Health Sciences
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the various aspects of human health, illness, and healthcare systems. It encompasses the study of biological, environmental, social, and behavioral factors influencing health at both individual and population levels. Students will examine the principles of disease prevention, health promotion, diagnostics, and therapeutic interventions while also gaining insight into healthcare policy, ethics, and management. The course prepares students for a wide range of careers within healthcare, public health, research, and allied health professions by providing a strong foundation in scientific knowledge and critical thinking skills.
Recommended Textbook
Biochemistry 1st Canadian Edition by Reginald Garrett
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Facts of Life: Chemistry Is the Logic of Biological Phenomena
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairs is NOT a specific molecular recognition mechanism based on structural complementarity?
A)a protein with a metabolite
B)a strand of DNA and its complementary strand
C)sperm and an egg
D)hormone receptor and a second messenger
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following regarding the nature of the hydrogen bond is correct?
A)The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a carbon.
B)The more linear the bond,the stronger the interaction.
C)The acceptor must be similar in electronegativity to hydrogen.
D)A hydrogen bond is weaker than van der Waals forces.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following groups of interactions is in the correct order by INCREASING strength?
A)ionic,hydrogen bond,van der Waals,covalent single bond
B)hydrogen bond,van der Waals,ionic,covalent single bond
C)van der Waals,ionic,hydrogen bond,covalent single bond
D)covalent single bond,van der Waals,ionic,hydrogen bond
Answer: C
Page 3
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Chapter 2: Water: the Medium of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a trait of hydrogen bonds in ice?
A)weak
B)non-directional
C)straight
D)responsibility for the higher density of ice over liquid water
Answer: C
Q2) The enzyme fumarase has a pH optimum of about 7.6.Which of the following would be the buffer of choice to study this enzyme?
A)tris-hydroxymethyl aminomethane (K<sub>a</sub> = 8.32 × 10<sup>-9</sup>,pK<sub>a</sub> = 8.07)
B)lactic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.38 × 10<sup>-4</sup>,pK<sub>a</sub> = 3.86)
C)bicarbonate (K<sub>a </sub>= 6.3 × 10<sup>-11</sup>,pK<sub>a </sub>= 10.24)
D)acetic acid (K<sub>a</sub> = 1.74 × 10<sup>-5</sup>,pK<sub>a</sub> = 4.76)
Answer: A
Q3) Which of the following is NOT soluble in water?
A)salts
B)sugars
C)aldehydes
D)hydrocarbons
Answer: D
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Chapter 3: Thermodynamics of Biological Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best explains the large G° for the hydrolysis of phosphoenolpyruvate?
A)hydrolysis of the phosphoanhydride bond along with the conversion of the enol to the keto form of pyruvate
B)the hydrolysis of the phosphoanhydride bond
C)conversion from the enol to the keto form of pyruvate
D)strong bond energy along with a change in the stereochemistry of the molecule
Answer: A
Q2) From which of the following molecules is the hydrolysis of a phosphate most thermodynamically favourable?
A)adenosine-5'-triphosphate
B)glucose phosphate
C)adenosine-5'-diphosphate
D)phosphoenolpyruvate
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Amino Acids
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Q1) Which of the following amino acid derivatives is correctly derived from its corresponding commonly occurring amino acid?
A)GABA is a neurotransmitter derived from aspartic acid.
B)Histamine is a neurotransmitter derived from proline.
C)Epinephrine is a hormone derived from tyrosine.
D)Serotonin is a neurotransmitter derived from phenylalanine.
Q2) Of the following four amino acids which one absorbs light most strongly between 250 and 300 nm?
A)histidine
B)phenylalanine
C)tryptophan
D)tyrosine
Q3) What effect does the presence of the -COO- group of an amino acid have on the pK value of its -NH group?
A)The pK<sub>a</sub> value increases by >2 pH units.
B)The pK<sub>a</sub> value decrease by > 2 pH units.
C)The pK<sub>a</sub> value increases by ~1.5 pH units.
D)The pK<sub>a</sub> value decrease by ~ 1.5 pH units.
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Chapter 5: Proteins: Their Primary Structure and Biological
Functions
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Q1) Which of the following protein terms describes hemoglobin?
A)regulatory
B)transport
C)storage
D)structural
Q2) Which level of structural organization best describes the a-helix and b-strand components of protein structure?
A)primary
B)secondary
C)tertiary
D)quaternary
Q3) Which of the following treatments is NOT a useful method for dissociating a heteromultimeric protein during sequencing?
A)high salt concentrations
B)6 N HCl at 110°C for 24 hours
C)8 M urea
D)6 M guanidinium chloride
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Proteins: Secondary, tertiary, and Quaternary Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these proteins help other proteins to fold?
A)immunoglobulins
B)phospholipases
C)synthetases
D)molecular chaperones
Q2) Which of the following does NOT apply to the collective motions of proteins?
A)The movements of groups of atoms are covalently linked in such a way that the group moves as a unit.
B)It includes trypsin ring flips.
C)It includes trans-cis isomerization of prolines.
D)It involves the flexible antigen-binding domains of immunoglobulins.
Q3) Which molecule is an example of an antiparallel -helix protein?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)flavodoxin
C)hemoglobin
D)papain
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8
Chapter 7: Carbohydrates and the Glycoconjugates of Cell Surfaces
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following disaccharides contains an a(14)O-glycosidic bond?
A)sucrose
B)lactose
C)maltose
D)cellobiose
Q2) Which of the following pairs of molecules is found in tendons,cartilage,and other connective tissue?
A)heparin and chondroitins
B)chondroitins and keratin sulfate
C)keratin sulfate and dermatan sulfate
D)hyaluronate and keratin sulfate
Q3) In plant cells,starch is hydrolyzed by starch phosphorylase.Which of the following is released upon hydrolysis?
A)glucose-1-phosphate and a starch molecule with 1 less glucose unit
B)glucose-6-phosphate and a starch molecule with 1 less glucose unit
C)maltose-1-phosphate and a starch molecule with 2 less glucose units
D)maltose-6-phosphate and a starch molecule with 2 less glucose units
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Page 9
Chapter 8: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best characterizes plant sterols?
A)so similar to cholesterol that they undergo the same physiology and metabolism
B)different isomers of cholesterol at the double bond location only
C)to be avoided in your diet because they elevate blood cholesterol levels
D)highly effective in blocking the absorption of cholesterol by intestinal cells
Q2) Which of the following steroid hormones participate in the control of carbohydrate,protein,and lipid metabolism?
A)progestins
B)androgens
C)estrogens
D)glucocorticoids
Q3) Which of the following is a correct definition of a lipid?
A)Triacylglycerol is formed from glycerol and 3 fatty acids,and is the primary lipid of membranes.
B)A phospholipid contains glycerol with 2 fatty acids and a phosphate,and very often forms bilayers.
C)Wax contains a fatty acid and alcohol,and is used primarily for energy storage.
D)Palmitic acid is the most commonly produced unsaturated fatty acid in animals.
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Chapter 9: Lipid Biosynthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) At what position in fatty acids can mammals introduce double bonds?
A) <sup>1</sup>
B) <sup>3</sup>
C) <sup>6</sup>
D) <sup>9</sup>
Q2) Which enzymes transform reducing equivalents derived from glycolysis in the form of NADH into NADPH?
A)malate dehydrogenase and malic enzyme
B)succinate dehydrogenase and malic enzyme
C)glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase and malate dehydrogenase
D)succinate dehydrogenase and malate dehydrogenase
Q3) Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of acetoacetyl-ACP?
A) -ketoacyl-ACP synthase (KSase)
B)acetyl-CoA carboxylase
C)acetyl transacylase
D) -ketoacyl reductase
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Chapter 10: Membranes and Membrane Transport
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Q1) Which of the following mechanisms associates the Ras proteins to the membrane?
A)thioester-linked fatty acyl anchor
B)thioether-linked prenyl anchor
C)carboxy-terminal ester-linked prenyl anchor
D)insertion of a portion of an amphipathic helix into the membrane
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the gastric proton pump?
A)It is a H ,K -ATPase.
B)It requires high levels of dietary K to create a K gradient.
C)It maintains a pH gradient of about 4.6 across the mucosal cell membrane.
D)It produces a net efflux of HCl into the stomach.
Q3) Which of the following is correct regarding the phase transitions of lipid bilayers?
A)Solutes interacting with membrane lipids affect transition temperatures.
B)The transitions are exothermic.
C)Pure phospholipid bilayers have wide transition ranges.
D)Functional group changes usually are associated with phase transitions.
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Chapter 11: The Reception and Transmission of Extracellular Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) In G proteins,binding of GTP causes G dissociation.Which of the following effector proteins does it subsequently associate with?
A)adenylyl cyclase
B)GTPase
C)cAMP
D)G
Q2) Hormones and other signal molecules bind with very high affinities to their receptors.At what concentrations are they produced in the body?
A)far above their K<sub>D</sub> values
B)not more than twice their K<sub>D</sub> values
C)equivalent to their K<sub>D</sub> values
D)far below their K<sub>D</sub> values
Q3) Which of the following actions of nitroglycerine occurs when NO is released?
A)antioxidant
B)vasoconstrictor
C)vasodilator
D)muscle tensor
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Chapter 12: Enzymes Kinetics and Specificity
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Q1) Which reaction would NOT proceed via bimolecular elementary steps?
A)C + D T + U
B)a reaction with a rate constant in the units of s<sup>-1</sup>
C)2A D + E
D)a reaction with a molecularity of 2
Q2) Which of the following defines the kinetics of a reaction when every enzyme molecule in the reaction mixture has its substrate-binding site occupied by substrate?
A)The kinetics become zero order and the velocity is V<sub>max</sub>/2.
B)The kinetics become zero order and the velocity is V<sub>max</sub>.
C)The kinetics become first order and the velocity is V<sub>max</sub>/2.
D)The kinetics become first order and the velocity isV<sub>max</sub>.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct for catalysts?
A)They work by lowering the energy of activation.
B)The average energy of the reaction is unchanged.
C)They combine transiently with the reactants,promoting a reactive transition state condition.
D)They are regenerated after each third reaction cycle.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Mechanisms of Enzyme Action
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Q1) Which of the following attributes does NOT explain why enzymes are flexible proteins and NOT rigid molecules?
A)Active sites are able to conform to the shape of the substrate.
B)Strain is placed upon the substrate while it binds to the enzyme.
C)Catalytic residues are oriented in such a way that they play a minor role in bond breakage and bond formation.
D)Near-attack conformations are achieved during formation of the transition state during an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
Q2) Aspartate proteases display a variety of substrate specificities.Which of the following peptide bonds,however,do they most actively cleave?
A)those on the carboxyl side of the basic amino acids
B)those on the amino side of aromatic amino acids
C)those between 2 small,neutral residues
D)those between 2 hydrophobic amino acid residues
Q3) Which of the following pairs below forms a low-barrier hydrogen bond?
A)Asp<sup>102 </sup>and Ser<sup>195</sup>
B)Asp<sup>102</sup> and His<sup>57</sup>
C)His<sup>57</sup> and Ser<sup>195</sup>
D)Ser<sup>195</sup> and carbonyl oxygen in the peptide bond
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Enzyme Regulation
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Q1) Which of the following is a function of the polypeptide of myoglobin?
A)protects the heme iron from oxygenation
B)keeps the heme iron in the ferric form
C)provides a pocket for iron to fit
D)cradles the heme group
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding isozymes is correct?
A)They catalyze the same reaction but have vastly different structures.
B)They are always monomeric proteins.
C)Their differences are based upon the type of metal ions needed for catalysis.
D)They often respond to different inhibitors and activators.
Q3) Which of the following regarding the effect of protons on binding of O by hemoglobin is NOT correct?
A)The saturation curve of Hb for O is displaced to the left (greater binding)as acidity increases.
B)Actively metabolizing tissues produce acid,which is an antagonist of oxygen binding by Hb.
C)As pH decreases,dissociation of O from Hb is enhanced.
D)The phenomenon is called the Bohr effect.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Molecular Motors
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of microtubules?
A)They are made up of 2 repeating subunits.
B)They grow at one end and are degraded at the other end.
C)They are static,helical structures.
D)They are hollow,cylindrical structures.
Q2) Which of the following features is a similarity between Rep helicase of E.coli and kinesin?
A)the capacity to move organelles
B)ring-like structures that encircle the substrate
C)2 subunits,1 of which is always bound to the polymer at any moment
D)tubulin binding heads that hydrolyze ATP
Q3) Which of the following is NOT correct regarding ciliary motion?
A)ATP-driven sliding or walking of dyneins occurs along microtubules.
B)Axonemes are surrounded by plasma membrane that is continuous with the plasma membrane of the cell.
C)Dynein molecules bridge between microtubules,alternating their "walking" along both bridging microtubules.
D)The result is a bending motion of the axoneme and subsequent bending of the cilia.
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Chapter 16: Nutrition and the Organization of Metabolism
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Q1) Most biotin-dependent carboxylations use a bicarbonate as the carboxylating agent.To which of the following substrates do they transfer the carboxyl group?
A)hydroxyl
B)carboxyl
C)carbonium ion
D)carbanion
Q2) Which of the following components is excess carbohydrate converted to when dietary carbohydrate consumption exceeds the energy needs of the individual?
A)amino acids and glucose
B)fructose and triacylglycerols
C)triacylglycerols and glycogen
D)glycogen and protein
Q3) Which of the following conditions does NOT have an increased risk associated with it when correlated with excess dietary fat levels?
A)sickle cell anemia
B)heart disease
C)colon cancer
D)breast cancer
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Chapter 17: Glycolysis
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Q1) Which of the following actions of phosphoglucoisomerase occurs when is secreted by T-cells?
A)It phosphorylates galactose.
B)It isomerizes galactose-6-phosphate to glucose-6-phosphate.
C)It promotes the survival of certain spinal neurons and sensory nerves.
D)It glycosylates sphingolipids surrounding nerves.
Q2) Glucokinase has a K<sub>m </sub>value of 10.0 mM,whereas hexokinase has a K<sub>m</sub> value of 0.1 mM.Which of the following is this consistent with?
A)Glucokinase acts on glucose only at high glucose concentrations.
B)Glucokinase acts on glucose at low concentrations.
C)Hexokinase acts on glucose only at high levels of glucose.
D)Hexokinase acts at about half-maximal velocity at glucose concentrations of 4-5 mM.
Q3) Which of the following enzymes,when genetically defective,can result in the most common form of hemolytic anemia?
A)pyruvate kinase
B)hexokinase
C)PFK-1
D)phosphoglycerate mutase
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19
Chapter 18: The Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle
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Q1) Which molecules may be increased when isocitrate dehydrogenase is inhibited?
A)pyruvate and oxaloacetate
B)glyoxylate and cytosolic acetyl-CoA
C)succinate and fumarate
D)lactate and alanine
Q2) Which of the following allosterically stimulate mammalian isocitrate dehydrogenase?
A)high NAD /NADH and high ADP/ATP ratios
B)low ADP/ATP and low NAD /NADH ratios
C)high NAD /NADH and low ADP/ATP ratios
D)low NAD /NADH and high ADP/ATP ratios
Q3) Which of these enzymes catalyzes the reaction CO + PEP + GDP OAA + GTP?
A)PEP carboxylase
B)PEP carboxykinase
C)malic enzyme
D)pyruvate carboxylase
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Chapter 19: Electron Transport and Oxidative
Phosphorylation
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Q1) In which of the following tissues does thermogenin (UCPI)create a passive proton channel through which protons flow from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix?
A)myelin
B)brown adipose
C)nerve
D)cardiac
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of the F unit of ATP synthase?
A)The - and -subunits are not homologous
B)It consists of 6 different kinds of subunits.
C)It catalyzes ATP synthesis but not ATP hydrolysis.
D)The -subunits have catalytic sites for ATP synthesis.
Q3) Which of the following is the source for the energy that drives ATP synthesis?
A)the proton gradient
B)NAD and FAD
C)the electron gradient
D)molecular oxygen
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21
Chapter 20: Photosynthesis
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Q1) How many CO molecules (X)are required to balance this reaction?
12 NADPH + 12 H + 18 ATP + X CO + 12 H O C H O + 12 NADP + 18 ADP + 18 P
A)3
B)6
C)12
D)18
Q2) Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction below?
Sedoheptulose-7-P + glyceraldehyde-3-P xylulose-5-P + ribose-5-P
A)isomerase
B)transaldolase
C)transketolase
D)aldolase
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a C-4 plant?
A)transport of carbon dioxide and reducing power from the mesophyll cells to the bundle sheath cells
B)pyruvate-Pi dikinase
C)expenditure of 2 high-energy phosphate bonds for each transport of carbon dioxide
D)carbon dioxide uptake in the daytime and fixation at night
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Chapter 21: Gluconeogenesis, glycogen Metabolism, and the Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a physiological change initiated by glucagon?
A)activation of glycogenolysis in liver
B)stimulation of liver gluconeogenesis
C)long-term maintenance of steady-state levels of glucose in the blood stream
D)activation of glycogenolysis in muscles
Q2) Which process occurs when a cell with the pentose phosphate pathway has need for more pentose phosphates,but no additional NADPH?
A)Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is activated.
B)The oxidative and non-oxidative enzymes of the pentose phosphate pathway are active.
C)The non-oxidative enzymes produce pentose phosphates from fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
D)All enzymes of glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathway are activated.
Q3) Which enzyme of gluconeogenesis is NOT found in the cytosol?
A)PEP carboxykinase
B)pyruvate carboxylase
C)fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
D)glucose-6-phosphatase
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Chapter 22: Fatty Acid Catabolism
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Q1) Which of the following classes of enzymes does enoyl-CoA hydratase belong to?
A)transferase
B)hydrolase
C)lyase
D)ligase
Q2) How many times must the ?-oxidation cycle be repeated for the complete oxidation of a saturated fatty acid with 16 carbons?
A)4
B)6
C)7
D)8
Q3) Which of the following steps is NOT a part of the sequence of events for activation of the release of fatty acids from adipose cells?
A)triacylglycerol lipase inactivation
B)adenylyl cyclase activation
C)cAMP production
D)hormone binding to the receptor
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24
Chapter 23: Nitrogen Acquisition and Amino Acid
Metabolism
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Q1) Which of the following molecules is transaminated to form aspartate?
A)asparagine
B)aspartame
C)oxaloacetate
D) -ketoglutarate
Q2) Which of the following amino acid carbon skeletons converges to pyruvate?
A)methionine
B)isoleucine
C)glutamate
D)cysteine
Q3) Which of the following molecules is NOT a convergent metabolic intermediate of a-amino acid carbon skeletons?
A)citrate
B) -ketoglutarate
C)oxaloacetate
D)succinyl-CoA
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Chapter 24: Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids
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Q1) What type of bond links the nitrogenous base to the nucleotide sugar?
A) -anhydride
B) -N-amide
C) -N-acetyl (glycosidic)
D) -N-hemiacetal
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly identifies type II restriction endonucleases?
A)They work on both DNA and RNA.
B)They recognize a palindromic sequence and cut just before the palindromic sequence.
C)They degrade DNA by subsequently removing bases from each end.
D)They cut DNA only at sites in specific nucleotide sequences with a 2-fold axis of symmetry.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an important characteristic of DNA?
A)adenine and uracil as a base pair
B)a 1:1 ratio between pyrimidine residues and purine residues
C)hydrogen bonding between base pairs
D)information accessed through transcription of the information into RNA
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Chapter 25: Structure of Nucleic Acids
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Q1) Which of the following major interactions assist in folding components of the secondary structure of tRNA together and bending the cloverleaf into a stable L-shaped tertiary form?
A)van der Waals
B)ionic
C)base-pairing
D)electrostatic interactions
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a secondary structure component of tRNA?
A)acceptor stem
B) -turn l
C)anticodon loop
D)TYC loop
Q3) Which of the following terms is for the naturally occurring,self-replicating,extra-chromosomal DNA molecules found in bacteria that carry genes specifying novel metabolic capacity advantageous to the bacterium?
A)probes
B)cruciform
C)toroidal DNA
D)plasmids
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Synthesis and Degradation of Nucleotides
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Q1) Which of the following types of bonds is formed in purine biosynthesis when glycine adds to 5-phosphoribosyl- -amine?
A)glycosidic
B)anhydride
C)amine
D)thioester
Q2) Which of the following is an advantage of metabolic channelling?
A)It does not allow for substrate dilution into the milieu or the accumulation of intermediates.
B)It allows the product of one reaction to be available for a reaction later in another pathway.
C)It allows the diffusion of substrates.
D)It allows a more diverse interaction of substrates,intermediates,and enzymes.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
A)gouty arthritis due to excessive uric acid degradation
B)severe malfunctions of the nervous system
C)complete deficiency in HGPRT activity
D)congenital,recessive,sex-linked trait manifested only in males
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28
Chapter 27: Recombinant Dna: Cloning and Creation of Chimeric Genes
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Q1) Which procedure looks at all the genes that are activated during a major metabolic shift or during embryogenesis and development of organisms?
A)fractional expression
B)genetic fractionation
C)functional genomics
D)mutagenesis
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a step in the sequence for construction of a chimeric plasmid?
A)annealing the ends of the vector and foreign DNA
B)cutting the source of the foreign DNA with a restriction endonuclease
C)reannealing the ends of the vector back together
D)cutting the vector plasmid with the same restriction endonuclease
Q3) Which of the following is a property of shuttle vectors?
A)They contain promoters for the expression of the gene.
B)They have origins of replication for 2 different cell types,usually bacteria and yeast.
C)They are capable of incorporating very large DNA fragments.
D)They contain more than 1 antibiotic-resistant gene.
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Page 29
Chapter 28: DNA Metabolism: Replication, recombination, and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the principal DNA polymerase in eukaryotic leading-strand DNA replication?
A)DNA polymerase (alpha)
B)DNA polymerase (beta)
C)DNA polymerase (gamma)
D)DNA polymerase (delta)
Q2) Which of the following nucleotides would replace A in a transition mutation?
A)T
B)C
C)U
D)G
Q3) Which of the following enzymes seals nicks in dsDNA where a 3'-OH and 5'-phosphate are juxtapositioned?
A)DNA polymerase I
B)DNA gyrase
C)DNA polymerase III
D)DNA ligase
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Page 30
Chapter 29: Transcription and the Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following does single polycistronic mRNA encode for in bacteria?
A)a single enzyme although there are many in the metabolic pathway
B)multiple enzymes of the particular pathway
C)a single mRNA which is split into multiple mRNAs before translation
D)a single peptide with multiple catabolic sites
Q2) Which of the following terms for gene expression is often responsive to small molecules that increase synthesis of enzymes for metabolism of a certain substrate?
A)autoregulation
B)co-induction
C)induction
D)repression
Q3) Which of the following pairs defines the coding and non-coding regions,respectively,for most eukaryotic RNA?
A)introns,exons
B)exons,introns
C)spliceons,codons
D)codons,spliceons
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Page 31
Chapter 30: Protein Synthesis
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of ribosomes do mitochondrial and chloroplastic ribosomes resemble?
A)prokaryotic
B)lower eukaryotic
C)higher eukaryotic
D)viral
Q2) Peptidyl transferase is the catalytic centre of the ribosome.Where is it located?
A)on the 30 S subunit near the decoding centre
B)on the 30 S subunit near the head
C)on the 50 S subunit near the centre protuberance
D)on the 50 S subunit at the bottom of a deep cleft
Q3) What is the ribosomal peptidyl transferase transformed into by the termination signal complex?
A)a lyase
B)an isomerase
C)a hydrolase
D)a transferase
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Chapter 31: Post-Transcriptional Regulation of Gene Expression
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Q1) Which of the following do miRNAs binds?
A)GREs
B)seed elements
C)AREs
D)core promoters
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of P-bodies?
A)They are mitochondrial foci consisting of RNA-protein complexes.
B)Under stress conditions they typically reduce their sizes.
C)They are aggregates of messenger ribonucleoproteins (mRNPs)and P-body components.
D)They are aggregates of messenger ribonucleoproteins (mRNPs)and P-body components
Q3) Which of the following is GRE-mediated mRNA decay (GMD)dependent upon?
A)RNP1
B)ARE
C)AUBP
D)CUGBP1
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Page 33
Chapter
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Q1) Which of the following does NOT occur during ubiquitination degradation of proteins?
A)Multiple ubiquitinations may occur on a protein substrate.
B)Ubiquitin-protein ligase (E<sub>3</sub>)transfers ubiquitin to free amino groups on the protein.
C)E<sub>3</sub> selects a protein for degradation by the nature of the C-terminal amino acid.
D)Ubiquitin-carrier protein (E<sub>2</sub>)picks up ubiquitin.
Q2) Which of the following is a characteristic of HtrA proteases?
A)chaperones at low temperatures
B)ATP-dependent
C)proteases at low temperatures
D)bind folded proteins
Q3) Which of the following is the proper sequence for transport of inner mitochondrial membrane proteins?
A)TOM;TIM23
B)SAM;TOM;TIM22
C)TOM;TIM22
D)SAM;TOM;TIM23
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Chapter 33: Metabolic Integration and Organ Specialization
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a purpose for the liver?
A)production of insulin to regulate metabolism
B)conversion of amino acids into metabolic fuel
C)production of ketone bodies
D)detoxification of poisons and drugs
Q2) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic associated with "brown fat"?
A)high levels of mitochondria rich in cytochromes
B)absence of uncoupler protein-1,thermogenin,in the mitochondrial inner membrane
C)energy from oxidation converted to heat
D)found in newborns and hibernating animals
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a use of glucose-6-phosphate in liver?
A)catabolism to acetyl-CoA for fatty acid biosynthesis
B)generation of NADH and hexoses
C)release as glucose to blood stream
D)conversion to glycogen
Q4) Which of the following is a feature of ATP stoichiometry in metabolic pathways?
A)It is not a consequence of evolution.
B)A singular number is not required.
C)It results from biological adaptation.
D)It cannot be predicted from any chemical considerations.
Page 35
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