Health Sciences
Solved Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that examines the many factors influencing human health, disease prevention, and health care delivery. This course explores the biological, social, and environmental determinants of health; the structure and function of health systems; and methods in health promotion and research. Students gain foundational knowledge in topics such as human anatomy and physiology, public health, epidemiology, and health policy, developing analytical and practical skills applicable to a variety of health-related professions and graduate study paths.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 7th Edition by McCance
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49 Chapters
1881 Verified Questions
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Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades,such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascades,may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases?
A) Cardiac and vascular disorders
B) Autoimmune and malignant disorders
C) Gastrointestinal and renal disorders
D) Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders
Answer: B
Q2) What is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates,proteins,and lipids is transferred to adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A) Anaerobic glycolysis
B) Oxidative cellular metabolism
C) Oxidative phosphorylation
D) Tricarboxylic acid phosphorylation
Answer: C
Q3) Movement of water
A)Passive-mediated transport
B)Active-mediated transport
C)Osmosis
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) During cell injury caused by hypoxia,sodium and water move into the cell because:
A) Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related.
B) The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in ATP levels.
C) The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane.
D) Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell.
Answer: B
Q2) Examples of adaptive cellular responses include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Atrophy
B) Dysplasia
C) Hypertrophy
D) Hyperplasia
E) Metaplasia
Answer: A,C,D,E
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Environment: Fluids and Electrolytes, Acids
and Bases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regulates osmolality in the extracellular fluid (ECF)space.
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: A
Q2) What mechanism can cause hypernatremia?
A) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
B) Hypersecretion of aldosterone
C) Brief bouts of vomiting or diarrhea
D) Excessive diuretic therapy
Answer: B
Q3) An intracellular metabolic form is adenosine triphosphate (ATP).
A)Sodium
B)Chloride
C)Potassium
D)Magnesium
E)Phosphate
Answer: E
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chromosomal abnormalities are the leading known cause of: (Select all that apply.)
A) Mental illness
B) Mental retardation
C) Fetal miscarriage
D) Cardiovascular disease
E) Respiratory disorders
Q2) Cystic fibrosis
A)Autosomal dominant
B)Autosomal recessive
C)X-linked dominant
D)X-linked recessive
Q3) The purpose of a staining technique of chromosomes such as Giemsa is to:
A) Permit the mitotic process to be followed and monitored for variations.
B) Allow for the numbering of chromosomes and the identification of variations.
C) Identify new somatic cells formed through mitosis and cytokinesis.
D) Distinguish the sex chromosomes from the homologous chromosomes.
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Traits caused by the combined effects of multiple genes
A)Incidence rate effect of multiple genes
B)Gene-environment interaction
C)Prevalence rate at which some diseases occur
D)Obesity
E)Polygenic
F)Empirical risk
G)Relative risk
Q2) The two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes are:
A) Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations
B) Autoantibodies and obesity
C) Obesity and positive family history
D) HLA associations and positive family history
Q3) Cancers that cluster strongly in families include: (Select all that apply.)
A) Breast
B) Colon
C) Ovarian
D) Lung
E) Brain
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Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) When microRNA (miRNA)are methylated their messenger RNA (mRNA)targets are over-expressed,the resulting effect on existing cancer would be:
A) Cell death
B) Metastasis
C) Remission
D) Relapse
Q2) What genetic process is likely responsible for the occurrence of asthma in only one of a pair of identical twins?
A) Epigenetic modifications
B) Genomic imprinting
C) Transgenerational inheritance
D) Methylation
Q3) A malfunction in DNA methylation can lead to:
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Blindness
C) Cancer
D) Diabetes mellitus
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cellular damage occurs and regeneration is minor with no significant complications,the process of returning the cells to preinjury function is referred to as:
A) Restoration
B) Resolution
C) Regrowth
D) Replacement
Q2) During the process of endocytosis,the phagosome step results in:
A) Microorganisms are ingested.
B) Microorganisms are killed and digested.
C) Phagocytes recognize and adhere to bacteria.
D) An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed.
Q3) Which cell is the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?
A) Eosinophil
B) Neutrophils
C) T lymphocytes
D) B lymphocytes
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9
Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
A) The virus does not circulate in the blood.
B) It does not have antibody receptors.
C) It resists agglutination.
D) The virus is a soluble antigen.
Q2) Cytokines are vital to a cell's ability to do which function?
A) Excrete
B) Reproduce
C) Metabolize
D) Communicate
Q3) The B-cell receptor (BCR)complex functions uniquely by:
A) Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell
B) Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells
C) Recognizing the antigen on the surface of the B lymphocyte
D) Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus
Q4) Mediates many common allergic responses
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
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Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation?
A) Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltrating macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue.
B) Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue.
C) Receptors on natural killer cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue.
D) Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate preformed chemical mediators that destroy tissue.
Q2) Which disorders are considered autoimmune? (Select all that apply.)
A) Crohn disease
B) Addison disease
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
E) Noninsulin-dependent diabetes
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11
Chapter 10: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some bacterial surface proteins bind with the crystalline fragment (Fc)portion of an antibody to:
A) Hide in cells to avoid triggering an immune response
B) Form self-protecting toxins
C) Make staining possible for microscopic observation
D) Produce a protective "self" protein
Q2) An important factor in determining a pathogen's ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin
A)Toxigenicity
B)Infectivity
C)Pathogenicity
D)Virulence
Q3) Cytokines are thought to cause fevers by stimulating the synthesis of which chemical mediator?
A) Leukotriene
B) Histamine
C) Prostaglandin
D) Bradykinin
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12
Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the signs that a patient is in the adaptive stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
A) He or she begins to experience elevated heart and respiratory rates.
B) He or she finds it difficult to concentrate on a solution for the stress.
C) The patient perceives his or her only options are to run away or fight back.
D) The patient has exceeded his or her ability to cope with the current situation.
Q2) Which gland regulates the immune response and mediates the apparent effects of circadian rhythms on immunity?
A) Anterior pituitary
B) Adrenal
C) Basal ganglia
D) Pineal
Q3) Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
A) Pupil constriction
B) Peripheral vasoconstriction
C) Increased sweat gland secretions
D) Decreased blood pressure
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Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a normal,nonmutant state,an oncogene is referred to as a:
A) Basal cell
B) Target cell
C) Caretaker gene
D) Proto-oncogene
Q2) Which cancers are all associated with chronic inflammation?
A) Brain, muscle, and endocrine
B) Colon, thyroid gland, and urinary bladder
C) Bone, blood cells, and liver
D) Eye, tracheal, and kidney
Q3) What is the skin-related health risk induced by some types of chemotherapy?
A) Infection
B) Ultraviolet damage
C) Pain
D) Erythema
Q4) Stomach cancer
A)HPV
B)Human herpesvirus (HHV) 8
C)Hepatis B virus (HBV)
D)Helicobacter pylori
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which environmental factors have been shown to have greatest significant effect on the frequency of genetic mutations in humans? (Select all that apply.)
A) Tobacco use
B) Radiation exposure
C) Obesity
D) Severe allergies
E) Stressful occupation
Q2) Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease?
A) Syphilis
B) Gonorrhea
C) Human papillomavirus
D) Pelvic inflammatory disease
Q3) Research data support the relationship between the exposure of ultraviolet light (UVL)and the development of: (Select all that apply.)
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Hodgkin lymphoma
D) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
E) Soft-tissue sarcoma
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)has an increased risk of developing:
A) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Epstein-Barr
D) Leukemia
Q2) Which form of cancer is linked to congenital malformation syndromes?
A) Wilms tumor
B) Retinoblastoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Q3) The nurse is preparing a discussion on cancer and its occurrence among college-aged students.Which cancers will the nurse include in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
A) Colorectal
B) Testicular
C) Thyroid
D) Breast
E) Lung
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse caring for an older adult patient would expect which functional changes to occur? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased risk for falls
B) Increased risk for falls.
C) Loss of muscle in the arms and legs
D) Decrease in the need for social interaction
E) Increased agitation and frustration levels
Q2) The membrane that separates the brain's cerebellum from its cerebrum is the:
A) Tentorium cerebelli
B) Falx cerebri
C) Arachnoid membrane
D) Falx cerebelli
Q3) Thought and goal-oriented behaviors are functions of which area of the brain?
A) Cerebellum
B) Limbic system
C) Prefrontal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
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Page 17
Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS)modulates the transmission of pain?
A) GCT
B) Pattern theory
C) Specificity theory
D) Neuromatrix theory
Q2) Which hormones help diminish the febrile response?
A) Arginine vasopressin (AVP), melanocyte-stimulating hormone-alpha (a-MSH), and corticotropin-releasing factor
B) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid-stimulating hormone, and thyroxine (T4)
C) Antidiuretic hormone, growth hormone, and aldosterone
D) None; hormones only facilitate the increase of core body temperature.
Q3) Which spinal tract carries the most nociceptive information?
A) Archeospinothalamic
B) Paleospinothalamic
C) Dorsal spinothalamic
D) Lateral spinothalamic
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems,Cerebral
Hemodynamics,and Motor Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which assessment finding marks the end of spinal shock?
A) Return of blood pressure and heart rate to normal
B) Gradual return of spinal reflexes
C) Return of bowel and bladder function
D) Evidence of diminished deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis
Q2) Which midbrain dysfunction causes pupils to be pinpoint size and fixed in position?
A) Diencephalon dysfunction
B) Oculomotor cranial nerve dysfunction
C) Dysfunction of the tectum
D) Pontine dysfunction
Q3) Cognitive operations cannot occur without the effective functioning of the brain's: A) Pons
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Reticular activating system
D) Cingulate gyrus
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Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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Sample Questions
Q1) Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
A) In larger veins
B) Near capillary sphincters
C) At branches of arteries
D) On the venous sinuses
Q2) Brain abscess
A)Complication of mastoiditis
B)Opportunistic infection
C)CNS manifestation of tuberculosis
D)Mosquito-borne viral infection
E)Tick-borne bacterial infection
Q3) What event is most likely to occur to the brain in a classic cerebral concussion?
A) Brief period of vital sign instability
B) Cerebral edema throughout the cerebral cortex
C) Cerebral edema throughout the diencephalon
D) Disruption of axons extending from the diencephalon and brainstem
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Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Condition is characterized by an inability to have emotional experiences.
A)Delusions
B)Formal thought disorder
C)Anhedonia
D)Hallucinations
E)Alogia
F)Avolition
Q2) Alterations in which part of the brain are linked to hallucinations,delusions,and thought disorders associated with schizophrenia?
A) Parietal lobe
B) Limbic system
C) Temporal lobe
D) Hypothalamus
Q3) Individuals who eat aged cheese and avocado when taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)may experience:
A) Kidney damage
B) Hypertensive crisis
C) Orthostatic hypotension
D) Weight gain
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Originates from the pituitary or hypothalamus.
A)Medulloblastoma
B)Ependymoma
C)Cerebellar astrocytoma
D)Craniopharyngioma
E)Neuroblastoma
Q2) Which statements regarding the term myelodysplasia are true? (Select all that apply.)
A) Myelodysplasia is used to define a defect in the formation of the spinal cord.
B) It can be used to refer to brain anomalies involving missing brain tissue.
C) Myelodysplasia correctly includes encephaloceles.
D) It is used to describe a herniation of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull.
E) Myelodysplasia can be used to refer to a form of spina bifida.
Q3) Children with phenylketonuria (PKU)are unable to synthesize:
A) Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
B) Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone
C) Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens
D) Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine
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22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which hormone does the second messenger calcium (Ca )bind to activate phospholipase C through a G protein?
A) Angiotensin II
B) Thyroxine
C) Estrogen
D) Testosterone
Q2) Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?
A) Potassium
B) Calcium
C) Sodium
D) Phosphorus
Q3) A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?
A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
B) Thyroid hormone
C) Somatostatin
D) Alpha endorphin
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person has acne,easy bruising,thin extremities,and truncal obesity.These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Hypoaldosteronism
C) Diabetes insipidus
D) Cushing disease
Q2) Diabetes insipidus is a result of:
A) Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion
B) Antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion
C) Insulin hyposecretion
D) Insulin hypersecretion
Q3) What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
A) Intolerance to heat, tachycardia, and weight loss
B) Oligomenorrhea, fatigue, and warm skin
C) Restlessness, increased appetite, and metrorrhagia
D) Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
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Chapter 23: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What structure in the male lies posterior to the urinary bladder?
A) Seminal vesicles
B) Prostate glands
C) Cowper glands
D) Parabladder glands
Q2) Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
A) The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
B) A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
C) Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
D) Estrogen levels are low.
Q3) Which hormone promotes the development of the lobular ducts in the breasts?
A) Progesterone
B) Prolactin
C) Oxytocin
D) Estrogen
Q4) Having ejected a mature ovum,the ovarian follicle develops into a(n):
A) Atretic follicle
B) Thecal follicle
C) Corpus luteum
D) Functional scar
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Chapter 24: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering the pathophysiologic characteristics of primary amenorrhea,what anatomic structure is involved in compartment II?
A) Ovary
B) Anterior pituitary
C) Hypothalamus
D) Vagina
Q2) Which type of precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex?
A) Mixed
B) Incomplete
C) Isosexual
D) Homosexual
Q3) Which statement regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)is true?
A) An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%.
B) Such an inflammation results in temporary changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes.
C) PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
D) Contracting this infection increases the risk of uterine cancer.
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Chapter 25: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?
A) Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
B) Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.
C) Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
D) Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.
Q2) What term is used to identify a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis?
A) Paraphimosis
B) Priapism
C) Prephimosis
D) Phimosis
Q3) The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism?
A) Penile
B) Testicular
C) Prostate
D) Epididymal
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Chapter 26: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the common modes of transmission for the hepatitis B virus (HBV)? (Select all that apply.)
A) Needle punctures
B) Blood transfusions
C) Contact with infected body fluids
D) Skin cuts
E) Ingestion of infected substances
Q2) Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?
A) Neisseria syphilis
B) Treponema pallidum
C) Haemophilus ducreyi
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
Q3) Entamoeba histolytica
A)Trichomoniasis
B)Granuloma inguinale
C)Amebiasis
D)Syphilis
E)Chancroid
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28
Chapter 27: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemostasis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
Q2) What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
A) 20 to 30
B) 60 to 90
C) 100 to 120
D) 200 to 240
Q3) Endomitosis
A)Clotting
B)Red blood cell development
C)Red blood cell destruction
D)Platelet formation
E)Blood cell production
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Page 29
Chapter 28: Alterations of Erythrocyte Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Considering sideroblastic anemia,what would be the expected effect on the plasma iron levels?
A) Plasma iron levels would be high.
B) Levels would be low.
C) Levels would be normal.
D) Levels would be only minimally affected.
Q2) Pernicious anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Q3) Which type of anemia is characterized by fatigue,weakness,and dyspnea,as well as conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle,concave nails?
A) Pernicious
B) Iron deficiency
C) Aplastic
D) Hemolytic
Q4) Aplastic anemia
A)Normocytic-normochromic anemia
B)Microcytic-hypochromic anemia
C)Macrocytic-normochromic anemia
Page 30
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Leukocyte, Lymphoid, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vitamin _____ is required for normal clotting factor synthesis by the _____.
A) K; kidneys
B) D; kidneys
C) K; liver
D) D; liver
Q2) Which statement best describes heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)?
A) Immunoglobulin G immune-mediated adverse drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets
B) Hematologic reaction to heparin in which the bone marrow is unable to produce sufficient platelets to meet the body's needs
C) Immunoglobulin E-mediated allergic drug reaction that reduces circulating platelets
D) Cell-mediated drug reaction in which macrophages process the heparin and platelet complexes that are then destroyed by activated cytotoxic T cells.
Q3) Hodgkin disease is characterized by the presence of which of the following?
A) Philadelphia chromosome
B) Virchow triad
C) Microvascular thrombi
D) Reed-Sternberg (RS) cells
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
A) V
B) VIII
C) IX
D) X
Q2) The alpha- and beta-thalassemias are considered what types of inherited disorder?
A) Autosomal recessive
B) Autosomal dominant
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Q3) During childhood,when is dietary iron deficiency commonly diagnosed?
A) Between 2 months and 1 year
B) Between 6 months and 2 years
C) Between 12 months and 3 years
D) Between 18 months and 4 years
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Chapter 31: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15714
Sample Questions
Q1) Frank-Starling law
A)Relationship among blood flow, pressure, and resistance
B)Increased heart rate from increased volume
C)Relationship of wall tension, intraventricular pressure, internal radius, and wall thickness
D)Cycles of attachment, movement, and dissociation of thin filaments during the attachments of actin to myosin
E)Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle
Q2) The coronary ostia are located in the:
A) Left ventricle
B) Aortic valve
C) Coronary sinus
D) Aorta
Q3) What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
A) Refractory
B) Hyperpolarization
C) Threshold
D) Sinoatrial (SA)
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Chapter 32: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15715
Sample Questions
Q1) What term is used to identify when a cell is temporarily deprived of blood supply?
A) Infarction
B) Ischemia
C) Necrosis
D) Inflammation
Q2) What is the expected electrocardiogram (ECG)pattern when a thrombus in a coronary artery permanently lodges in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?
A) Prolonged QT interval
B) ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)
C) ST depression myocardial infarction (STDMI)
D) Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI)
Q3) Which substance is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?
A) Very low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
C) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
D) Triglycerides
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34
Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15716
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the initial manifestation of aortic coarctation observed in a neonate?
A) Congestive heart failure (CHF)
B) Cor pulmonale
C) Pulmonary hypertension
D) Cerebral hypertension
Q2) Which scenario describes total anomalous pulmonary venous return?
A) The foramen ovale closes after birth.
B) Pulmonary venous return is to the right atrium.
C) Pulmonary venous return is to the left atrium.
D) The left atrium receives oxygenated blood.
Q3) Ostium primum
A)Causes atrial separation
B)Gap between the septum primum and the septum secundum
C)Conal portion of the ventricular septum
D)Abnormal communication between the atria
E)Allows right-to-left shunting
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35
Chapter 34: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15717
Sample Questions
Q1) Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
A) Decreased flow resistance
B) Fewer alveoli
C) Stiffening of the chest wall
D) Improved elastic recoil
Q2) How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported?
A) Dissolved in plasma
B) Bound to hemoglobin
C) In the form of carbon dioxide (CO2)
D) Bound to protein
Q3) Hypoventilation that results in the retention of carbon dioxide will stimulate which receptors in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state?
A) Irritant receptors
B) Central chemoreceptors
C) Peripheral chemoreceptors
D) Stretch receptors
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Chapter 35: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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56 Verified Questions
56 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15718
Sample Questions
Q1) The collapse of lung tissue caused by the lack of collateral ventilation through the pores of Kohn is referred to as what type of atelectasis?
A) Compression
B) Perfusion
C) Absorption
D) Hypoventilation
Q2) Which statements regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis are true regarding the bacilli's ability to go into dormancy? (Select all that apply.)
A) Neutrophils and macrophages all play a role in its dormancy.
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is capable of dormancy but for only a short period.
C) The immune system is the controlling factor regarding its length of dormancy.
D) The bacilli are sealed off in tubercles to allow for dormancy.
E) An attack by lymphocytes brings the bacilli out of their dormant state.
Q3) Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?
A) Pleural effusion
B) Atelectasis
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Ischemia
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Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15719
Sample Questions
Q1) How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
A) An adult's chest wall compliance is lower than an infant's.
B) An adult's chest wall compliance is higher than an infant's.
C) An adult's chest wall compliance is the same as an infant's.
D) An adult's chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant's.
Q2) When considering the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS),the absence of which condition is considered characteristic?
A) Progressive respiratory distress
B) Bilateral infiltrates
C) Decreased pulmonary compliance
D) Heart failure
Q3) What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)of the newborn?
A) Low birth weight
B) Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
C) Premature birth
D) Smoking during pregnancy
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Chapter 37: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15720
Sample Questions
Q1) Which renal change is found in older adults?
A) Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
B) Sharp decline in renal blood flow
C) Decrease in the number of nephrons
D) Decrease in urine output
Q2) Compared with a younger individual,how is the specific gravity of urine in older adults affected?
A) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is increased.
B) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is considered high normal.
C) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is considered low normal.
D) Specific gravity of urine in older adults is decreased.
Q3) The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH),which is secreted by which gland?
A) Posterior pituitary
B) Thyroid
C) Parathyroid
D) Anterior pituitary
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Page 39
Chapter 38: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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38 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15721
Sample Questions
Q1) Which glomerular lesion is characterized by thickening of the glomerular capillary wall with immune deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG)and C3?
A) Proliferative
B) Membranous
C) Mesangial
D) Crescentic
Q2) Considering host defense mechanisms,which element in the urine is bacteriostatic?
A) High pH (alkaline urine)
B) High urea
C) High glucose
D) High calcium
Q3) What medical term is used to identify a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to the bladder?
A) Neurogenic bladder
B) Obstructed bladder
C) Necrotic bladder
D) Retrograde bladder
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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29 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15722
Sample Questions
Q1) Fibrin-rich thrombi can be found throughout the microcirculation.
A)Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
B)Henoch-Schönlein purpura nephritis
C)Renal dysplasia
D)Ureteropelvic junction obstruction
E)Polycystic kidney disease
Q2) Which statements are true regarding the narrow chemical safety margin that infants demonstrate? (Select all that apply.)
A) The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B) An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the excretion of potassium.
C) An immature tubular transport capacity impairs the reabsorption of bicarbonate.
D) The immaturity of tubules may diminish the response to aldosterone.
E) The safety margin begins to expand after 2 years of age.
Q3) When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?
A) At birth
B) At 6 months of age
C) At puberty
D) Between the ages 18 and 21 years
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Chapter 40: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15723
Sample Questions
Q1) What process is capable of increasing both intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure,thereby facilitating defecation?
A) Relaxation of the internal anal sphincter
B) Intestinal peristalsis
C) Valsalva maneuver
D) Ileogastric reflex
Q2) Why are water and electrolytes transported in both directions through tight junctions and intercellular spaces rather than across cell membranes?
A) The intercellular hydrostatic pressure is inadequate to push the water and electrolytes across the cell membranes.
B) A balance of cations and ions among the electrolytes on each side of the cell membranes cannot be maintained.
C) The epithelial cell membranes are formed of lipids that are hydrophobic and therefore repel water.
D) Receptors on those cell membranes are occupied with a diffusion of amino acids and monosaccharides.
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Chapter 41: Alterations of Digestive Function
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15724
Sample Questions
Q1) An intestinal obstruction at the pylorus or high in the small intestine causes metabolic alkalosis by causing which outcome?
A) Gain of bicarbonate from pancreatic secretions that cannot be absorbed
B) Excessive loss of hydrogen ions normally absorbed from gastric juices
C) Excessive loss of potassium, promoting atony of the intestinal wall
D) Loss of bile acid secretions that cannot be absorbed
Q2) Alterations in immunoglobulin G (IgA)production have been found in individuals with this disorder.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
Q3) What is the most common manifestation of portal hypertension-induced splenomegaly?
A) Leukopenia
B) Thrombocytopenia
C) Erythrocytopenia
D) Pancytopenia
Q4) Inflammation develops in crypts of Lieberkühn in the large intestine.
A)Ulcerative colitis
B)Crohn disease
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15725
Sample Questions
Q1) In children,the risk factors for hepatitis B virus (HBV)are primarily associated with:
A) Living in urban communities
B) Mothers who are hepatitis C carriers
C) Transfusion therapy for hemophilia
D) Those of Hispanic ethnic background
Q2) Malrotation
A)Gluten sensitivity
B)Periduodenal band
C)Congenital aganglionic megacolon
D)Protein energy malnutrition
E)Lack of digestive enzymes during fetal life
Q3) In an infant who is 5 weeks old,an increase in bilirubin production and persistent jaundice support which diagnosis?
A) Pathologic hyperbilirubinemia
B) Physiologic jaundice
C) Hepatitis A
D) Infantile cirrhosis
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium
Q2) What happens to the original bone during the second phase of bone remodeling?
A) The original bone is replaced.
B) It hardens.
C) The original bone is resorbed.
D) It is synthesized.
Q3) Osteoblasts form membranous or woven bone.Enzymes increase the phosphate content and permit the phosphate to join with calcium to be deposited.
A)Callus replacement
B)Hematoma formation
C)Remodeling
D)Procallus formation
E)Callus formation
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Page 45
Chapter 44: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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47 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15727
Sample Questions
Q1) McArdle disease
A)Caused by sedatives and narcotics, particularly street heroin
B)Caused by viruses, bacteria, and parasites
C)Exercise intolerance with normal production of lactic acid
D)Impairment of the breakdown of glycogen and production of lactic acid
E)Autoimmune disease
Q2) By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination,up to what percent of bone has been lost?
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Q3) What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
A) Idiopathic
B) Incomplete
C) Pathologic
D) Greenstick
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Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15728
Sample Questions
Q1) In osteomyelitis,bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis,which is considered the path of least resistance.What factor makes this route for bacteria the path of least resistance?
A) Cortex of the bone in this area is porous or mazelike.
B) Blood supply to the metaphysis is easily compromised.
C) Macrophages and lymphocytes have limited access to the subperiosteal space.
D) Bacteria usually spread down the medullary cavity of the bone.
Q2) A Ewing sarcoma arises from the:
A) Bone marrow
B) Bone-producing mesenchymal cells
C) Metadiaphysis of long bones
D) Embryonal osteocytes
Q3) Shares the X-linked inheritance pattern but produces milder symptoms.
A)Duchenne muscular dystrophy
B)Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy
C)Myotonic dystrophy
D)Becker muscular dystrophy
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15729
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of administering ibuprofen to individuals being treated for frostbite?
A) Treating fever
B) Preventing plate aggregation
C) Reducing pain
D) Inhibiting prostaglandins
Q2) Which term is used to identify a collection of infected hair follicles occurring most often on the back of the neck,the upper back,and the lateral thighs that forms a mass and evolves into an erythematous,painful,and edematous mass and drains through many openings?
A) Erysipelas
B) Furuncles
C) Carbuncles
D) Boils
Q3) Which type of dressings should be applied to pressure ulcers?
A) Flat and dry
B) Flat and moist
C) Bulky and dry
D) Bulky and moist
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Chapter 47: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15730
Sample Questions
Q1) Erythematous macular rash over the trunk and neck that lasts 24 hours
A)Rubella (German measles)
B)Rubeola (red measles)
C)Roseola (exanthema subitum)
D)Varicella (chickenpox)
E)Herpes zoster (shingles)
Q2) Which acne lesions are classified as inflammatory? (Select all that apply.)
A) Closed comedones
B) Opened comedones
C) Nodules
D) Papules
E) Pustules
Q3) Which statements are true regarding Koplik spots? (Select all that apply.)
A) Koplik spots are associated with rubeola.
B) They appear as white spots.
C) The lesions are surrounded by a red ring.
D) The lesions of Koplik spots are large in size.
E) Koplik spots are primarily found on buccal mucosa.
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Chapter 48: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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33 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15731
Sample Questions
Q1) The endpoint of burn shock is defined as the time when the individual is able to do which of the following?
A) Maintain adequate blood pressure for 4 hours.
B) Maintain adequate urine output for 2 hours.
C) Manage pain without narcotics.
D) Manage pain during dressing changes.
Q2) What type of shock is related to a decrease in systemic vascular resistance?
A) Septic
B) Cardiogenic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Heart failure
Q3) For which type of shock would antihistamines and corticosteroids be prescribed?
A) Septic
B) Anaphylactic
C) Hypovolemic
D) Cardiogenic
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in Children
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/15732
Sample Questions
Q1) Involves flammable liquids such as gasoline.
A)Scald burn
B)Contact burn
C)Flame burn
D)Electrical burn
E)Chemical burn
Q2) Which statements are true regarding multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
(Select all that apply.)
A) Diagnosis requires simultaneous failure of at least two organs.
B) Primary MODS occurs immediately after the attributing cause.
C) Secondary MODS occurs within 3 to 7 days of the initial insult.
D) Chronic illness increases a child's risk for MODS.
E) Risk factors for MODS include severe or prolonged shock, sepsis, and trauma.
Q3) What is the normal range of respirations for an infant (in breaths per minute)?
A) 18 to 25
B) 20 to 28
C) 27 to 37
D) 30 to 53
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