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Health Sciences Practice Exam - 4487 Verified Questions

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Health Sciences

Practice Exam

Course Introduction

Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the application of scientific principles to the study of health, illness, and healthcare systems. This course covers a broad range of topics including human biology, disease prevention, public health policy, healthcare ethics, epidemiology, and health promotion. Students learn about the structure and function of the human body, the social and environmental determinants of health, health disparities, and emerging issues in health care. Through the integration of theoretical knowledge and practical skills, students are prepared for various roles in health-related professions and are equipped to contribute to the improvement of community and global health outcomes.

Recommended Textbook

Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini

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29 Chapters

4487 Verified Questions

4487 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology

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95 Verified Questions

95 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of a liver cell is to A) physiology.

B) regional anatomy.

C) cytology.

D) systemic anatomy.

E) radiographic anatomy.

Answer: C

Q2) ________ serves as a worldwide official standard of anatomical vocabulary.

A) Gray's Anatomy

B) Terminologia Anatomica

C) Hippocratic Corpus

D) Anatomia Inteligencia

E) De Materia Medica

Answer: B

Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each.

Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine

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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization

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183 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a(n) ________ bond occurs.

A) single covalent

B) double covalent

C) triple covalent

D) polar covalent

E) hydrogen

Answer: D

Q2) How many atoms are shown in each glucose structure? (Figure 2-12)

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

E) 10

Answer: C

Q3) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.

Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.

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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization

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190 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of following properties of microtubules is correct?

A) made of myosin

B) made of actin

C) found only in the terminal web

D) another term for microfilaments

E) interact with dynein and kinesin

Answer: E

Q2) Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell division?

A) microfilaments

B) intermediate filaments

C) thick filaments

D) microtubules

E) basal bodies

Answer: D

Q3) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs.

Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration (or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower to higher tonicity).

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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization

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Sample Questions

Q1) Inflammation is

A) a repair process that restores normal function to injured tissue.

B) a fever.

C) an infection of a wound.

D) a process that clears damaged cells and dangerous microorganisms from an injury.

E) the process of blood clotting.

Q2) Which method of secretion destroys the cell? (Figure 4-8)

A) merocrine

B) apocrine

C) holocrine

D) endocrine

E) exocytosis

Q3) Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach?

A) simple squamous epithelium

B) simple cuboidal epithelium

C) simple columnar epithelium

D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

E) stratified squamous epithelium

Q4) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.

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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering drugs?

Q2) A common cause of dandruff is

A) inflammation around sebaceous glands.

B) lack of sebaceous glands.

C) too many sebaceous glands.

D) inactive apocrine glands.

E) inactive eccrine glands.

Q3) Which of the following is the brown-black form of melanin?

A) eumelanin

B) phycomelanin

C) anthomelanin

D) pheomelanin

E) promelanin

Q4) Many lipid-soluble medications can be delivered by diffusion across the skin. This process is called transdermal administration and is commonly done by applying patches that contain the medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why?

Q5) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?

Page 7

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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure

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Sample Questions

Q1) Of the total inorganic components in bone, calcium accounts for what percent?

A) 17%

B) 9.7%

C) 39%

D) 72%

E) 0.72%

Q2) How do sex hormones affect bone growth?

A) Testosterone stimulates osteoclast activity.

B) They cause ossification to be faster than cartilage replacement.

C) They stimulate the cleavage of hydroxyapetite.

D) They cause osteoporosis.

E) Estrogen causes slower epiphyseal closure.

Q3) A ________ fracture shatters the bone.

A) comminuted

B) greenstick

C) compression

D) transverse

E) spiral

Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.

Q5) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?

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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true?

A) It is the most caudal vertebral region.

B) It anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening.

C) It consists of three to five coccygeal vertebrae.

D) Fusion is delayed until the mid-twenties.

E) All of the answers are correct.

Q2) Which of the following is not true regarding the axial skeleton?

A) has 80 bones

B) includes the skull

C) includes the pelvic and pectoral girdles

D) includes auditory ossicles

E) includes the thoracic cage

Q3) The term ________ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement of the cervical vertebrae duringa sudden change in body position.

A) remodel

B) rearrangement

C) fracture

D) whiplash

E) adjustment

Q4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?

Page 9

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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton

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Sample Questions

Q1) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the A) olecranon fossa.

B) coronoid fossa.

C) radial fossa.

D) intertubercular groove.

E) radial groove.

Q2) The bones that form the fingers are the A) carpals.

B) tarsals.

C) metacarpals.

D) metatarsals.

E) phalanges.

Q3) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the A) humerus.

B) femur.

C) tibia.

D) fibula.

E) coxal bone.

Q4) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.

Q5) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?

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Chapter 9: Joints

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Sample Questions

Q1) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci

A) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.

B) act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.

C) take the place of bursae.

D) are found between the patella and femur.

E) are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.

Q2) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?

Q3) Which one of the following is not a stabilizing factor of synovial joints?

A) skeletal muscles around the joint

B) the presence of a meniscus

C) collagen fibers of the joint capsule

D) fat pads around the joint

E) the synovial membrane

Q4) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as A) inversion.

B) plantar flexion.

C) eversion.

D) dorsiflexion.

E) pronation.

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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the contraction in graph (d) called?

A) complete tetanus

B) incomplete tetanus

C) twitch

D) wave summation

E) treppe

Q2) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by

A) myosin molecules.

B) troponin molecules.

C) tropomyosin molecules.

D) calcium ions.

E) ATP molecules.

Q3) Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue?

A) altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways

B) elevating hairs on the arm

C) forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries

D) moving food materials along the digestive tract

E) forcing urine out of the urinary tract

Q4) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell.

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Chapter 11: The Muscular System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus in the female?

A) ischial spine

B) inferior ischial ramus

C) linea alba and pubis

D) coccyx

E) collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris

Q2) Identify the muscle labeled "12."

A) soleus

B) gastrocnemius

C) sartorius

D) tibialis posterior

E) peroneus longus

Q3) Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle?

A) inferior rectus

B) rectus abdominis

C) lateral rectus

D) medial rectus

E) superior oblique

Q4) Which three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a brief descriptionof each action.

Page 13

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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.

A) Astrocytes

B) Satellite cells

C) Oligodendrocytes

D) Microglia

E) Ependymal cells

Q2) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is A) sodium.

B) potassium.

C) calcium.

D) chloride.

E) magnesium.

Q3) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A) astrocytes.

B) satellite cells.

C) oligodendrocytes.

D) microglia.

E) ependymal cells.

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14

Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal

Reflexes

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Sample Questions

Q1) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her lower body.Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which part of her cord is likely to be compressed?

A) the anterior gray horns

B) the anterior gray commissures

C) ascending tracts

D) descending tracts

E) the anterior white commissures

Q2) The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly

A) unmyelinated axons.

B) neuroglia.

C) Schwann cells.

D) myelinated axons.

E) nodes of Ranvier.

Q3) The flexor reflex

A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.

B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.

C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.

D) usually depends on cranial neurons.

E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.

Page 15

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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue?

A) hypoglossal

B) vagus

C) facial

D) glossopharyngeal

E) abducens

Q2) Identify the structure labeled "1."

A) mammillary body

B) infundibulum

C) oculomotor nerve

D) olfactory bulb

E) optic nerve

Q3) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the A) cerebral aqueduct.

B) basal ganglia.

C) falx cerebri.

D) tentorium cerebelli.

E) septum pellucidum.

Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?

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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely affected?

A) corticospinal tract

B) tectospinal tract

C) rubrospinal tract

D) corticobulbar tract

E) reticulospinal tract

Q2) The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the

A) gracile fasciculus.

B) cuneate fasciculus.

C) posterior spinocerebellar.

D) lateral spinothalamic.

E) anterior spinothalamic.

Q3) A receptor potential may cause all of the following responses except

A) increase neurotransmitter release.

B) decrease neurotransmitter release.

C) cause hyperpolarization.

D) cause depolarization.

E) turning off the original stimulus.

Page 17

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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and

Higher-Order Functions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Sympathetic postganglion fibers that innervate the small intestines originate from the

A) inferior mesenteric ganglion.

B) cardiac plexus.

C) celiac ganglion.

D) sacral splanchnic nerves.

E) superior mesenteric ganglion.

Q2) Identify the structure labeled "1."

A) somatic motor neuron

B) preganglionic neuron

C) sensory neuron

D) ganglionic neuron

E) astrocyte

Q3) Identify the structure labeled "4."

A) preganglionic neuron

B) postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve

C) preganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve

D) collateral ganglion

E) white ramus communicans

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Chapter 17: The Special Senses

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Sample Questions

Q1) The optic disc is a blind spot because

A) there are no photoreceptors in that area.

B) the retina lacks nerves in the optic disc.

C) humans are unable to focus light on that area of the retina.

D) the vitreous body is too thick in this area for the passage of light.

E) the fovea prevents light from striking the optic disc.

Q2) A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is

A) myopia.

B) hyperopia.

C) emmetropia.

D) presbyopia.

E) diplopia.

Q3) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.

A) Bipolar

B) Ganglion

C) Amacrine

D) Cone

E) Rod

Q4) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health?

Page 19

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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hormonal actions on cells affect all of the following except

A) quantities of enzymes.

B) activities of enzymes.

C) synthesis of enzymes.

D) gating of ion channels.

E) thickness of the plasma membrane.

Q2) If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the ________ phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS).

A) alarm

B) resistance

C) exhaustion

D) extension

E) prolonged

Q3) Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid

A) glutamic acid.

B) epinephrine.

C) iodine.

D) tyrosine.

E) glycine.

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Page 20

Chapter 19: Blood

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Sample Questions

Q1) During fetal development the primary site(s) of red blood cell production is/are

A) bone marrow.

B) liver.

C) thymus.

D) kidneys.

E) liver and spleen.

Q2) Antibodies are what type of plasma protein?

A) apolipoprotein

B) metalloprotein

C) steroid-binding protein

D) immunoglobulin

E) fibrinogen

Q3) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia.

B) acidosis.

C) hemorrhage.

D) thrombocytopenia.

E) starvation.

Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?

Page 21

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Chapter 20: The Heart

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Sample Questions

Q1) The coronary sinus drains the ________ into the ________.

A) coronary arteries; left ventricle

B) cardiac veins; right atrium

C) interventricular artery; left ventricle

D) right atrium; right ventricle

E) cardiac vein; right ventricle

Q2) What occurs at the circle labeled "5" on the graph?

A) peak systolic pressure

B) isovolumetric systole

C) isovolumetric contraction

D) ventricular refilling

E) increased heart rate

Q3) An ECG is used to diagnose all of the following conditions except

A) an AV block.

B) an ectopic pacemaker.

C) angina pectoris.

D) premature atrial contractions.

E) ventricular tachycardia.

Q4) Adoctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why?

Page 22

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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ form elaborate capillary networks within tissues that allow for very slow blood flow.

A) Varicosities

B) Sinusoids

C) Foramina

D) Portal systems

E) Perfusion centers

Q2) Calculate the net filtration pressure (NFP) with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 40 mm Hg and a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg. Then determine if filtration or reabsorption occurs.

NFP = ________ and results in a fluid ________.

A) 15 mm Hg; filtration

B) 65 mm Hg; reabsorption

C) 65 mm Hg; filtration

D) 15 mm Hg; reabsorption

E) -15 mm Hg; filtration

Q3) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.

Q4) Your friend tells you that her baby was dubbed a "blue baby" by hospital staff and that it was born witha "hole in its heart". Provide an explanation to your friend of this phenomenon.

Page 23

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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity

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Sample Questions

Q1) An inflammatory response is triggered when

A) red blood cells release pyrogens.

B) T cells release interferon.

C) mast cells release histamine and heparin.

D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.

E) blood flow to an area increases.

Q2) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. Theseantibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of

A) innate immunity.

B) active immunization.

C) passive immunization.

D) natural immunity.

E) alloimmunity.

Q3) Immediate hypersensitivity reactions like hay fever may be treated by A) aspirin.

B) anti-rheumatic drugs.

C) immunosuppressive drugs.

D) antihistamines.

E) interferons.

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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.

A) three lobes; two lobes

B) two lobes; two lobes

C) two lobes; three lobes

D) three lobes; three lobes

E) four lobes; three lobes

Q2) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.

A) main bronchi; lobar bronchi

B) lobar bronchi; segmental bronchi

C) segmental bronchi; lobar bronchi

D) trachea; pharynx

E) lobar bronchi; alveolar ducts

Q3) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "8"?

A) P outside = P inside

B) P outside > P inside

C) P outside < P inside

D) P outside + P inside

E) P outside - P inside

Q4) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?

Q5) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?

Page 25

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Chapter 24: The Digestive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) ________ are blade-shaped teeth that function in cutting or clipping.

A) Canines

B) Premolars

C) Cuspids

D) Incisors

E) Molars

Q2) There are normally a total of ________ deciduous teeth.

A) 18

B) 20

C) 25

D) 28

E) 32

Q3) Which of the following is not involved in the regulation of gastric activity?

A) submucosal neural plexus

B) myenteric plexus

C) vagus nerve

D) CNS

E) hypoglossal nerve

Q4) Describe the three phases of gastric regulation. Be sure to include the appropriate local, neural and hormonal responses for each phase.

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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the role of NADH in metabolism?

A) convert pyruvic acid into acetyl-coA

B) produce bicarbonate ions for a pH buffer

C) transport hydrogen atoms to coenzymes

D) produce carbon dioxide

E) phosphorylate ADP into ATP

Q2) When the body is relying on internal energy reserves to continue meeting its energy demands, it is in the ________ state.

A) postabsorptive

B) absorptive

C) starvation

D) deprivation

E) preabsorptive

Q3) The energy content of foods is commonly given in units of A) grams.

B) kilograms.

C) kilocalories.

D) moles.

E) ounces.

Q4) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance?

Page 27

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Chapter 26: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Your doctor has diagnosed you with prostatitis, an inflammation and swelling involving the prostate gland.One of your primary symptoms is

A) dribbling urination.

B) renal failure.

C) hematuria.

D) glycosuria.

E) large amounts of dilute urine.

Q2) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.

Q3) The excretory functions of the urinary system are performed by the A) urethra.

B) ureters.

C) glomerulus.

D) urinary bladder.

E) kidneys.

Q4) All of the following are true of the kidneys except that they are A) located in a position that is retroperitoneal.

B) surrounded by a fibrous capsule.

C) located partly within the pelvic cavity.

D) held in place by the renal fascia.

E) covered by peritoneum.

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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory acidosis?

A) consequence of hyperventilation (for example, in fever or mental illness)

B) consequence of prolonged vomiting

C) consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation (for example, due to emphysema)

D) consequence of tissue hypoxia (for example, in ischemic conditions)

E) consequence of strenuous exercise

Q2) All of the following are components of ECF except A) cerebrospinal fluid.

B) peritoneal fluid.

C) lymph.

D) aqueous humor.

E) RBCs.

Q3) Intracellular fluid (ICF) is found only within A) blood vessels.

B) lymph.

C) the cells of the body.

D) the interstitial space.

E) the cerebrospinal fluid.

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29

Chapter 28: The Reproductive System

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Sample Questions

Q1) Functions of the accessory glands of the male reproductive system include all of the following except

A) production of sperm.

B) meeting the nutrient needs of sperm for motility.

C) propelling sperm and fluids along the reproductive tract.

D) producing buffers.

E) activating the sperm.

Q2) The ________ are fingerlike projections that capture the freshly ovulated ovum.

A) gubernaculum

B) fimbriae

C) infundibulum

D) uterine horn

E) uterine tunnel

Q3) The average length of the menstrual cycle is ________ days.

A) 16

B) 19

C) 21

D) 28

E) 35

Q4) Explain how estrogen and progesterone control each phase of the uterine cycle.

Page 30

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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance

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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/3103

Sample Questions

Q1) Outline the events that take place between exposure of the oocyte to spermatozoa and formation of the firstblastomere pair.

Q2) A woman who is heterozygous for blood type A mates with a man who is homozygous for blood type O. Whatblood type(s) would their children have?

A) 75% heterozygous type A

B) 100% type A

C) 75% homozygous type O

D) 100% type O

E) 50% type A, 50% type O

Q3) The umbilical cord contains the yolk sac, the placental blood vessels and the A) chorionic villi.

B) allantois.

C) amnion.

D) chorion.

E) decidua.

Q4) List and briefly characterize the three trimesters of gestation.

Q5) What activity during oocyte activation prevents penetration by additional sperm?

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