Health Sciences
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Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the scientific principles underlying human health, disease, and well-being. This course examines a broad range of topics including anatomy, physiology, public health, nutrition, epidemiology, and healthcare systems. Students will gain foundational knowledge about how biological, environmental, social, and behavioral factors impact health. The curriculum emphasizes both preventative and clinical aspects of health, preparing students to analyze health issues, understand healthcare delivery, and engage in evidence-based practice. Ethical, legal, and cultural considerations in health are also discussed, equipping students with a holistic view of global and community health challenges.
Recommended Textbook
Human Anatomy 4th Edition by Michael McKinley Dr
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Chapter 1: A First Look at Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) A professional fighter hit in the mental region might have damage to the A)jaw.
B)ear.
C)nose.
D)knee.
E)shoulder.
Answer: A
Q2) The best term for referring to the rear or tail end is A)caudal.
B)cephalic.
C)inferior.
D)superior.
E)lateral.
Answer: A
Q3) The chest is superior to the head.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) The ______ system produces movement and generates heat when its parts contract.
Answer: muscular
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Cell: Basic Unit of Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Collagen produced by ____________ cells forms ligaments that attach bone to bone.
Answer: fibroblast
Q2) Bulk filtration occurs as a result of
A)molecular movement with carrier assistance.
B)hydrostatic pressure.
C)the expenditure of energy in the form of ATP.
D)concentration gradients.
E)ion pumps.
Answer: B
Q3) In order to process digested nutrients and detoxify chemical agents such as drugs and alcohol,the ______ contains abundant amounts of smooth ER.
A)liver
B)kidney
C)small intestine
D)pancreas
E)stomach
Answer: A
Q4) _____________ is the division of the cytoplasm during cell division.
Answer: Cytokinesis
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Chapter 3: Embryology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The number of chromosomes in a secondary oocyte is
A)greater than the number in a mature sperm.
B)less than the number in a mature sperm.
C)the same as the number in a mature sperm.
D)greater than the number in a polar body.
E)less than the number in a polar body.
Answer: C
Q2) A double-stranded chromosome consists of two genetically identical sister chromatids.What important biological event produced the sister chromatids?
A)Crossing over
B)Genetic mutation
C)Mitosis
D)Replication
E)Reduction division
Answer: D
Q3) From which primary germ layer is the nervous system derived?
A)Ectoderm
B)Mesoderm
C)Endoderm
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not secreted by glands?
A)Mucin
B)Hormones
C)DNA
D)Enzymes
E)Waste products
Q2) Smooth muscle is also known as _____ muscle.
A)voluntary
B)striated
C)visceral
D)cardiac
E)skeletal
Q3) Which of the following is not a body membrane?
A)Serous
B)Cutaneous
C)Mucous
D)Cartilaginous
E)Synovial
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Chapter 5: Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The epidermis exhibits variations among different body regions within a single individual,as well as differences between individuals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) From deep to superficial,the order of the strata of the epidermis is
A)basale - spinosum - granulosum - lucidum - corneum.
B)spinosum - granulosum - basale - lucidum - corneum.
C)corneum - lucidum - granulosum - spinosum - basale.
D)basale - granulosum - spinosum - lucidum - corneum.
E)corneum - granulosum - lucidum - spinosum - basale.
Q3) When the body is too warm,dermal blood vessels will undergo _______ in order to increase heat loss.
Q4) Sudoriferous glands and ______ glands are examples of exocrine glands in the skin.
Q5) What is the composition of the subcutaneous layer?
A)Adipose connective tissue
B)Areolar connective tissue
C)Dense irregular connective tissue
D)Areolar connective tissue and dense irregular connective tissue
E)Areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Cartilage and Bone
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,the mechanical stresses on bones that result from exercise tend to weaken them and lead to more frequent fractures.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The zones found in an epiphyseal plate are
A: Calcified cartilage
B: Hypertrophic cartilage
C: Ossification
D: Resting cartilage
E: Proliferating cartilage
The correct order for these zones,beginning with the edge closest to the epiphysis,is
A)c - a - b - e - d
B)d - b - e - a - c
C)e - d - a - c - b
D)c - d - e - a - b
E)d - e - b - a - c
Q3) Found within both the periosteum and endosteum,_________ cells are derived from mesenchyme and serve as the stem cells of bone.
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Chapter 7: Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra?
A)Pedicles
B)Vertebral foramen
C)Spinous process
D)Vertebral arch
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q2) The vertebral column includes ___ cervical,___ thoracic,and ___ lumbar vertebrae.
A)5;12;7
B)6;14;6
C)7;13;4
D)7;12;5
E)6;13;5
Q3) What is the correct order for the vertebral regions,from superior to inferior?
A)Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar
B)Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - cervical - coccygeal
C)Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal
D)Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral
E)Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral
Q4) The ________ forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the total number of phalanges in a normal human body?
A)50
B)56
C)28
D)14
E)42
Q2) The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the
A)patellar ligament.
B)hamstring muscles.
C)patellar tendon.
D)sciatic nerve.
E)intercondylar eminence.
Q3) The appendicular skeleton begins to develop during the ______ week of embryonic development.
A)1st
B)4th
C)10th
D)12th
E)8th
Q4) The longest,heaviest bone in the body is the ____________.
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which joint is multiaxial?
A)Pivot
B)Ball and socket
C)Condylar
D)Plane
E)Hinge
Q2) Which is not a function of synovial fluid?
A)Nourishes osteocytes
B)Lubricates articulating surfaces
C)Removes wastes
D)Serves as shock absorber
E)Distributes stress forces across articular surfaces
Q3) The joints in the body that are the most mobile,such as the glenohumeral joint or coxal joint,are also the most stable.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A common knee injury is a torn ACL,which stands for anterior ________ ligament.
Q5) The epiphyseal plates in long bones are examples of synchondroses.
A)True
B)False
11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue and Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The structure responsible for attaching muscle to bone is a A)sphincter.
B)ligament. C)fascia.
D)tendon.
E)myofibril.
Q2) An increase in the size of a muscle fiber is called _________________.
Q3) During muscle contraction,myosin heads attach to actin and thereby form connections called ______________.
Q4) This sarcomere depicts relaxed muscle.The M line is noted by number A)1.
B)2.
C)3.
D)4.
E)5.
Q5) The junction between an axon and the muscle fiber itself is called a _____________ junction.
Q6) During skeletal muscle fiber contraction,the I bands and H zones narrow. A)True B)False
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Axial Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) This figure shows the muscles of the abdominal wall.What muscle or feature does number 3 indicate?
A)Rectus abdominis
B)Transversus abdominis
C)Internal oblique
D)External oblique
E)Linea alba
Q2) This figure shows the muscles of respiration.What muscles are indicated by number 3?
A)External intercostals
B)Internal intercostals
C)Scalenes
D)Diaphragm
E)Transversus thoracis
Q3) Of the muscles listed,the only one not innervated by the pudendal nerve is the
A)external anal sphincter.
B)coccygeus.
C)iliococcygeus.
D)pubococcygeus.
E)puborectalis.
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Chapter 12: Appendicular Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which muscle pulls the pinky finger away from the other fingers?
A)Opponens pollicis
B)Abductor digiti minimi
C)Opponens digiti minimi
D)Dorsal interossei
E)Lumbricals
Q2) All of the muscles that move the glenohumeral joint insert somewhere on the humerus,except one.Which one?
A)Coracobrachialis
B)Triceps brachii
C)Latissimus dorsi
D)Pectoralis major
E)Supraspinatus
Q3) This figure shows a posterior view of the right thigh.What muscle does number 1 indicate?
A)Semitendinosus
B)Semimembranosus
C)Biceps femoris
D)Adductor magnus
E)Gluteus maximus
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Chapter 13: Surface Anatomy
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nerve that wraps behind the medial epicondyles of the humerus is the _____ nerve.
A)ulnar
B)radial
C)sciatic
D)femoral
E)vagus
Q2) The triangle of auscultation is bounded by the rhomboid major,the trapezius,and the A)deltoid.
B)occipitalis.
C)teres major.
D)gluteus maximus.
E)latissimus dorsi.
Q3) The face is divided into _______ regions.
A)2
B)3
C)4
D)5
E)6
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which glial cell protects neuron cell bodies located within ganglia?
A)Satellite cell
B)Ependymal cell
C)Neurolemmocyte
D)Astrocyte
E)Oligodendrocyte
Q2) Which is not a function of the motor division of the nervous system?
A)Conducts output (nerve impulses)from the CNS
B)Transmits impulses to muscles and glands
C)Transmits impulses from the viscera
D)Voluntary control of skeletal muscle
E)Involuntary control of the heart
Q3) A nerve
A)contains a single axon.
B)is found only in the CNS.
C)carries only sensory information.
D)carries information only toward the PNS.
E)is a cablelike bundle of parallel axons.
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Chapter 15: Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary somatosensory cortex is part of the A)occipital lobe.
B)temporal lobe.
C)insula.
D)parietal lobe.
E)frontal lobe.
Q2) Arrange the five secondary vesicles in the correct anterior to posterior order.
A: Diencephalon
B: Myelencephalon
C: Telencephalon
D: Metencephalon
E: Mesencephalon
A)b,a,c,d,e
B)a,b,c,d,e
C)b,c,a,e,d
D)c,d,e,a,b
E)c,a,e,d,b
Q3) Cerebrospinal fluid is identical to blood plasma.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) In general,nerves from the posterior division of the brachial plexus tend to innervate muscles that extend the parts of the upper limb.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The embryonic feature that gives rise to the anterior and lateral horns of gray matter and part of the gray commissure is the _____ plate.
A)basal
B)alar
C)ulnar
D)anterior
E)posterior
Q3) Stepping on a piece of glass would most likely invoke a _____ reflex.
A)Golgi tendon
B)withdrawal
C)stretch
D)pain
E)motor
Q4) A ___________ is a specific segment of skin that is supplied by a single spinal nerve.
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Chapter 17: Pathways and Integrative Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) An ascending pathway carries
A)sensory information from the body to the brain.
B)motor information from the body to the brain.
C)sensory information from the brain to the body.
D)motor information from the brain to muscles and glands.
E)both motor and sensory information from the body to the brain.
Q2) Which of these movements or muscle groups is not controlled by motor information transmitted by the corticobulbar tracts?
A)Eye movements
B)Certain superficial muscles of the back and neck
C)Muscles of the upper leg
D)Cranial,facial,pharyngeal,and laryngeal muscles
E)Intrinsic and extrinsic tongue muscles
Q3) Motor pathways are ascending pathways in the brain and spinal cord that control the activities of skeletal muscle.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Only a fraction of our sensory impulses reach our conscious awareness.
A)True
B)False
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuronal __________ occurs when axons from numerous preganglionic cells synapse on a single ganglionic cell.
Q2) The developing heart and lungs begin to receive autonomic innervation in the _______ week of development.
A)4th
B)5th
C)6th
D)10th
E)16th
Q3) Postganglionic sympathetic axons are carried from the sympathetic trunk to the spinal nerve by the
A)white rami communicantes.
B)superior cervical ganglion.
C)gray rami communicantes.
D)splanchnic nerves.
E)pterygopalatine ganglion.
Q4) Parasympathetic stimulation of the ciliary muscles allows one to see close-up objects.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Senses: General and Special
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Sample Questions
Q1) The conjunctiva is composed of _____ epithelium.
A)simple squamous
B)simple cuboidal
C)stratified squamous
D)simple columnar
E)stratified keratinized
Q2) Conscious awareness of incoming sensory information is called
A)sensation.
B)reception.
C)stimulation.
D)adaptation.
E)transduction.
Q3) What inner ear structure detects acceleration and deceleration movements of the head?
A)Cupulas
B)Spiral organ
C)Maculae
D)Auditory ossicles
E)Scala vestibule
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which endocrine gland is paired (meaning that there are two in the body)?
A)Pancreas
B)Thyroid
C)Pineal
D)Thymus
E)Adrenal
Q2) This figure shows the endocrine system.Which structure does number 10 indicate?
A)Adrenal gland
B)Thyroid gland
C)Pituitary gland
D)Pancreas
E)Hypothalamus
Q3) This figure shows an example of regulation of hormone secretion by a negative feedback loop.The large box labeled 1 represents the initial stimulus.What hormones are represented by the small boxes labeled a,b,and c?
A)a = TSH,b = TRH,c = TH
B)a = TIH,b = TSH,c = TH
C)a = TRH,b = TSH,c = TIH
D)a = TRH,b = TSH,c = TH
E)a = TSH,b = TH,c = TRH
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Chapter 21: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The molecule to which both oxygen and carbon dioxide can attach in an erythrocyte is called _________________.
Q2) Fibrin,which is produced from the plasma protein _______________,helps form blood clots.
Q3) A _______________ (singular)is the name for the cylinder shape that erythrocytes form as they line up in single file for passage through the smallest blood vessels.
Q4) Unused platelets last about 8 to 10 days before they are broken down and their contents recycled.
A)True B)False
Q5) The blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive. A)True B)False
Q6) The production of platelets is called _______________.
Q7) The dark bluish or purplish discoloration of the skin and mucous membrane as a result of deficient oxygenation of the blood is called _______________.
Q8) The process of erythrocyte production is called _______________.
Q9) The rupture of erythrocytes is called ____________.
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Chapter 22: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) One example of cardiac arrhythmia is _________,in which a rapid,repetitious movement of the ventricular muscle replaces normal contractions.
A)atrial fibrillation
B)atrial flutter
C)ventricular fibrillation
D)premature ventricular contraction
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) Another name for the visceral layer of the serous pericardium is ________________.
Q3) The left atrium and left ventricle are part of which circuit of the cardiovascular system?
A)Pulmonary circuit
B)Cardio circuit
C)Coronary circuit
D)Systemic circuit
E)Schwann circuit
Q4) The ______________ circuit consists of the chambers on the right side of the heart as well as the pulmonary arteries and veins.
Q5) During early ventricular diastole the semilunar valves ________________.
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Chapter 23: Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are considered end arteries?
A)Epigastric arteries
B)Renal arteries
C)Splenic arteries
D)Epigastric and renal arteries
E)Renal and splenic arteries
Q2) Blood pressure is lowest in
A)arteries.
B)veins.
C)arterioles.
D)venules.
E)capillaries.
Q3) Which send blood to either esophageal arteries or esophageal branches to supply the esophagus with blood?
A)Thoracic aorta
B)Bronchial arteries
C)Left gastric artery
D)Thoracic aorta and left gastric artery
E)Bronchial arteries and left gastric artery
Q4) The ______________ artery supplies the ileum,cecum,and appendix.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spleen phagocytizes old or defective erythrocytes and platelets in a process known as ________________.
Q2) Obstruction of the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels can lead to an accumulation of interstitial fluid in the tissues.This condition is characterized by pain and swelling,and is called ________________.
Q3) The spleen is essentially a giant lymph node,since it is encapsulated,has trabeculae,and filters lymph to remove antigens.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A variety of lymphatic cells are involved in the immune response.Which is not part of the process?
A)Production of antibodies
B)Direct attack and destruction of foreign or abnormal agents
C)Replication of antigens
D)Formation of memory cells
E)No exceptions;all choices are part of the immune response.
Q5) The thymus gland begins to atrophy after puberty.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) During embryonic development,the conducting portion of the respiratory system develops by the _____ week.
A)4th
B)6th
C)10th
D)12th
E)16th
Q2) The typical cell making up the alveolar wall is the
A)alveolar type II cell.
B)alveolar type I cell.
C)alveolar macrophages.
D)dust cells.
E)septal cell.
Q3) Which sinus does the number 1 indicate?
A)Frontal sinus
B)Anterior sinus
C)Ethmoidal sinus
D)Maxillary sinus
E)Sphenoidal sinus
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Page 27
Chapter 26: Digestive System
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Q1) The teniae coli of the large intestine pull the large intestine into many sacs,collectively called _____________.
Q2) Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?
A)Esophagus
B)Large intestine
C)Stomach
D)Oral cavity
E)Liver
Q3) Which is not correct regarding bile?
A)Bile is produced by Kupffer cells.
B)Bile canaliculi transport bile to the periphery of each lobule.
C)Bile is stored and concentrated in the gallbladder.
D)Bile and blood flow in opposite directions within each hepatic lobule.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) The cystic duct and common bile duct unite to form the common hepatic duct.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
Q6) Chewed food mixed with saliva is called a _____________,which is swallowed once mastication is complete.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The concave medial border of the kidney is called the __________.
Q2) Which does not enter or exit the kidney at the hilum?
A)Renal artery
B)Ureter
C)Renal vein
D)Renal plexus
E)No exceptions;all choices enter or exit the kidney at the hilum.
Q3) This figure shows a renal corpuscle.What structure does number 1 indicate?
A)Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
B)Collecting duct
C)Nephron loop
D)Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
E)Papillary duct
Q4) The external urethral sphincter
A)surrounds the external urethral orifice.
B)is composed of smooth muscle fibers.
C)is controlled by the somatic nervous system.
D)opens before the internal urethral sphincter during the micturition reflex.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q5) Each kidney contains more than a million "functional units" called ___________.
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Chapter 28: Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vagina is lined with A)transitional epithelium.
B)stratified squamous epithelium.
C)ciliated columnar epithelium.
D)simple cuboidal epithelium.
E)pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
Q2) The normal site of fertilization is the A)vagina.
B)body of the uterus.
C)fundus of the uterus.
D)cervix.
E)uterine tube.
Q3) What is the correct order for the phases of the ovarian cycle,beginning with day 1?
A)Luteal - follicular - ovulation
B)Follicular - luteal - ovulation
C)Follicular - ovulation - luteal
D)Ovulation - follicular - luteal
E)Ovulation - luteal - follicular
Q4) Before birth,the uterus contains primary germ cells called ________________.
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