Health Sciences Pharmacology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Health Sciences Pharmacology provides an in-depth exploration of the principles of pharmacology as they relate to health sciences. This course covers the mechanisms of drug action, pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, therapeutic uses, adverse effects, and interactions of major drug classes. Students will examine how medications affect the body and how bodily systems influence drug effectiveness and safety. Emphasis is placed on the application of pharmacological knowledge to clinical practice, including patient assessment, medication administration, and monitoring for therapeutic outcomes and side effects. The course is designed to prepare students for safe and effective pharmacological interventions in a variety of healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology An Introduction 7th Edition by Henry Hitner PhD
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46 Chapters
1602 Verified Questions
1602 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pharmacology
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nonproprietary name of a medication is more commonly known as its _____.
A) trade name
B) generic name
C) chemical name
D) brand name
Answer: B
Q2) What will be the effect of taking two aspirin tablets instead of one?
A) The analgesic effect of the drug will decrease.
B) The analgesic effect of the drug will increase.
C) There will be no change in the analgesic effect of the drug.
D) The drug will result in adverse toxic effects.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following would not be considered an adverse effect of taking an oral antibiotic? rev: 02_13_2014_QC_45109
A) Extravasation
B) Diarrhea
C) Nausea
D) Vomiting
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Pharmacokinetics and Factors of Individual
Variation
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient's dose of an analgesic agent that he uses to manage chronic pain is increased twice over a span of six months.In the context of the terms drug tolerance,drug dependence,and drug addiction,identify the reason for the increase in the dosage.
A) Repeated administration decreases the effect of a drug.
B) Reliance on the administration of a drug leads to a psychological dependence on the drug.
C) Compulsive dependence on a drug dominates all other activities in the patient's life.
D) None of the above statements are correct.
Answer: A
Q2) Identify the usual range of alcohol concentration used in alcoholic preparations of drugs such as elixirs,spirits,tinctures,and fluid extracts.
A) 35 to 45 percent
B) 25 to 35 percent
C) 20 to 25 percent
D) 5 to 20 percent
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Geriatric Pharmacology
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A decrease in the size of the liver is directly associated with a(n):
A) increase in the rate of drug absorption.
B) decrease in the rate of drug excretion.
C) increase in the rate at which the drug is distributed through the body.
D) decrease in the rate of drug metabolism.
Answer: D
Q2) An elderly patient was on medication for diabetes and hypertension before suffering a heart attack.Her cardiologist gave her thorough directions on taking her new heart medications.What would be a probable outcome of this situation?
A) No change in patient compliance
B) A slight improvement in patient compliance
C) A substantial increase in patient compliance
D) A decrease in patient compliance
Answer: D
Q3) A decrease in renal function is associated with:
A) an increase in the rate of drug excretion.
B) an increase in the duration of the drug action.
C) a decrease in the intensity of the drug action.
D) a decrease in the rate of drug metabolism.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Math Review and Dosage Calculations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Melissa is 4 years old and weighs 50 pounds.She is prescribed an antibiotic to treat a throat infection.The regular adult dosage is 200 mg per day.What is the dosage that Melissa should receive?
A) 33 mg
B) 66 mg
C) 99 mg
D) 111 mg
Q2) Determine the correct dose of a drug 15 mg/kg to be administered for a patient who weighs 55 pounds and is 8 years old.
A) 125 mg
B) 250 mg
C) 375 mg
D) 425 mg
Q3) A drug order contains 500 mg of a drug to be administered every day.The drug is available as 200-mg tablets.How many tablets should be administered per day?
A) 1 tablet
B) 2 tablets
C) 2.5 tablets
D) 3.5 tablets
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The receptors that are located at both the parasympathetic and sympathetic ganglia,which are stimulated by the acetylcholine released from preganglionic nerve endings to conduct impulses across the autonomic ganglia to the postganglionic fibers of both autonomic divisions,are known as _____.
A) nicotinic-muscle receptors
B) nicotinic-nerve receptors
C) muscarinic receptors
D) adrenergic receptors
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of the effects of sympathetic stimulation on the body?
A) It decreases the rate at which the heart contracts and relaxes.
B) It increases the rate of atrioventricular conduction.
C) It stimulates the urinary bladder to contract.
D) It causes the pupils of the eyes to constrict.
Q3) _____ refers to the normal state of balance among the body's internal organs.
A) Repolarization
B) Homeodynamics
C) Homeostasis
D) Euvolemia
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Drugs Affecting the Sympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the sympathetic signs for overdose of adrenergic drugs.
A) Sweating and trembling
B) Chest pain and respiratory difficulty
C) Significant increase in blood pressure
D) All of these are correct.
Q2) Identify the type of muscles that are affected by norepinephrine.
A) Smooth and skeletal muscle
B) Skeletal and cardiac muscle
C) Smooth and cardiac muscle
D) None of these are correct.
Q3) Select the correct clinical indication associated with the use of IV dobutamine (Dobutrex),a drug that is similar to dopamine but has greater beta-1 effects.
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B) Acute allergy or asthma
C) Acute heart failure
D) Hypertension
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Chapter 7: Drugs Affecting the Parasympathetic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) An intravenous injection of acetylcholine may not be successful in facilitating cholinergic activity in the presence of:
A) phosphodiesterase.
B) pseudocholinesterase.
C) serum albumin.
D) hemoglobin.
Q2) Which of the following types of cholinergic receptors is not associated with the autonomic nervous system?
A) Muscarinic receptor
B) Ganglionic receptor
C) Nicotinic-neural receptor
D) Nicotinic-muscle receptor
Q3) What is the mechanism of action of the drug botulinum?
A) It inhibits the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve endings.
B) It enhances the activity of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.
C) It displaces acetylcholine from muscarinic receptor sites and prevents it from producing its effects.
D) It permanently inactivates acetylcholinesterase by forming an irreversible bond with the enzyme.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Drugs Affecting the Autonomic Ganglia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the drug classes interact with ganglionic blocking drugs to produce an antagonism of antiadrenergic effect?
A) Adrenergic drugs
B) Adrenergic blocking drugs
C) Cholinergic drugs
D) Anticholinergic drugs
Q2) Identify a consequence of sympathetic stimulation by the use of nicotine products.
A) Heart rate will increase.
B) Blood pressure will decrease.
C) GI activity will decrease.
D) All of these are correct.
Q3) _____ interact with ganglionic blocking drugs to produce an additive antiadrenergic effect.
A) Adrenergic drugs
B) Adrenergic blocking drugs
C) Cholinergic drugs
D) Anticholinergic drugs
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10
Chapter 9: Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the ways to prolong the effects of a rapidly metabolized skeletal muscle relaxant is to administer the medication:
A) through an intravenous injection.
B) by intravenous infusion.
C) through an intramuscular injection.
D) intradermally.
Q2) A patient with breathing problems is given a muscle relaxant.As soon as he starts taking the drug,he begins to experience bronchospasms,a symptom that may eventually lead to an asthmatic attack.This can be attributed to the release of:
A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) serotonin.
D) histamine.
Q3) The binding of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine to the nicotinic-muscle receptors at the neuromuscular junction enables:
A) potassium ions to move into the cells.
B) sodium ions to move out of the cells.
C) sodium ions to move into the cells.
D) magnesium ions to enter the cells.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Local Anesthetics
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the most commonly used local anesthetic technique.
A) Regional nerve block
B) Infiltration anesthesia
C) Topical application
D) Cryoanesthesia
Q2) Cocaine cannot be administered by injection because:
A) injected cocaine produces vasodilation.
B) injected cocaine produces vasoconstriction.
C) injected cocaine relaxes the vascular smooth muscle.
D) injected cocaine produces hypotension.
Q3) An overdose of local anesthetics can lead to central nervous system (CNS)excitation.Which of the following should be used to reverse the effects of the overdose?
A) Barbiturates and diazepam (Valium)
B) Epinephrine and diazepam (Valium)
C) Barbiturates and epinephrine
D) None of the above
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Chapter 11: Introduction to the Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Coordinating body movements and posture and helping maintain body equilibrium are the major functions of the _____.
A) cerebral cortex
B) cerebellum
C) pons
D) thalamus
Q2) Jacob's body is not stimulated by pain or temperature.Which of the following regions of his brain is most likely damaged?
A) The hypothalamus
B) The pons
C) The medulla oblongata
D) The thalamus
Q3) All of the following are vital centers within the medulla oblongata except:
A) the thermoregulatory center.
B) the cardiac center.
C) the vasomotor center.
D) the respiratory center.
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Chapter 12: Sedative-Hypnotic Drugs and Alcohol
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Sample Questions
Q1) In large doses,barbiturates lead to cardiovascular and central nervous system depression.Select the reason for the occurrence of this depression.
A) Reduced activity in the medulla oblongata increases sympathetic control of the blood vessels, leading to hypertension, kidney failure, and irregular breathing.
B) Increased activity in the medulla oblongata decreases sympathetic control of the blood vessels, leading to hypotension, kidney failure, and irregular breathing.
C) Reduced activity in the medulla oblongata removes sympathetic control of the blood vessels, leading to hypotension, decrease in kidney function, irregular breathing, and hypoxia.
D) None of the above are correct.
Q2) Select the drug class that has a decreased pharmacological effect as a result of the concurrent use of barbiturates.
A) Oral anticoagulants
B) Proton pump inhibitors
C) Multivitamins
D) None of the above
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14
Chapter 13: Antipsychotic and Antianxiety Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following conditions is a potentially fatal condition that is associated with the use of antipsychotic drugs and is characterized by hyperthermia,muscular rigidity,catatonia,and autonomic nervous system instability?
A) Dystonic reactions
B) Akathisia
C) Parkinson's disease
D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Q2) Alex has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.Her doctor,Dr.Paris,prescribes her with a phenothiazine antipsychotic.After several weeks,Alex begins to experience the antipsychotic effects of the drug.How else is Alex going to be affected by the drug?
A) She will demonstrate increased interest in the surroundings.
B) She will demonstrate less behavioral activation.
C) She will communicate less rationally.
D) She will have high blood pressure and diarrhea.
Q3) How does anxiety affect the human body?
A) It enhances the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) It deactivates the reticular activating system.
C) It triggers the hyperarousal of the cerebral cortex.
D) It decreases the activity of the limbic system.
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Page 15
Chapter 16: Antiepileptic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Maria comes in with a complaint of having frequent seizures that do not last for more than a few seconds.Maria says that she would often stare into space or rapidly blink for a few seconds in office and then continue with her regular work as if nothing had happened.Maria is presenting symptoms of _____.
A) absence seizures
B) tonic seizures
C) clonic seizures
D) atonic seizures
Q2) Identify an accurate statement about complex partial seizures.
A) They can become tonic-clonic and involve the entire body.
B) They may be sensory or motor in nature.
C) They are often manifested by a sensory change.
D) They are often accompanied by a muscular twitch that is confined to one body part.
Q3) The primary mechanism of action of gabapentin is _____.
A) increased release of the excitatory neurotransmitter glutamate
B) blockade of Ca++ ion channels
C) inactivation of Na+ ion channels
D) increased reuptake of GABA back into its nerve endings
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Chapter 17: Antiparkinson Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stalevo is a triple combination medication containing all of the following except: A) bromocriptine.
B) levodopa.
C) carbidopa.
D) entacapone.
Q2) For best results,levodopa should be administered on an empty stomach:
A) to maximize drug receptor binding.
B) to minimize plasma protein binding interferences.
C) to enhance the absorption of levodopa in the small intestine.
D) to prevent amino acids in foodstuffs from interfering with the transport of levodopa across the blood-brain barrier.
Q3) Why is the use of Levodopa delayed in the treatment of the early stages of Parkinson's disease?
A) To avoid drug-food interactions that may occur
B) To avoid having to use multiple medications
C) To avoid the development of drug tolerance to levodopa over time
D) To delay the onset of movement disorders that occur with levadopa over time
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Chapter 18: General Anesthetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following instructions should be given to a patient after administering anesthesia?
A) Don't rely on memory for spoken instructions; follow written instructions.
B) Don't leave the health care facility unless accompanied by a responsible adult.
C) Don't operate complex equipment for at least 24 hours.
D) All of these are correct
Q2) _____ is selected for patients with coronary artery disease or cardiomyopathy due to its cardiostability.
A) Etomidate
B) Desflurane
C) Ketamine
D) Midazolam
Q3) Select the true statement about the solubility characteristics of drugs.
A) The higher the blood:gas partition coefficient, the more soluble the drug is in the blood.
B) The more soluble anesthetics have a longer onset of action.
C) Volatile liquids have higher blood:gas partition coefficients.
D) All of these are correct.
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Chapter 19: Opioid Narcoticanalgesics
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of opioids,identify an advantage of parenteral administration over oral administration.
A) Lower bioavailability of injected medications
B) Increased metabolism from hepatic drug microsomal metabolizing system
C) Poor absorption in the acidic environment of the stomach
D) Poor absorption in the alkaline environment of the intestines
Q2) The inadequate control of pain can lead to:
A) insomnia.
B) mania.
C) a decrease in heart rate.
D) a decrease in blood pressure.
Q3) Identify an accurate statement about opioid analgesics.
A) The majority of the opioid analgesics are used to induce preoperative sedation.
B) Opioid analgesics can only relieve mild to moderate pain.
C) It is held that opioid analgesics can relieve virtually any type of pain.
D) The use of opioids for postoperative pain can increase the risk of bleeding.
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21
Chapter 20: Nonnarcotic Analgesics
Anti-Inflammatory,and Antigout Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following NSAIDs causes ulcers more frequently than the others?
A) Ketorolac tromethamine
B) Ibuprofen
C) Aspirin
D) Acetaminophen
Q2) Which of the following is the recommended treatment option for acetaminophen poisoning?
A) Gastric aspiration and lavage
B) Maintenance of fluid balance by conventional means
C) Use of activated charcoal
D) All of the above
Q3) Which of the following is a clinical indication for the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A) Relief of mild to moderate pain where opioids are not indicated or warranted
B) Chronic treatment of dysmenorrhea
C) Control of the signs and symptoms of osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis
D) All of the above
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cardiac Glycosides and the Treatment of
Congestive Heart Failure
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Sample Questions
Q1) Alice visits the hospital for a medical checkup after experiencing shortness of breath and difficulty breathing.When Dr.Gavin examines her,he discovers that her lungs are filled with fluid.Dr.Gavin immediately suspects that Alice is suffering from a certain heart disease.Which of the following conditions is Dr.Gavin suspecting she has?
A) Chronic heart failure
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Coronary artery disease
D) Arteriosclerosis
Q2) What does the QRS wave of an electrocardiogram (ECG)represent?
A) The repolarization of the ventricles
B) The repolarization of the atria
C) The depolarization of the ventricles
D) The depolarization of the atria
Q3) Identify the chamber of the heart from which deoxygenated blood is pumped through the pulmonary arteries into the lungs.
A) The left ventricle
B) The right ventricle
C) The left atrium
D) The right atrium
Page 23
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Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following adverse effects is generally associated with venodilators but not with arterial dilators?
A) Nausea
B) Postural hypotension
C) Headache
D) Vasomotor flushing
Q2) Which of the following accurately describes the therapeutic action of the beta-blockers in the treatment of chronic heart failure?
A) Beta-blockers inhibit the release of renin, which in turn prevents the formation of angiotensin II, which causes vasoconstriction.
B) Beta-blockers decrease the rate at which the heart beats and reduce the force of the contractions of the heart.
C) Beta-blockers reduce the conduction of electrical impulses from the atria, which increases the blood pressure.
D) None of the above are correct.
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24
Chapter 23: Antianginal Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ectopic foci are often caused due to:
A) an increase in the activity of the sinoatrial (SA) node.
B) an increase in the activity of the atrioventricular (AV) node.
C) a delay or blockage in the conduction of electrical impulses.
D) a decrease in the number of cholinergic neurons innervating the heart.
Q2) Calcium channel blockers:
A) increase myocardial contractility.
B) cause vasoconstriction.
C) increase conduction.
D) reduce myocardial contractility.
Q3) _____ refers to a type of arrhythmia that originates in the sinoatrial (SA)node and causes a sustained increased heart rate of over 100 beats per minute.
A) Supraventricular bradycardia
B) Atrial flutter
C) Supraventricular tachycardia
D) Sinus tachycardia
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Chapter 24: Diuretics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Malia,a 45-year-old architect,is prone to angina attacks.Which of the following forms of nitroglycerin should Malia use to prevent angina attacks?
A) Nitroglycerin spray
B) Nitroglycerin for IV infusion
C) Nitroglycerin extended-release capsules
D) Nitroglycerin tablets administered sublingually
Q2) Which of the following is true of nitroglycerin ointment?
A) It has an onset of action of about 2 to 5 minutes.
B) It is used sublingually to relieve intense pain during attacks of angina.
C) It has a duration of action of about 1 to 2 hours.
D) It is applied topically to an area of the chest and absorption occurs through the skin.
Q3) The type of angina that is characterized by vasospasm is _____.
A) stable angina
B) Prinzmetal angina
C) ischemia
D) exertional angina
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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Q1) A patient who is administered _____ for a short term is likely to have elevated levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL)cholesterol.
A) mannitol
B) methyclothiazide
C) methazolamide
D) isosorbide
Q2) _____ antibiotics when administered with organic acid diuretics may potentiate ototoxicity of the loop diuretics.
A) Cephalosporin
B) Penicillin
C) Nitrofurans
D) Aminoglycoside
Q3) _____ diuretics are used to improve renal failure due to increased load and to reduce intracranial pressure.
A) Potassium-sparing
B) Osmotic
C) Loop
D) Thiazide
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Chapter 26: Anticoagulants and Coagulants
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)?
A) It interferes with insulin and blood glucose regulation.
B) Overdosage can cause hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
C) It increases plasma lipids.
D) Increase in the release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone.
Q2) Identify the instrument used to measure blood pressure.
A) Stethoscope
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Esthesiometer
D) Otoscope
Q3) Which of the following statements is true of the adverse-effects of thiazide and loop diuretics?
A) Thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the synthesis of renin.
B) Thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the metabolism of sodium.
C) Thiazide and loop diuretics interfere with the renal excretion of uric acid.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 27: Nutrition and Therapy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best explains the reason for the long-lasting inactivation of cyclooxygenase production by aspirin?
A) Thromboxane levels are elevated by aspirin, which results in the inactivation of cyclooxygenase.
B) Prostacyclin levels are elevated by aspirin, which results in the inactivation of cyclooxygenase.
C) Platelets lack a nucleus and hence, they cannot produce more cyclooxygenase.
D) Thromboxane is generated in excess until new platelets are formed and hence cyclooxygenase will not be produced.
Q2) Which of the following are the first cells or cell components to reach a site of injury to initiate coagulation?
A) Thrombocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Monocytes
D) Leucocytes
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Chapter 28: Hypolipidemic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Select the statement that best explains the potential effect of hyperchloremia in the body.
A) The presence of high levels of chloride causes more chloride to be absorbed by the renal tubules, leaving less chloride in the extracellular fluid, thereby causing the development of acidosis.
B) The presence of high levels of chloride causes more hydrogen to be retained in the blood to help balance the excess chloride, causing hyperchloremic alkalosis.
C) The presence of high levels of chloride causes more hydrogen to be retained in the blood to help balance the excess chloride, causing the development of hyperchloremic acidosis.
D) None of these statements are correct.
Q2) The condition known as beriberi that is characterized by weakness,paresthesia,hypotension,and sensory and motor dysfunction is caused by
A) vitamin B<sub>1</sub> deficiency
B) vitamin C deficiency
C) vitamin B<sub>2</sub> deficiency
D) vitamin K deficiency
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Chapter 29: Antianemic
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Q1) Lipoprotein electrophoresis is used to obtain a direct measurement of all of the following except _____.
A) total cholesterol
B) triglycerides
C) HDL
D) LDL
Q2) Which of the following is true of HDL cholesterol?
A) It is called bad cholesterol because it is atherogenic.
B) It transports cholesterol to damaged areas in the arteries.
C) It inhibits the oxidation of of LDL cholesterol.
D) It promotes platelet aggregation at plaque sites.
Q3) _____ is a rate-limiting pivotal step in cholesterol and steroid synthesis.
A) Production of mevalonic acid
B) Production of HMG-CoA
C) Production of acetyl-CoA
D) Production of pyruvic acid
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Chapter 30: Antiallergic and Antihistaminic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of using folic acid for treating anemias?
A) Folic acid cannot be used to reverse the production of the megaloblastic cells associated with cobalamin deficiency.
B) Folic acid can be used to treat aplastic anemia.
C) Folic acid should never be given for treatment of cobalamin (vitamin B<sub>12</sub>) deficiency anemia.
D) Folic acid is effective in the treatment of normocytic anemias.
Q2) Which of the following vitamin deficiencies leads to the development of pernicious anemia?
A) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency
B) Vitamin C deficiency
C) Vitamin B<sub>6</sub> deficiency
D) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub> deficiency
Q3) _____ has the longest half-life of all erythropoietin stimulating agents (ESAs).
A) Aranesp
B) Epogen
C) MIRCERA
D) Procrit
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Chapter 31: Bronchodilator Drugs and the Treatment of Asthma
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is true of fexofenadine?
A) Fexofenadine should not be taken with an antacid.
B) Fexofenadine decreases the blood level of nasally administered azelastine.
C) Fexofenadine absorption is delayed when taken closely with high fatty meals.
D) Fexofenadine does not undergo drug interactions with other drugs.
Q2) What unexpected adverse effect can elderly patients experience when taking an antihistaminic drug?
A) Respiratory depression
B) Paradoxical stimulation
C) Extreme hypotension
D) Insomnia
Q3) In patients with asthma,what role do H<sub>1</sub>-receptors play in the bronchioles?
A) Contraction of bronchiolar smooth muscle
B) Dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
C) Innervation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
D) Relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
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Page 33
Chapter 32: Respiratory Pharmacology, treatment of
Asthma and Copd
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Q1) Considering the onset of action as the primary factor,determine the preferred therapy for the treatment of any sudden onset of asthma symptoms for patients who experience less than two asthmatic episodes per week.
A) Cromolyn sodium
B) Advair
C) Singulair
D) Albuterol
Q2) Select the mechanism of action of omalizumab (Xolair).
A) Omalizumab destroys the IgE antibody and decreases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks.
B) Omalizumab binds up the IgE antibody and increases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks.
C) Omalizumab binds up the IgE antibody and decreases the circulating levels of IgE, which reduces the severity and frequency of asthmatic attacks.
D) None of these are correct.
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Chapter 33: Agents That Affect Intestinal Motility
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following H<sub>2</sub>-receptor antagonist medications should a patient with liver problems avoid?
A) Famotidine and ibuprofen OTC
B) Lansoprazole and esomeprazole
C) Omeprazole and dexlansoprazole
D) Nizatidine and ranitidine
Q2) Famotidine is available as over-the-counter 10-mg tablets.If Kayla takes one tablet every 12 hours over a period of four days.What is the total dosage of famotidine administered to Kayla?
A) 80 mg
B) 40 mg
C) 120 mg
D) 48 mg
Q3) Gastric juices are released during the gastric phase when the _____.
A) chyme or partially digested foods enter the intestine.
B) adrenergic receptors on parietal cells are stimulated.
C) brain receives sensory input.
D) stomach distends.
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Chapter 34: Introduction to the Endocrine System
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Q1) Explain the mechanism of action of emollients that are used as laxatives.
A) They work by releasing carbon dioxide gas that pushes against the rectum wall and induces muscle contraction and stool movement.
B) They soak up water and soften the stool, which results in a swelling action that distends the rectum and initiates defecation.
C) They consist of a mixture of sodium and magnesium salts that attract water, which results in the formation of a more liquid stool.
D) They penetrate the fecal mass and ease the passage of the stool through the rectum due to their oily nature.
Q2) Which of the following drugs is a serotonin receptor antagonist?
A) Atropine
B) Granisetron
C) Loperamide
D) Diphenoxylate
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Chapter 35: Introduction to the Endocrine System Adrenal
Steroids
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Q1) The two main systems of the body that function in regulating other systems are the:
A) nervous system and the endocrine system.
B) nervous system and the muscular system.
C) endocrine system and the exocrine system.
D) endocrine system and the muscular system.
Q2) Tobias is suffering from growth failure.The doctor prescribes mecasermin for him at a low dose for the first week.Which of the following conditions should be met before the doctor can increase the dosage?
A) Hypoglycemia should not occur.
B) Aquaresis should not occur.
C) Tobias should not have taken any antibiotics for at least two weeks.
D) Tobias should not have taken any analgesics for at least two weeks.
Q3) _____ is used to treat acromegaly and is clinically valuable in the management of severe diarrhea and flushing associated with metastatic carcinoid tumors.
A) Octreopeptide
B) Lanreotide
C) Somatomedin
D) Somatotropin
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Chapter 36: Gonadal Hormones and the Oral Contraceptives
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Q1) Where are the adrenal glands located?
A) On the upper surface of each kidney
B) At the base of the brain
C) On the anterior side of the neck
D) On the lower surface of the left kidney
Q2) Identify an accurate statement about mineralocorticoids.
A) The mineralocorticoids are hormones secreted by the innermost layer of the adrenal gland.
B) The main effect of the mineralocorticoid hormones is to regulate the fluid balance of the body.
C) The most important secreted mineralocorticoid is hydrocortisone.
D) The excessive use of mineralocorticoids often leads to obesity and diabetes mellitus.
Q3) Repository preparations of drugs:
A) have a quick onset of action.
B) have a long duration of action.
C) are usually made for intravenous administration.
D) are water soluble.
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Drugs Affecting the Thyroid and Parathyroid Glands and
Bone Degeneration
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Q1) The most effective treatment for relief of hot flashes,sleep disturbances,and vaginal dryness is _____.
A) oral contraceptives
B) clomiphene
C) hormone replacement therapy
D) androgen therapy
Q2) Sperm production is enhanced through the synergistic interaction between _____.
A) GnRH and DHEA
B) GnRH and testosterone
C) testosterone and FSH
D) testosterone and LH
Q3) Which of the following drugs is used for the induction of spermatogenesis in men?
A) Clomiphene
B) Follitropin
C) Chorionic gonadotropin recombinant DNA
D) Human chorionic gonadotropin hCG
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Chapter 38: Pancreatic Hormones and Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) _____ is an acute condition in which there is a reduction in the number of white blood cells (WBCs),specifically polymorphonuclear cells (granulocytes).
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Agranulocytosis
C) Osteoporosis
D) Cretinism
Q2) Which of the following statements is true of thyroid hormone?
A) Thyroid hormone inhibits protein synthesis.
B) Thyroid hormone decreases the rate of carbohydrate breakdown.
C) Thyroid hormone decreases the insulin-dependent entry of glucose into cells.
D) Thyroid hormone decreases the level of serum cholesterol.
Q3) To avoid interference with the intestinal absorption of the thyroid hormones:
A) a patient should take cholestyramine and the thyroid hormones on alternating days.
B) a patient should take cholestyramine and the thyroid hormones 2 or 3 hours apart.
C) a patient should not take cholestyramine within 4 to 5 hours of taking the thyroid hormones.
D) a patient should take the thyroid hormones along with cholestyramine.
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Page 40
Chapter 39: Posterior Pituitary Hormones and Drugs
Affecting
Uterine Muscle
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true about thiazolidinedione as an insulin sensitizer?
A) These drugs should be used in patients with congestive heart failure.
B) Troglitazone is available in the market for the management of diabetes.
C) Common adverse effects in this class include fluid retention and weight gain.
D) Rosiglitazone should be administered if ALT levels remain at more than three times the upper limit of normal on repeated assay.
Q2) Phase 2 insulin secretion begins when:
A) the blood sugar concentration rises to over 100 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.
B) the blood sugar concentration remains at 85 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.
C) the blood sugar concentration goes below 90 mg/dl 20 minutes after eating.
D) low glucose levels persist 20 minutes after eating.
Q3) Glucagon is secreted:
A) when GIP and GLP-1 are released.
B) when the beta cells secrete insulin.
C) when blood glucose levels are below normal.
D) after consuming a large meal.
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Antibacterial Agents
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Q1) How can the sources of ADH be described using the terms exogenous and endogenous?
A) The endogenous ADH is called ADH, while the exogenous form is synthetically produced and sold by the name vasopressin.
B) Exogenous ADH is produced in the hypothalamus and stored until it is needed, while the endogenous form is synthetically produced and sold by the name vasopressin.
C) Endogenous vasopressin is produced in the hypothalamus and stored until it is needed, while the exogenous form is synthetically produced.
D) None of these are correct.
Q2) Which of the following adverse effects is common to oxytocics and tocolytics?
A) Nausea
B) Flushing
C) Gangrene
D) Arrhythmia
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Chapter 41: End of Chapter Questions
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Q1) A person taking a diuretic and rifampin together should be aware of:
A) increased risk of renal bleeding.
B) excreting orange-red urine.
C) potential oliguria.
D) extreme diuresis.
Q2) Upper respiratory infections are most commonly caused by _____.
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
C) Chlamydia trachomatis
D) Moraxella catarrhalis
Q3) A person experiencing a delayed allergic reaction to a penicillin would most likely be switched to a(n)_____.
A) aminoglycoside
B) tetracycline
C) cephalosporin
D) sulfonamide
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Chapter 42: Antifungal and Antiviral Aidsdrugs
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Q1) Which of the following locations does cytomegalovirus (CMV)occupy?
A) Eyes and liver
B) Skin and lungs
C) Pharynx and eyes
D) Nasal cavity and pharynx
Q2) Identify the drug classification of the agents useful in the treatment of systemic mycotic infections and candidiasis.
A) Bactericidal
B) Fungistatic
C) Fungicidal
D) Bacteriostatic
Q3) Select the statement that describes the physical requirements for a diagnosis of AIDS to be made.
A) A profound depletion of regulatory cells to less than 200 to 500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
B) A profound depletion of memory cells to 200 to 500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
C) A profound depletion of T-lymphocytes to less than 200 to 500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
D) None of these are correct.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Antiprotozoal and Anthelmintic Drugs
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Q1) When a mosquito bites an individual,the malaria parasite is injected directly into the human bloodstream.Initially,the microorganisms invade and mature in the _____.
A) white blood cells
B) red blood cells
C) liver
D) kidneys
Q2) Which of the following statements is true about Giardia lamblia?
A) Giardia is transmitted by blood contact.
B) Giardia lamblia is a flagellated protozoan that resides in the salivary glands of the Anopheles mosquito.
C) Giardia lamblia can exist even in chlorinated water.
D) Children are least susceptible to Giardia infection.
Q3) In order to avoid toxoplasmosis,pregnant women should stay away from a cat's litter box during:
A) only the first trimester.
B) the first and second trimester.
C) only the third trimester.
D) all three trimesters.
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Chapter 44: Antiseptics and Disinfectants
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Q1) Which of the following statements is true of bactericidal and bacteriostatic antiseptics?
A) Bacteriostatic antiseptics can eradicate bacteria at low concentrations.
B) Bacteriostatic antiseptics inhibit the growth and reproduction of the bacteria but do not kill the bacteria.
C) All bacteriostatic antiseptics have high concentration.
D) All bacteriostatic antiseptics have broad-spectrum activity.
Q2) Which of the following is not used as an antiseptic because of the potential damage to human tissue?
A) Aldehydes
B) Phenols
C) Iodophors
D) Biguanides
Q3) Identify the definition of the term sterilization.
A) It is the process that inhibits the growth of disease-causing microorganisms.
B) It is the process that completely eradicates all microorganisms and spores.
C) It is the process that involves selectively eliminating microorganisms.
D) None of these are correct.
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46
Chapter 45: Antineoplastic Agents
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Q1) Which two systems do tumor cells use to metastasize?
A) Digestive system and lymphatic system
B) Respiratory system and lymphatic system
C) Circulatory system and lymphatic system
D) Circulatory system and nervous system
Q2) A leukemia patient is currently not responding to cyclophosphamide despite having favorable results with the drug in the past.The patient is most likely to have developed a problem in his _____.
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) hypothalamus
D) liver
Q3) Methotrexate is a chemotherapeutic medication that inhibits cell reproduction by:
A) causing metaphase arrest.
B) inhibiting folic acid reductase.
C) binding to the mitotic microtubules.
D) inhibiting protein translation.
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Chapter 46: Immunopharmacology
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Q1) Select the false statement about memory cells and their role in the immune response process in the body.
A) Memory cells are produced when vaccinations are administered.
B) Some B-cells and T-cells are referred to as memory cells.
C) Memory cells are lymphocytes that inhibit the activity of the immune system when the immune response is no longer needed.
D) Memory cells remain in the body for many years and can quickly become reactivated to produce an immune response against an organism that previously infected the body.
Q2) Select the true statement about the mechanism of action of a natural killer cell.
A) The natural killer cell releases perforins that form a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
B) Granzymes from the natural killer cell enter the perforin hole and degrade the enemy cell enzymes.
C) The enemy cell dies by apoptosis, and the macrophage engulfs and digests the dying cell.
D) All of these are correct.
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