Health Sciences Pathology
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences Pathology is an essential course that explores the mechanisms, causes, and effects of diseases on the human body. Students will study the structural and functional changes in cells, tissues, and organs that underlie a variety of health disorders. Through lectures, case studies, and laboratory work, the course covers topics such as inflammation, infection, neoplasia, genetic disorders, and the bodys response to injury. Emphasis is placed on understanding how pathological processes influence clinical presentations, diagnosis, and treatment, providing a strong foundation for future study and practice in health sciences and medical fields.
Recommended Textbook
Basic Pathology 9th Edition by Vinay Kumar
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23 Chapters
265 Verified Questions
265 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Cell Injury, Cell Death, and Adaptations
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 28-year-old man was found to have cirrhosis of the liver and pulmonary emphysema. The liver cells contained globular inclusions in their cytoplasm, which by electron microscopy are shown to be located inside the A) Golgi apparatus
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) mitochondria
E) peroxisomes
Answer: C
Q2) A 60-year-old man who had generalized atherosclerosis died 24 hours after having a stroke. A cerebral infarct was found at autopsy. Necrosis of the brain is classified as A) coagulative necrosis
B) liquefactive necrosis
C) fat necrosis
D) fibrinoid necrosis
E) caseous necrosis
Answer: B
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3
Chapter 2: Inflammation and Repair
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old woman suffered extensive burns and developed large irregular scars over her hands. These scars limited the movement of her fingers, and she was unable to fully extend them. What are these lesions called?
A) Contractures
B) Desmoids
C) Aggressive fibromatoses
D) Keloids
E) Wound dehiscences
Answer: A
Q2) Fibrillin is important for the scaffolding and deposition of which other component of the extracellular matrix?
A) Collagen type I
B) Collagen type III
C) Elastic fibers
D) Fibronectin
E) Laminin
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Hemodynamic Disorders, Thromboembolism, and Shock
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the antiphospholipid syndrome of systemic lupus erythematosus, arterial thrombi occur most often in the arteries of the
A) brain
B) heart
C) kidneys
D) intestines
E) bronchi
Answer: A
Q2) Most cases of septic shock are caused by endotoxin-producing bacteria, which are classified as
A) pyogenic
B) gram-positive
C) gram-negative
D) encapsulated
E) acid fast
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Diseases of the Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Generic antinuclear antibodies are found in more than 95% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. Which pattern of staining seen on tissue culture cells in the indirect antibody immunofluorescence microscopy test signifies the presence of these antibodies?
A) Nucleolar pattern
B) Speckled nuclear pattern
C) Diffuse nuclear pattern
D) Rim nuclear pattern
E) Granular cytoplasmic pattern
Q2) Mutation of the gene encoding the enzyme that is essential for the maturation of pre-B cells to mature B lymphocytes is the cause of
A) common variable immunodeficiency
B) isolated IgA deficiency
C) DiGeorge syndrome
D) severe combined immunodeficiency
E) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
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6
Chapter 5: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Germ line mutation of the Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) gene is associated with formation of retinal angiomas and
A) glioblastoma multiforme
B) oligodendroglioma
C) neurinomas
D) ependymomas
E) cerebellar hemangioblastomas
Q2) Helicobacter pylori infection predisposes to formation of gastric tumors, but the association between the bacterial infection and a gastric tumor is the strongest for A) adenocarcinoma of the stomach
B) gastrointestinal stromal tumors
C) marginal zone lymphomas
D) T-cell lymphoma
E) Burkitt lymphoma
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Pediatric Diseases
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16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most teratomas in infants are located in the
A) cranium
B) mediastinum
C) gonads
D) retroperitoneum
E) sacrococcygeal region
Q2) Overall, which of the following is the most common malignancy found in children younger than 4 years of age?
A) Retinoblastoma
B) Neuroblastoma
C) Leukemia
D) Wilms' tumor
E) Medulloblastoma
Q3) Which malignancy occurs at a high rate in persons affected with Down syndrome?
A) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
C) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
D) Plasmacytoma
E) Brain tumors
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Environmental and Nutritional Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Frontal bossing of the cranium that imparts a square appearance to the head, pigeon breast deformity, and bow legs are features of a deficiency of which vitamin?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B<sub>1</sub>
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Q2) Lead absorbed from the environment during infancy and childhood is predominantly deposited in which internal organ or organ system?
A) Brain
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Bones
E) Skeletal muscles
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Chapter 8: General Pathology of Infectious Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old man known to have diabetes mellitus was admitted to the hospital in ketoacidosis. He had a massive, invasive infection of the nasal sinuses. Biopsy disclosed fungal infection, which was most likely caused by
A) Candida albicans
B) Aspergillus fumigatus
C) Mucor
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) Pneumocystis carinii
Q2) Suppurative nail infection (paronychia) and abscesses of fingertips ("felons") are most likely caused by
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Haemophilus influenzae
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Staphylococcus aureus
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Chapter 9: Blood Vessels
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Arterial hypertension of Cushing syndrome is associated with A) elevation of serum renin
B) elevation of angiotensin in blood
C) potassium retention in the kidneys
D) reduced sodium excretion in urine
E) increased diuresis
Q2) Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies showing widespread cytoplasmic staining of neutrophils in an indirect immunofluorescence test (c-ANCA) are found in high titers in which disease?
A) Microscopic polyangiitis
B) Wegener granulomatosis
C) Churg-Strauss syndrome
D) Goodpasture syndrome
E) Kawasaki syndrome
Q3) Which type of vasculitis is typically associated with bronchial asthma?
A) Temporal (giant cell) arteritis
B) Takayasu arteritis
C) Kawasaki disease
D) Churg-Strauss syndrome
E) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
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Chapter 10: Heart
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following vascular tumors is classified as an intermediate grade (low-grade malignant) neoplasm?
A) Capillary hemangioma
B) Lymphangioma
C) Hemangioendothelioma
D) Angiosarcoma
E) Glomus tumor
Q2) Bacillary angiomatosis is typically found in AIDS patients and is caused by
A) herpesvirus type 8
B) herpesvirus type 3
C) herpesvirus type 6
D) Bartonella henselae
E) measles virus
Q3) Which marker of myocardial necrosis is elevated first in the blood of a patient with a myocardial infarction?
A) Aspartate aminotransferase
B) Creatine kinase
C) Creatine kinase M-B fraction
D) Troponin T
E) Lactate dehydrogenase
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Chapter 11: Hematopoietic and Lymphoid Systems
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common aggressive form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma in the United States?
A) Follicular lymphoma
B) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
C) Mantle cell lymphoma
D) Peripheral T-cell lymphoma
E) Angiocentric lymphoma
Q2) Aplastic crisis, which can be encountered in patients with hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, is most often precipitated by
A) deficiency of erythropoietin
B) negative feedback inhibition by bilirubin
C) adverse effect of iron released from hemolyzed erythrocytes
D) autoimmune mechanisms
E) parvovirus infection
Q3) The deletion of two -globin chains of hemoglobin is the cause of
A) -thalassemia trait
B) -thalassemia minor
C) salient carrier state
D) hemoglobin H disease
E) hydrops fetalis
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Chapter 12: Lung
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following lung diseases is classified as restrictive rather than obstructive?
A) Asthma
B) Chronic bronchitis
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Pneumoconiosis
E) Emphysema
Q2) Hyaline membranes in the alveoli of lungs affected by acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are composed of
A) surfactant
B) eosinophils
C) fibrin
D) fungi
E) collagen
Q3) Which one of the following lung tumors has the best prognosis?
A) Mesothelioma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Small cell carcinoma
D) Large cell carcinoma
E) Carcinoid tumor
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Chapter 13: Kidney and Its Collecting System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 5-year-old boy is taken to the pediatrician because of generalized facial edema and somnolence. He has been passing dark brown urine. Physical examination reveals hypertension. Urinalysis shows oliguria, hematuria, proteinuria, and red blood cell casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Nephrotic syndrome
C) Rapidly progressive acute renal failure
D) Chronic uremia
E) Nephrolithiasis
Q2) A 30-year-old heroin addict who is positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is hospitalized because of generalized edema. Laboratory studies show proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria. Which of the following diseases is most likely to be diagnosed by a biopsy of the kidney?
A) Lipoid nephrosis
B) Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C) Membranous nephropathy
D) IgA nephropathy
E) Amyloidosis
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Chapter 14: Oral Cavity and Gastrointestinal Tract
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22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Polyps of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome are best classified as
A) serrated adenomas
B) hyperplastic polyps
C) tubular adenoma
D) villous adenomas
E) hamartomas
Q2) The finding of anti-endomysial antibodies in a person with intestinal malabsorption strongly favors the diagnosis of
A) Whipple disease
B) celiac sprue
C) tropical sprue
D) lactase deficiency
E) abetalipoproteinemia
Q3) Carcinoma of the esophagus most often presents on gross examination as a A) polypoid exophytic lesion
B) flat induration of the mucosa
C) volcano-like excavated lesion
D) diffuse narrowing of the esophageal lumen
E) linitis plastica
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Liver, Gallbladder, and Biliary Tract
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of cirrhosis unrelated to alcohol, viral hepatitis, or metabolic diseases (i.e., the so-called "cryptogenic cirrhosis") is
A) latent bacterial infection
B) amyloidosis
C) circulatory disorders
D) steatohepatitis
E) autoimmune diseases
Q2) Which of the following types of hepatocellular carcinoma occurs in young adults, is unrelated to cirrhosis, and has a much better prognosis (i.e., a 60% 5-year survival rate)?
A) Tumor developing in hemochromatosis
B) Tumor in Wilson disease
C) Diffusely infiltrative hepatocellular carcinoma
D) Fibrolamellar hepatocellular carcinoma
E) Cholangio-hepatocellular carcinoma
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Chapter 16: Pancreas
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4 Verified Questions
4 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis?
A) Alcohol
B) Thiazide diuretics
C) Viruses
D) Trauma
E) Vascular thrombosis
Q2) Hereditary pancreatitis is most likely to be found in persons harboring the mutation of which of the following genes?
A) <sub>1</sub>-Antitrypsin
B) Amylase
C) Cationic trypsinogen
D) Enterokinase
E) Alkaline phosphatase
Q3) Which of the following genes is the most frequently mutated oncogene in ductal adenocarcinoma of the pancreas?
A) p53
B) K-RAS
C) MYC
D) RB1
E) SMAD4
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Chapter 17: Male Genital System and Lower Urinary Tract
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Seminomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following sites?
A) Internal iliac lymph nodes
B) External iliac lymph nodes
C) Mesenteric lymph nodes
D) Retroperitoneal para-aortic lymph nodes
E) Urinary bladder
Q2) A papillary urinary bladder tumor composed of multilayered hyperchromatic transitional epithelium shows significant nuclear atypia. This type of tumor is best classified as which of the following?
A) Urothelial papilloma
B) Urothelial neoplasm of low malignant potential
C) Papillary urothelial carcinoma, low grade
D) Papillary urothelial carcinoma, high grade
E) Anaplastic carcinoma
Q3) Penile carcinomas tend to metastasize first to which of the following nodes?
A) Inguinal lymph nodes
B) Obturator lymph nodes
C) Internal ileac lymph nodes
D) External iliac lymph nodes
E) Paraortic abdominal lymph nodes
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Chapter 18: Female Genital System and Breast
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Sample Questions
Q1) Assuming that a vaccination will be discovered for the human papillomavirus in women, it is expected that the vaccination will reduce the incidence of carcinoma at which of the following sites?
A) Clitoris
B) Vagina
C) Cervix
D) Endometrium
E) Ovary
Q2) A 25-year-old woman had a workup for infertility. During the laparoscopic examination, the gynecologist found foci of endometriosis. Such foci are most often seen on which of the following sites?
A) Ovary
B) Uterine ligaments
C) Rectovaginal septum
D) Pelvic peritoneum
E) Appendix
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Chapter 19: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 50-year-old man who is showing signs of acromegaly is found to have an elevated concentration of growth hormone and another hormone in blood that was apparently derived from the liver. Which other hormone is most likely increased in this patient's blood?
A) Glucagon
B) Somatostatin
C) Insulin growth factor I
D) Cholecystokinin
E) Secretin
Q2) The best characterized molecular abnormality in pituitary adenomas involves which of the following?
A) Cell surface receptors
B) G-proteins mediating signal transduction
C) Adenylate cyclase related cytoplasmic effectors
D) Nuclear receptors
E) DNA repair enzymes
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Chapter 20: Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 20-year-old man is being treated for a soft tissue tumor of the lower extremity. The tumor is composed of malignant spindle-shaped cells and epithelial cells that form gland-like structures. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Leiomyosarcoma
B) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
C) Primitive neuroectodermal tumor
D) Synovial sarcoma
E) Rhabdomyosarcoma
Q2) The primitive neuroectodermal tumor (PNET) of soft tissues has the same histologic features and the same chromosomal translocation as which of the following bone tumors?
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing sarcoma
D) Malignant fibrous histiocytoma
E) Giant cell tumor of bones
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nerves and Muscles
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Sample Questions
Q1) Guillain-Barré syndrome is mediated by which form of immune hypersensitivity reaction?
A) Atopic IgE-mediated reaction
B) Cytotoxic IgG antibody-mediated reaction
C) Circulating immune complex-mediated reaction
D) T cell-mediated reaction
E) Graft-versus-host reaction
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Chapter 22: Central Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Posttraumatic hydrocephalus is most often caused by which of the following?
A) Hypersecretion of cerebrospinal fluid
B) Obstruction of the aqueduct
C) Obstruction of the foramen of Luschka
D) Obstruction of the foramen of Magendie
E) Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid absorption
Q2) Which of the following is the most common source of septic thromboemboli in the cerebral arteries?
A) Leg veins
B) Pulmonary veins
C) Heart
D) Aorta
E) Carotid arteries
Q3) Fetal alcohol syndrome is most often characterized by which of the following disorders?
A) Encephalocele
B) Anencephaly
C) Macrogyria
D) Microencephaly
E) Lissencephaly
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Chapter 23: Skin
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following skin lesions will most likely progress to invasive squamous cell carcinoma?
A) Actinic keratosis
B) Seborrheic keratosis
C) Seborrheic dermatitis
D) Epidermal inclusion cyst
E) Steatocystoma multiplex
Q2) Which of the following skin lesions becomes darker and more pigmented upon exposure to sunlight?
A) Vitiligo
B) Lentigo
C) Ephelis
D) Congenital melanocytic nevus
E) Dysplastic nevus
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