Health Sciences Review
Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the study, research, and application of knowledge to improve health, prevent and treat diseases, and enhance the quality of life for individuals and communities. This course covers the biological, behavioral, and population-based sciences that form the foundation of modern healthcare. Students will explore topics such as human anatomy and physiology, epidemiology, health promotion, healthcare systems, nutrition, and public health. Emphasis is placed on understanding the determinants of health and disease, the role of healthcare professionals, and emerging issues in global health. Graduates are prepared for further study or careers in a wide range of health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/176
Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2430
Sample Questions
Q1) Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
A) To predict the prognosis
B) To determine treatments
C) To develop preventive measures
D) To develop morbidity statistics
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1) Past illnesses or surgeries
2) Current illnesses, acute and chronic
3) Prescribed medication or other treatments
4) Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5) Current allergies
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
Answer: D
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male's body:
A) 30%
B) 20%
C) 10%
D) 4%
Answer: D
Q2) In the initial stage, vomiting results in:
A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) None of the above
Answer: B
Q3) When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the:
A) blood into the cells.
B) interstitial compartment into the cells.
C) interstitial compartment into the blood.
D) cells into the interstitial compartment.
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the: A) lungs.
B) pancreas.
C) kidneys.
D) large intestine.
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
A) Additional, mild, unwanted effects
B) Unusual, unexpected mild effects
C) Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
D) Reduction of the allergic response
Answer: C
Q3) Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by:
A) chiropractors.
B) naturopaths.
C) homeopaths.
D) osteopaths.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Pain
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked:
A) at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
B) by the stress response.
C) by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord.
D) by referring the pain to other parts of the body.
Q2) The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by:
A) nociceptors.
B) myelinated A delta fibers.
C) unmyelinated C fibers.
D) any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold.
Q3) Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
A) It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
B) The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of the spinal cord.
C) The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
D) The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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61 Verified Questions
61 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include:
1) COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs).
2) glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone).
3) ibuprofen (NSAID).
4) acetaminophen.
5) aspirin (ASA).
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3, 5
D) 1, 4, 5
Q2) Which of the following helps to localize and "wall off" the foreign material during an inflammatory response?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Increased fluid
C) Fibrinogen
D) Antibodies
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Chapter 6: Infection
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What method do viruses use to replicate?
A) Binary fission
B) Budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
C) Producing reproductive spores
D) Using a host cell to produce and assemble components
Q2) The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:
A) using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections.
B) not touching any open or bleeding lesions.
C) sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use.
D) assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection.
Q3) Which of the following is normally considered sterile?
A) Urine
B) Pharynx
C) Distal urethra
D) Vagina
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8
Chapter 7: Immunity
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
A) T-helper cells
B) Macrophages
C) Eosinophils
D) Monocytes
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to the complement system?
A) It is activated by IgE.
B) It blocks the inflammatory response.
C) It consists of proteins in the blood that must be activated.
D) It may destroy antibodies in the circulation.
Q3) Host-versus-graft disease refers to:
A) hyperacute rejection of tissue.
B) T cells in grafted tissue attacking host cells.
C) infection resulting from immunosuppression therapy.
D) transplant rejection by the recipient's immune system.
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
A) Severe pain around the mouth
B) Malaise and fatigue
C) Fever and severe headaches
D) Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips
Q2) Plantar warts are caused by:
A) the fungus aspergillus.
B) a parasitic arthropod.
C) human papillomavirus.
D) the bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes.
Q3) Herpes virus is usually spread by all of the following EXCEPT:
A) saliva during an exacerbation and for a short time thereafter.
B) contact with the fluid in the lesion.
C) contaminated blood.
D) autoinoculation by fingers.
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Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is a typical characteristic of the pain caused by osteoarthritis?
A) Decreases over time
B) Quite severe in the early stages
C) Aggravated by general muscle aching
D) Increased with weight-bearing and activity
Q2) What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
A) Degenerative disorder involving the small joints
B) Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints
C) Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
D) Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to osteoporosis?
A) Bone resorption is greater than bone formation.
B) It causes compression fractures of the vertebrae.
C) Osteoporosis is always a primary disorder.
D) It often leads to kyphosis and loss of height.
Q4) All of the following predispose to osteoporosis EXCEPT:
A) weight-bearing activity.
B) a sedentary lifestyle.
C) long-term intake of glucocorticoids.
D) calcium deficit.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do vascular occlusions and infarcts occur frequently with sickle cell anemia?
A) The red blood cells are abnormally large.
B) Increased hemolysis of erythrocytes occurs.
C) Erythrocytes change to sickle shape when hypoxia occurs.
D) HbS is unable to transport oxygen.
Q2) Jaundice is one typical sign of:
A) sickle cell anemia.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) acute leukemia.
Q3) Which of the following is present with pernicious anemia?
A) Pancytopenia
B) Hypochlorhydria
C) Leukocytosis
D) Multiple infarcts
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to:
A) break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
B) concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins.
C) stimulate lymph production.
D) enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Q2) Malignant neoplasms involving lymphocyte proliferation in the lymph nodes are called:
A) lymphomas
B) myelomas
C) lymphocytomas
D) lymphedemas
Q3) A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
A) Castleman disease.
B) hyperlymphatic disease.
C) hypolymphatic disease.
D) Ann Arbor disease.
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Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2441
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes the pericardial cavity?
A) It contains sufficient fluid to provide a protective cushion for the heart.
B) It is a potential space containing a very small amount of serous fluid.
C) It is lined by the endocardium.
D) It is located between the double-walled pericardium and the epicardium.
Q2) More extensive permanent damage is likely when a myocardial infarction is caused by:
A) a hemorrhage.
B) an embolus.
C) a thrombus.
D) an arrhythmia.
Q3) A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is:
A) leading a sedentary lifestyle.
B) being female and older than 40 years of age.
C) excluding saturated fats from the diet.
D) familial hypercholesterolemia.
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Verified Questions
103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which factors contribute to postoperative atelectasis?
1) Decreased secretions in the airways
2) Drug-related respiratory depression
3) Abdominal distention and pain
4) Excessive deep-breathing and coughing
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 3
C) 3, 4
D) 1, 4
Q2) What is the cause of Legionnaires' disease?
A) Mycoplasma
B) A fungus
C) A gram-negative bacterium
D) Pneumococcus
Q3) Which of the following would result from hyperventilation?
A) Respiratory acidosis
B) Respiratory alkalosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Metabolic acidosis
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Page 15
Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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105 Verified Questions
105 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common manifestations of rabies infection include:
A) headache, foaming at the mouth, and difficulty swallowing.
B) difficulty walking and coordinating movements.
C) decreased sensitivity to sound and touch.
D) vomiting, liver and kidney damage.
Q2) All of the following apply to CVA EXCEPT:
A) the common cause is an atheroma with thrombus.
B) maximum necrosis and infarction develop within several hours of onset.
C) warning signs may appear with partial obstruction of the artery.
D) increasing neurological deficits usually develop during the first few days.
Q3) From the following, choose the two events (in correct sequence) that immediately follow the aura during a tonic-clonic event:
A) Prodromal signs, then the clonic stage
B) Clonic stage, then the tonic stage
C) Loss of consciousness, then the tonic stage
D) Loss of consciousness and cessation of respiration
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16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the:
A) Macula lutea
B) Fovea centralis
C) Optic disc
D) Lens
Q2) In a case of acute otitis media, what would a purulent discharge in the external canal of the ear and some pain relief likely indicate?
A) Infection of the external ear
B) Obstruction of the auditory tube
C) Rupture of the tympanic membrane
D) Spread of infection into the mastoid cells
Q3) Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye?
A) Glaucoma
B) Cataract
C) Macular degeneration
D) Keratitis
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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65 Verified Questions
65 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Early signs of hyperglycemia include polyphagia, which means :
A) thirst.
B) increased urine output.
C) hunger.
D) glucose in the urine.
Q2) Catabolic effects of Cushing's syndrome include:
A) osteoporosis.
B) hypertension.
C) increased erythrocyte production.
D) moon face and buffalo hump.
Q3) Which of the following conditions may precipitate or exacerbate hyperglycemia?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Cushing's disease
C) Addison's disease
D) Growth hormone deficit
Q4) Diabetic retinopathy results from:
A) degeneration of large blood vessels supplying the eye.
B) abnormal metabolism in the lens of the eye.
C) neuropathy affecting the optic nerve.
D) obstruction or rupture of retinal blood vessels.
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Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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109 Verified Questions
109 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What does congenital esophageal atresia cause?
A) Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea
B) Repeated reflux of gastric secretions into the esophagus
C) No fluid or food entering the stomach
D) Gastric distention and cramps
Q2) At what stage of alcoholic liver disease can the damage be reversed?
A) It can never be reversed
B) Initial stage
C) Alcoholic hepatitis stage
D) End-stage cirrhosis
Q3) What pain is typical of diverticulitis?
A) Lower left quadrant
B) Lower right quadrant
C) Sharp, colicky, periumbilical
D) Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin
Q4) To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?
A) Lungs
B) Stomach
C) Liver
D) Spleen
19
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Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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70 Verified Questions
70 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following would likely cause chronic renal failure?
A) Cystitis with pyelonephritis in the right kidney
B) Circulatory shock
C) Diabetes
D) Obstruction of a ureter by a renal calculus
Q2) Wilms' tumor is:
A) a malignant tumor in the bladder.
B) an encapsulated mass in one kidney.
C) not considered to have a genetic origin.
D) manifested in adulthood.
Q3) What does hydronephrosis lead to?
A) Ischemia and necrosis in the compressed area
B) Multiple hemorrhages in the kidney
C) Severe colicky pain radiating into the groin
D) Increased GFR
Q4) Which of the following increases glomerular filtration rate?
A) Increased plasma osmotic pressure
B) Dilation of the efferent arteriole
C) Increased hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries
D) Constriction of the afferent arteriole
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common solid tumor found in young men is:
A) prostatic cancer.
B) testicular cancer.
C) bladder cancer.
D) penile cancer.
Q2) Ovarian cancer has a poor prognosis because:
A) it does not respond to chemotherapy or radiation.
B) vague signs and hidden location lead to late diagnosis.
C) premenopausal women are not likely to notice changes.
D) hormone therapy is ineffective.
Q3) Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?
A) The tumor usually becomes malignant in time.
B) The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.
C) Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency.
D) Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops.
Q4) Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
A) Development of malignancy
B) Irregular menstrual cycles
C) Interference with ovulation
D) Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis?
A) The ovaries are inaccessible for examination.
B) Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed.
C) The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer.
D) No effective treatment is available.
Q2) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A) metastasize early in their development.
B) create excessive pressure within the skull.
C) cannot be removed.
D) cause serious systemic effects.
Q3) Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because:
A) the gastrointestinal tract is irritated.
B) the chemicals stimulate the emetic center.
C) the drugs have an unpleasant odor.
D) A and B
Q4) The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are:
A) thrombocytopenia and leucopenia.
B) headache and lethargy.
C) nausea and constipation.
D) alopecia and weight loss.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements applies to the sex chromosomes?
A) They are identified as XY in the female.
B) They are numbered pair 23 in the karyotype.
C) They contain the same genes as in the other pairs of chromosomes.
D) They are found only in the cells in the gonads (the ovaries and the testes).
Q2) Which of the following are common manifestations of Down syndrome?
1) Congenital heart defect
2) Cleft lip and palate
3) Large protruding tongue
4) Limited intellectual development
A) 1, 2
B) 1, 3
C) 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
Q3) Hemophilia A has been diagnosed in a young boy. He has inherited this defective gene from:
A) his father.
B) his mother.
C) both parents.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a serious potential complication of abruptio placentae indicated by low serum levels of clotting factors?
A) Severe hypertension
B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
C) Jaundice
D) Thromboembolism
Q2) Which of the following statements applies to eclampsia?
A) Elevated blood pressure returns to normal after delivery.
B) Kidney and liver function remain normal.
C) It commonly develops with ectopic pregnancies.
D) Blood pressure is very high and seizures may occur.
Q3) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Proteinuria, edema, and weight gain
B) Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Blood clots forming in the legs
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Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following might fluid and electrolyte deficits cause in a patient with anorexia nervosa?
A) Cardiac arrhythmias
B) Weight loss
C) Dental caries and esophagitis
D) Amenorrhea
Q2) Which of the following would confirm reduced normal linear growth during adolescence?
A) Levels of androgens
B) Abnormally thin epiphyseal plate seen on X-ray
C) Lack of a broader pelvis in males
D) Development of kyphosis
Q3) What are common local signs of osteomyelitis?
A) Joint swelling, limited movement
B) Deformity of a limb, pain at rest
C) Fever, leukocytosis, and malaise
D) A red, swollen area, pain increasing with movement
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25
Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lung expansion in the elderly may be reduced because of decreased:
1) tissue elasticity.
2) rib mobility.
3) control by the respiratory center.
4) skeletal muscle strength.
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4
Q2) With advancing age, the major change in the cardiovascular system involves:
A) irregular impulse conduction in the heart.
B) a reduced number of collagen fibers to support cardiac muscle.
C) vascular degeneration, leading to arteriosclerosis and atherosclerosis.
D) the heart valves becoming thin and weak.
Q3) What is a major factor leading to increased occurrence of cancer in the elderly?
A) Widespread vascular degeneration
B) Cumulative exposure to carcinogens
C) Hereditary factors
D) Increased immune surveillance
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged immobility may predispose to ___________ in the kidneys.
A) urinary stasis
B) renal calculi
C) infection
D) All of the above
Q2) Paralysis of the lower part of the body is called:
A) hemiplegia.
B) paraplegia.
C) quadriplegia.
D) None of the above
Q3) Which of the following is likely to develop when a leg is immobilized in a cast?
A) Contracture
B) Muscle hypertrophy
C) Muscle atrophy
D) Increased osteoblastic activity
Q4) Immobility may lead to dehydration primarily as a result of:
A) changes in hormonal secretions due to increased blood in the thorax.
B) destruction of the kidneys as a result of ischemia and necrosis.
C) blockage of the ureters, causing retention of urine.
D) toxins being produced by infectious microorganisms.
27
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q2) Hans Selye defined his general adaptation syndrome concept, which is also known as:
A) fight or flight.
B) compensate or compromise.
C) restrain or release.
D) avoid and flee.
Q3) A serious consequence of a major disaster, first recognized in war veterans is:
A) stress ulcers.
B) delayed tissue healing.
C) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
D) cancer.
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is physiological dependence?
A) An intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B) Adaptation of the body to a drug, resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C) The need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D) Continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
Q2) Which of the following applies to abuse of anabolic steroids?
A) They cause CNS depression, deep sleep, and amnesia.
B) They often cause permanent damage to the cardiovascular system.
C) They help to relax skeletal muscle spasms.
D) They help to relieve the pain of athletic injuries.
Q3) Which of the following is/are NOT a common sign(s) of withdrawal?
A) Irritability
B) Respiratory depression
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Psychotic episodes and convulsions
E) Tremors
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bites and stings cause disease in which three ways?
A) Injection of toxins, transmission of infectious agents, or allergic reactions
B) High fever and chills, transmission of infectious agents, or nausea and vomiting
C) Bone marrow damage, extensive skin rashes, or allergic reactions
D) Injection of neurotoxins, transmission of infectious agents, or kidney damage
Q2) Which of the following types of cells are most likely to be damaged by exposure to radiation?
A) Bone and cartilage
B) Skeletal and smooth muscle
C) Peripheral and central neurons
D) Epithelial tissue and bone marrow
Q3) Which of the following events would most likely cause a person to faint and experience difficulty breathing?
A) Exposure to gamma rays
B) Eating fish containing mercury
C) An insect sting
D) Inhalation of asbestos particles
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Page 30