Health Sciences Pathophysiology
Midterm Exam
Course Introduction
Health Sciences Pathophysiology explores the physiological processes underlying human disease and injury, focusing on alterations in normal body functions that result in signs and symptoms of various health conditions. The course provides a comprehensive examination of the mechanisms of disease, including cellular adaptation, inflammation, immune response, and genetic influences, and applies these concepts to major organ systems such as cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, endocrine, and renal systems. Students will develop an understanding of how pathological changes impact homeostasis and clinical presentations, equipping them with critical knowledge to inform patient assessment and evidence-based care within the health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Goulds Pathophysiology for the Health Professions 5th Edition by VanMeter
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28 Chapters
1204 Verified Questions
1204 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called:
A) ischemia.
B) gangrene.
C) hypoxia.
D) necrosis.
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
B) Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
C) All types of cells die at the same rate.
D) Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
Answer: B
Q3) A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called:
A) apoptosis.
B) ischemia.
C) hypertrophy.
D) necrosis.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations?
A) Increased carbonic acid
B) Decreased carbonic acid
C) Increased bicarbonate ion
D) Decreased bicarbonate ion
Answer: A
Q2) Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by:
A) blocking normal nerve conduction.
B) increasing the permeability of nerve membranes.
C) blocking movement of calcium ions.
D) decreasing phosphate ion levels.
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
A) Rapid, strong pulse
B) Low hematocrit
C) Increased urine output
D) Rough oral mucosa
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A placebo may be described as a tablet or capsule:
A) that does not contain an active drug.
B) that contains a small amount of active drug for use in clinical trials.
C) that contains a different drug to be used for its psychological effect.
D) that contains high amounts of a drug to determine the maximum dose allowed.
Answer: A
Q2) The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises and ultrasound is referred to as:
A) registered massage therapy.
B) naturopathy.
C) physiotherapy.
D) reflexology.
Answer: C
Q3) In traditional Asian medicine, acupoints are usually located:
A) over pain or other sensory receptors.
B) where blood vessels branch.
C) over joints.
D) on designated meridians.
Answer: D
Page 5
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Chapter 4: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain?
A) It usually initiates a physiological stress response.
B) It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety.
C) It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.
D) It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.
Q2) A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an ________ headache.
A) tension
B) sinus
C) migraine
D) intracranial
Q3) Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as:
A) neuropathic pain.
B) central pain.
C) neurogenic pain.
D) referred pain.
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Chapter 5: Inflammation and Healing
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Sample Questions
Q1) During an inflammatory response, hyperemia is caused by:
A) increased blood flow in the area.
B) increased capillary permeability.
C) irritation of sensory nerve endings by histamine.
D) increased leukocytes in the area.
Q2) All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:
A) good nutrition: protein, vitamins A and C.
B) a clean, undisturbed wound.
C) effective circulation.
D) advanced age.
Q3) All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
A) Resolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
B) Granulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
C) Regeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
D) Scar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis.
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Chapter 6: Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prions cannot be cultured in a PETRI plate of media because:
A) they take so long to grow.
B) they require extensive amounts of specialized nutrients.
C) they are proteinaceous particles, not living organisms.
D) they are viruses that don't grow on conventional media.
Q2) When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual, it may be designated as a/an:
A) sporadic occurrence.
B) epidemic.
C) pandemic.
D) emerging disease.
Q3) Fungi reproduce by:
1) budding.
2) extension of hyphae.
3) binary fission.
4) production of spores.
A) 1, 2
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 7: Immunity
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following complications does NOT occur frequently in AIDS patients?
A) Kaposi's sarcoma
B) Wasting syndrome
C) Lymphoma
D) Polyarthritis
Q2) Which statement applies to contact dermatitis?
A) It occurs when IgE antibodies on the skin react with the causative substance.
B) It may result from ingested foods.
C) Urticaria (hives) gradually spread over the body.
D) A type IV reaction occurs in affected areas.
Q3) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding a patient who is HIV positive?
A) No medication is required until the CD4 cell count drops below normal range.
B) Antibodies are present, destroying the virus and preventing transmission to others.
C) Antibodies in the blood indicate presence of virus and possible transmission to others.
D) Enzymes have not yet converted RNA to DNA for replication.
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Chapter 8: Skin Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing?
A) Severe pain around the mouth
B) Malaise and fatigue
C) Fever and severe headaches
D) Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips
Q2) Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi's sarcoma?
A) Excessive sun exposure
B) Increased number of nevi
C) Increase in immunosuppressed individuals
D) Presence of more seborrheic keratoses
Q3) Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location.
A) Scabies-fingers, wrists, waist
B) Impetigo-legs, feet
C) Pediculosis humanus corporis-scalp
D) Seborrheic keratosis-feet, hands
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10
Chapter 9: Musculoskeletal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Bones classified as "irregular" would include:
A) skull bones.
B) the mandible.
C) wrist bones.
D) the femur.
Q2) How is Duchenne's muscular dystrophy inherited?
A) Autosomal recessive gene
B) X-linked recessive gene
C) Autosomal dominant gene
D) Codominant gene
Q3) Paget's disease often leads to which of the following?
A) A reduction in bone fractures
B) Decreased intracranial pressure
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Disintegration of joint cartilage
Q4) Ankylosis and deformity develop in rheumatoid arthritis because:
A) skeletal muscle hypertrophies.
B) fibrosis occurs in the joint.
C) replacement cartilage changes alignment.
D) ligaments and tendons shorten.
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Chapter 10: Blood and Circulatory System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Jaundice is one typical sign of:
A) sickle cell anemia.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) iron deficiency anemia.
D) acute leukemia.
Q2) Thrombophilia can result in conditions such as:
A) severe chronic kidney disease.
B) peripheral vascular disease.
C) deficient calcium levels in the long bones.
D) excessive bleeding of hematomas.
Q3) Leukemia is sometimes linked to chromosome abnormalities, as evidenced by:
A) the presence of Philadelphia chromosome translocation in cases of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML).
B) very low incidence in persons with Down syndrome.
C) little evidence of familial incidence.
D) transmission as a recessive gene.
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Chapter 11: Lymphatic System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Multiple myeloma is a neoplastic disease of unknown etiology occurring in older adults and involving:
A) plasma cells.
B) T cells.
C) NK cells.
D) monocytes.
Q2) One of the reasons non-Hodgkin's lymphomas are harder to treat than Hodgkin's lymphomas is that they:
A) tend to be much larger than Hodgkin's lymphomas.
B) involve multiple nodes and widespread metastases.
C) are not affected by the newer drug treatments.
D) are asymptomatic until they reach stage IV.
Q3) A rare illness that involves the overgrowth of lymphoid tissue, although not itself considered a cancer is:
A) Castleman disease.
B) hyperlymphatic disease.
C) hypolymphatic disease.
D) Ann Arbor disease.
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13
Chapter 12: Cardiovascular System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why does anaphylactic shock cause severe hypoxia very quickly?
A) Generalized vasoconstriction reduces venous return.
B) Bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema reduce airflow.
C) Heart rate and contractility are reduced.
D) Metabolic rate is greatly increased.
Q2) In patients with congestive heart failure, ACE inhibitor drugs are useful because they:
A) reduce renin and aldosterone secretion.
B) slow the heart rate.
C) strengthen myocardial contraction.
D) block arrhythmias.
Q3) A dissecting aortic aneurysm develops as:
A) a dilation or bulge that develops at one point on the aortic wall.
B) a thrombus that accumulates at a point in the aortic wall.
C) a section of the aorta that weakens and dilates in all directions.
D) a tear in the intimal lining, which allows blood flow between layers of the aortic wall.
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14
Chapter 13: Respiratory System Disorders
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103 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to M. tuberculosis?
A) Microbes can survive for a long time inside tubercles.
B) The bacilli can survive some adverse conditions such as drying and heat.
C) Infection is limited to the lungs.
D) The bacilli can be destroyed by antibacterial drugs.
Q2) Choose the correct information applying to laryngotracheobronchitis:
A) Viral infection in infant under 12 months
B) Viral infection in child, 3 months to 3 years
C) Bacterial infection in infant under 6 months
D) Bacterial infection in child, 3 to 7 years
Q3) When does active (secondary) infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis with tissue destruction occur?
A) When host resistance is decreased
B) When a hypersensitivity reaction is initiated
C) When the BCG vaccine is not administered immediately following exposure to the microbe
D) When Ghon complexes form in the lungs
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Chapter 14: Neurological Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In many types of encephalitis, such as St. Louis encephalitis, how are the viruses transmitted?
A) Carriers
B) Mosquito and tick bites
C) Respiratory droplet
D) Septic emboli in the circulation
Q2) What are the significant early signs of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm?
A) Impaired speech and muscle weakness
B) Severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and photophobia
C) Abnormal sensations and tremors
D) Vomiting and visual abnormalities
Q3) Which of the following statements does NOT apply to myasthenia gravis?
A) The cholinergic receptors at the neuromuscular junctions are damaged.
B) It is an autoimmune disorder.
C) Muscle weakness and fatigue occur in the face and neck.
D) Dementia develops in the later stage.
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16
Chapter 15: Disorders of the Eye, Ear, and Other Sensory Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as: A) strabismus.
B) nystagmus.
C) presbyopia.
D) diplopia.
Q2) The semicircular canals of the inner ear are responsible for: A) balance and equilibrium.
B) hearing in the upper frequency range.
C) hearing in the lower frequency range.
D) balancing the pressure in the auditory canal.
Q3) Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc?
A) Aqueous humor
B) Vitreous humor
C) Cerebrospinal fluid
D) Tears
Q4) Which term refers to near-sightedness?
A) Hyperopia
B) Presbyopia
C) Myopia
D) Diplopia
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following may cause hypertension?
A) Hypoparathyroidism
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Pheochromocytoma
D) Addison's disease
Q2) Which one of the following develops hypoglycemia more frequently?
A) Type 1 diabetic patients
B) Type 2 diabetic patients
C) Patients with a poor stress response
D) Patients with a regular exercise and meal plan
Q3) Which of the following hormones is involved in both the stress response and the anti-inflammatory response?
A) Aldosterone
B) Norepinephrine
C) Thyroxine
D) Cortisol
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18
Chapter 17: Digestive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What would be the likely outcome from chemical peritonitis related to a perforated gallbladder?
A) Leakage of intestinal bacteria into blood and the peritoneal cavity
B) Massive hemorrhage and shock
C) Breakdown of the gallstones
D) Increasing peristalsis with intermittent painful spasms
Q2) What can be concluded if the hepatitis B antigen level remains high in the serum?
A) Acute infection is present.
B) Chronic infection has developed.
C) Liver failure is in progress.
D) The usual prolonged recovery from any viral infection is occurring.
Q3) What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
A) An abnormally long esophagus
B) Increased intra-abdominal pressure
C) Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm
D) A small fundus in the stomach
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19
Chapter 18: Urinary System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urine with a low specific gravity is usually related to:
A) an infection of the gallbladder.
B) renal failure due to tubule damage.
C) lack of sufficient fluid intake.
D) presence of numerous renal calculi.
Q2) In a case of acute pyelonephritis, what is the cause of flank pain?
A) Inflammation, causing ischemia in the tubules
B) Inflammation, stretching the renal capsule
C) Increasing glomerular permeability, creating an increased volume of filtrate in the kidney
D) Microbes irritating the tissues
Q3) Which of the following describes the normal flow of urine?
A) Collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder
B) Renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder to the ureter
C) Ureter to the renal pelvis to the urethra to the bladder
D) Collecting duct to the ureter to the urethra
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Chapter 19: Reproductive System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structural abnormalities of the uterus may lead to dyspareunia, which is:
A) painful intercourse.
B) obstructed urination.
C) a form of infertility.
D) fungal infection of the uterus.
Q2) Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?
A) The complete process takes about 28 days.
B) Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
C) It is controlled by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone.
D) The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
Q3) Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
A) Bone
B) Lungs
C) Liver
D) Testes
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21
Chapter 20: Neoplasms and Cancer
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Sample Questions
Q1) Drugs or agents that augment the natural immune response in the body to improve identification and removal of abnormal cells are called:
A) biological response modifiers.
B) angiogenesis stimulators.
C) analgesic complements.
D) targeted receptor modifiers.
Q2) Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they:
A) metastasize early in their development.
B) create excessive pressure within the skull.
C) cannot be removed.
D) cause serious systemic effects.
Q3) Radiation therapy destroys:
A) all cells in the tumor at one time.
B) the cells in the center of the tumor.
C) primarily rapidly dividing cells.
D) radioresistant cells.
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Chapter 21: Congenital and Genetic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the probability of two parents, both carriers of a defective recessive gene, producing a homozygous child (with each pregnancy)?
A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Q2) Down syndrome is an example of a/an:
A) autosomal dominant disorder.
B) multifactorial disorder.
C) developmental defect.
D) chromosomal disorder.
Q3) Blood tests are performed on neonates primarily to:
A) determine need for immediate surgical correction of anomalies.
B) identify disorders requiring immediate treatment.
C) identify the presence of any inherited disorders.
D) rule out the presence of any infection.
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23
Chapter 22: Complications due to Pregnancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the usual time period between the first day of the last menstrual period and the time of birth?
A) 38 weeks
B) Termed the gestation period
C) Referred to as gravidity
D) The embryonic period
Q2) Which of the following indicates development of pregnancy-induced hypertension?
A) Proteinuria, edema, and weight gain
B) Persistent blood pressure measuring above 140/90
C) Vaginal bleeding
D) Blood clots forming in the legs
Q3) During which time period do teratogens cause major developmental damage to organs?
A) First week following fertilization
B) First 2 months
C) Any time up to 6 months
D) During labor and delivery
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24
Chapter 23: Complications due to Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following comprise typical early signs of Still's disease, a form of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?
1) Presence of rheumatoid factor in the blood
2) High fever and skin rash
3) Swollen painful knees, wrists, and elbows
4) Deformity of the hands and feet
A) 1, 3
B) 1, 4
C) 2, 3
D) 2, 4
Q2) Acne vulgaris can best be described as an infection involving the:
A) sweat glands of the upper body.
B) dermis and epidermis of the skin.
C) apocrine glands.
D) sebaceous glands and hair follicles.
Q3) Which statement applies to testicular cancer?
A) It often develops in untreated, undescended testes.
B) It is related to chromosome abnormalities such as monosomy X.
C) The tumor presents as a painful red lump in the scrotum.
D) The cancer usually causes sterility.
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Chapter 24: Complications due to Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) The term given to the change that occurs in women at around age 50 with the cessation of the menstrual cycle is:
A) menopause.
B) dysmenorrhea.
C) amenorrhea.
D) menarche.
Q2) Recommendations to reduce the risk factors and the progression of osteoporosis with aging include:
A) reducing vitamin D intake.
B) maintaining walking and weight-bearing exercise.
C) increasing bone resorption.
D) maintaining glucocorticoid therapy.
Q3) All are physiological changes that occur with aging EXCEPT:
A) reduced skeletal muscle mass.
B) degeneration of fibrocartilage in intervertebral discs in the spine.
C) increased basal metabolic rate (BMR).
D) reduced bladder capacity and incomplete bladder emptying.
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Chapter 25: Immobility and Associated Problems
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Q1) Immobility may lead to dehydration primarily as a result of:
A) changes in hormonal secretions due to increased blood in the thorax.
B) destruction of the kidneys as a result of ischemia and necrosis.
C) blockage of the ureters, causing retention of urine.
D) toxins being produced by infectious microorganisms.
Q2) Lack of weight-bearing and skeletal muscle activity for a prolonged period leads to:
A) bone demineralization.
B) lengthening of tendons and ligaments.
C) decreased skeletal muscle mass.
D) A and C
Q3) Paralysis of the lower part of the body is called:
A) hemiplegia.
B) paraplegia.
C) quadriplegia.
D) None of the above
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Chapter 26: Stress and Associated Problems
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Q1) During the stress response, endorphins act as:
A) pain blockers.
B) cerebral function depressors.
C) stimulators of increased secretion of aldosterone and insulin.
D) an enhancer of the immune response.
Q2) In which of the following situations would the stress response be used to prevent blood pressure from dropping too low?
A) Increasing anger during an argument
B) Writing a final examination
C) Fear about a medical diagnosis
D) Internal hemorrhage from injuries in a car accident
Q3) The stress response involves the integrated action of the:
1) hypothalamus.
2) hypophysis.
3) sympathetic nervous system.
4) adrenal glands.
A) 1, 3
B) 2, 3
C) 1, 2, 4
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
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Chapter 27: Substance Abuse and Associated Problems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical dependency has been associated with all the following EXCEPT:
A) hereditary factors.
B) disease requiring certain prescription drugs.
C) easy access to many kinds of drugs.
D) increased acceptance of alcohol or marijuana to cope with stress.
E) increased work productivity.
Q2) What is physiological dependence?
A) An intense emotional need for a drug in order to function
B) Adaptation of the body to a drug, resulting in withdrawal signs after the drug is discontinued
C) The need for an ever-increasing dose to produce the same effect
D) Continuing to take a drug when it is not required medically
Q3) Chronic alcoholism is likely to cause all of the following EXCEPT:
A) cirrhosis.
B) mental confusion.
C) loss of motor coordination.
D) altered personality and amnesia.
E) respiratory failure.
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Chapter 28: Environmental Hazards and Associated Problems
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Q1) Bites from both wild and domesticated animals may cause:
A) anaphylaxis.
B) Shigella outbreaks.
C) rabies.
D) severe pain and headache.
Q2) Which of the following is likely to result from lead poisoning?
A) Damage to the brain and peripheral nerves
B) Inflammation and fibrosis in the lungs
C) Various cancers
D) Displacement of oxygen from hemoglobin
Q3) What is/are signs of hypothermia?
A) Systemic vasodilation
B) Lethargy and confusion
C) Nausea and cramps
D) Rapid but strong pulse
Q4) Which of the following is a potential effect of a bite or sting?
A) Immediate heart failure
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
D) Bone marrow damage
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