
B)Sinusoids
C)Foramina
D)Portal systems
E)Perfusion centers
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group.
A)tumor-suppressing
B)complement
C)interferon
D)monocyte-macrophage
E)lymphatic
Q2) Fever is the maintenance of body temperature greater than
A)40.6°C (105°F).
B)37.2°C (99°F).
C)37°C (98.6°F).
D)38.9 °C (102°F).
E)37.5°C (99.5°F).
Q3) What is MALT? What role does it play in the body's defenses?
Q4) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells.
A)suppressor; cytoxic
B)cytoxic; helper
C)helper; suppressor
D)NK; cytoxic
E)plasma; NK
Q5) List and briefly describe the four general properties of immunity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A)olfactory organ
B)oropharynx
C)nasopharynx
D)internal nares
E)nasal sinus
Q2) Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the A)movement of the arytenoid cartilages.
B)extrinsic ligaments.
C)contraction of laryngeal muscles.
D)movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles.
E)extrinsic and intrinsic ligaments.
Q3) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the A)respiratory immunity.
B)macrophage complex.
C)respiratory defense system.
D)acquired respiratory defense.
E)mucus escalator.
Q4) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver?
A)falciform ligament
B)greater omentum
C)mesentery proper
D)lesser omentum
E)diaphragm
Q2) The middle segment of the small intestine is called the A)duodenum.
B)ileum.
C)hilum.
D)jejunum.
E)cecum.
Q3) The greater omentum is
A)the entrance to the stomach.
B)attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature.
C)important in the digestion of fats.
D)a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E)a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
Q4) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?
Q5) Leon has gallstones.His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat.Why?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vitamin that is part of the coenzyme NAD is A)thiamine.
B)riboflavin.
C)niacin.
D)folic acid (folate).
E)cobalamin.
Q2) Nitrogen compounds of the body include all of the following except A)amino acids.
B)oxaloacetate.
C)creatine.
D)porphyrin.
E)purines.
Q3) In an environment that is cooler than your body,you lose heat in a process called A)radiation.
B)conduction.
C)convection.
D)evaporation.
E)thermal regulation.
Q4) List and briefly describe the body's five metabolic components.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The region known as the macula densa is part of
A)the proximal convoluted tubule.
B)the distal convoluted tubule.
C)the collecting duct.
D)the nephron loop (loop of Henle).
E)glomerular (Bowman's)capsule.
Q2) The main force that causes filtration in a nephron is
A)blood colloid osmotic pressure.
B)glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
C)osmotic pressure of the urine.
D)capsular hydrostatic pressure.
E)reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule pulls filtrate from blood.
Q3) ________ is an inherited abnormality that affects the development and structure of kidney tubules.
A)Glomerulonephritis
B)Polycystic kidney disease
C)Calculus
D)Renal failure
E)Hematuria
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hypercapnia refers to elevated levels of A)oxygen.
B)hemoglobin.
C)carbon monoxide.
D)sodium.
E)carbon dioxide.
Q2) A patient who has been both vomiting and having diarrhea is losing ________ from his body.
A)water
B)sodium
C)bicarbonate ion
D)hydrogen ion
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) Antidiuretic hormone
A)is released from the posterior pituitary gland.
B)stimulates water intake.
C)stimulates water conservation by the kidneys.
D)is produced by the hypothalamus.
E)All of the answers are correct.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary spermatocytes each contain
A)23 chromosomes.
B)23 pairs of chromosomes.
C)twice the diploid number of chromosomes.
D)46 pairs of chromosomes.
E)46 chromosomes.
Q2) The organ inferior to the urinary bladder and contains the urethra in the middle is the ________ gland.
A)prostate
B)bulbourethral
C)Cowper's
D)seminal vesicle
E)seminiferous tubular
Q3) A primary spermatocyte matures into ________ spermatids having ________ chromosomes.
A)millions of; 46
B)four; 23
C)one; 46
D)millions of; 23
E)four; 46
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements concerning development is false?
A)The term induction refers to the chemical interplay between developing cells.
B)The developing oocyte receives molecules that affect development from the surrounding granulosa cells.
C)Each blastomere in the blastula receives exactly the same cytoplasmic composition.
D)Differences in a cell's cytoplasmic makeup affect the cell's genetic activity.
E)Cells release molecules that affect the developmental process of neighboring cells.
Q2) How many chromosomes do human gametes contain?
A)12
B)23
C)46
D)92
E)6
Q3) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.
Q4) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?
Q5) A new mother tells you that when she nurses her baby,she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps.How would you explain this phenomenon?
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