Health Sciences
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the scientific, social, and behavioral aspects of health, illness, and healthcare systems. It involves the study of human biology, disease prevention, public health, healthcare policy, and the application of scientific knowledge to improve individual and community health outcomes. Students will gain foundational knowledge in areas such as anatomy, physiology, epidemiology, nutrition, and healthcare ethics, preparing them for a variety of roles in health professions, research, or further specialized study. The course emphasizes critical thinking, evidence-based practice, and an understanding of the complex factors that influence health in diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Patton
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48 Chapters
7538 Verified Questions
7538 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Organization of the Body
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125 Verified Questions
125 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/17815
Sample Questions
Q1) Thigh
A)Abdominal
B)Brachial
C)Cervical
D)Coxal
E)Cutaneous
F)Digital
G)Femoral
H)Lumbar
Answer: G
Q2) Physiology can be subdivided according to the _____ studied.
A) type of organism
B) organizational level
C) systemic function
D) All of the above are correct.
Answer: D
Q3) List the directional terms, and use them to describe the relationship between two structures in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Homeostasis can best be described as:
A) a constant state maintained by living and nonliving organisms.
B) a state of relative constancy.
C) adaptation to the external environment.
D) changes in body temperature.
Answer: B
Q2) Intrinsic control:
A) usually involves the endocrine or nervous system.
B) operates at the cellular level.
C) is sometimes called autoregulation.
D) operates at the system or organism level.
Answer: C
Q3) Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease?
A) Environment
B) Stress
C) Lifestyle
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q4) Explain the feed-forward control system, and give an example of one in the body.
Answer: Answers will vary.
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Chemical Basis of Life
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164 Verified Questions
164 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) One function of carbon dioxide is to help maintain proper pH balance in the body.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Releases a hydroxide ion into solution, which raises the pH
A) Acid
B) Base Answer: B
Q3) Electrons surround the nucleus of an atom in areas of probability rather than in defined orbits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q4) The most abundant and important compound(s) in the body is(are):
A) air.
B) water.
C) proteins.
D) nucleic acids.
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Biomolecules
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87 Verified Questions
87 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If one side of a DNA molecule is CTAGGCTG, the other side would be:
A) CTAGGCTG.
B) GATCCGAC.
C) CUAGGCUG.
D) GAUCCGAC.
Q2) Phospholipids have a fat-soluble end and a water-soluble end.
A)True
B)False
Q3) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is also called the "bad" cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Starch or sugar
A)RNA
B)DNA
C)Carbohydrate
D)Fat
E)Steroid
F)Protein
G)Prostaglandins
H)ATP
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Chapter 5: Cell Structure
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171 Verified Questions
171 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Glycoproteins on the cell membrane identify the cell as "self."
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the cell membrane, the hydrophobic part of the phospholipid molecule:
A) faces the exterior of the cell.
B) faces the interior of the cell.
C) is in the center of the phospholipid bilayer.
D) both A and B.
Q3) Rafts are stiff groupings of membrane molecules that are rich in cholesterol.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Centrioles are made up of cylinders of nine bundles of microtubules with two tubules in each bundle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following structures contains DNA?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosome
D) Both A and B
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Chapter 6: Cell Function
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136 Verified Questions
136 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Last step in cellular respiration
A)Cytosol
B)Citric acid cycle
C)Pyruvic acid
D)Acetyl coenzyme A
E)NAD
F)Mitochondria
G)Lactic acid
H)Electron transport system
I)Anaerobic
J)Glycolysis
Q2) The proteins in the cell membrane that can open and close are called:
A) enzymes.
B) gated channel proteins.
C) glycoproteins.
D) both A and B.
Q3) All enzyme names end with the suffix "-ase."
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the processes of diffusion and osmosis.
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Chapter 7: Cell Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a protein is not folded properly, chaperone proteins can break it down and recycle the individual amino acids.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What differentiates one DNA nucleotide from another is whether it has a ribose or a deoxyribose sugar.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The "rungs" of the DNA ladder are made up of either deoxyribose sugar or phosphoric acid.
A)True
B)False
Q4) DNA replication occurs during:
A) prophase.
B) telophase.
C) metaphase.
D) none of the above.
Q5) The centromere holds two chromatids together. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Introduction to Tissues
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of tissue has the greatest capacity to regenerate?
A) Muscle
B) Nervous
C) Epithelial
D) All of the above tissue have about equal ability to regenerate.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
A) Forms glands that secrete substances into and out of the body
B) Is important in communication and control
C) Covers and protects body surfaces
D) Lines the interior of body cavities
Q3) Briefly describe connective tissue membranes, and give their location in the body.
Q4) Epithelial and muscle tissue have the greatest ability to regenerate.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Simple cuboidal epithelium is one cell layer thick; stratified cuboidal epithelium is more than one layer thick.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name and briefly describe the four principal types of tissue in the body.
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Chapter 9: Tissue Types
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stratified columnar epithelium is the most common type of epithelium and is found in many areas throughout the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In a neuron, axons carry impulses toward the cell body and dendrites carry impulses away from the cell body.
A)True B)False
Q3) Smooth muscle fibers tend to be longer, but weaker, than striated muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Small spaces in the bone where osteocytes are located are called:
A) lacunae. B) lamellae.
C) canaliculi.
D) marrow.
Q5) Hormones are released into the blood by endocrine glands. A)True B)False
Q6) Differentiate among the three types of cartilage: hyaline, fibrous, and elastic.
Page 11
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Chapter 10: Skin
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241 Verified Questions
241 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Blisters, severe pain, generalized swelling, and edema are characteristic of third-degree burns.
A)True
B)False
Q2) If you were looking under the microscope at a slide that contains skin glands, what three kinds of microscopic glands would be present?
A) Sebaceous, eccrine, and ceruminous glands
B) Sweat, eccrine, and ceruminous glands
C) Sweat, eccrine, and sebaceous glands
D) Sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous glands
Q3) Which of the following is not true of the dermal-epidermal junction?
A) It is important in blocking bacteria from passing through the skin.
B) It is composed chiefly of basement membrane.
C) Its function is to "glue" the two layers of skin together.
D) All of the above are true.
Q4) Surgical incisions that are made perpendicular to cleavage lines tend to heal with less of a scar.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Skeletal Tissues
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180 Verified Questions
180 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following substances is not part of the inorganic matrix of bone?
A) Magnesium
B) Collagen
C) Sodium
D) Fluoride
Q2) The concentric, cylinder-shaped layers of calcified bone matrix are called:
A) lacunae.
B) canaliculi.
C) central canal.
D) lamellae.
Q3) The type of cartilage growth most prevalent in childhood and early adolescence is interstitial or endogenous growth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The endosteum usually surrounds yellow marrow in an adult.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Callus tissue binds the broken ends of a fractured bone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Axial Skeleton
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139 Verified Questions
139 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The floating ribs do not articulate with any other bones.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The sagittal suture joins the right and left parietal bones.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Eleventh and twelfth ribs, which have no attachment to the sternum
A)Body
B)False ribs
C)Floating ribs
D)Manubrium
E)True rib
F)Xiphoid process
G)Costal cartilage
Q4) A fontanel can best be described as a(n):
A) bone in the skull.
B) unossified area in the infant's skull.
C) articulation between two skull bones.
D) small opening.
Q5) Explain the clinical significance of the cribriform plate.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Appendicular Skeleton
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51 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During childbirth, a baby passes through an imaginary plane called the:
A) pelvic outlet.
B) symphysis pubis.
C) pelvic brim.
D) ilium.
Q2) Young children's bones have a greater risk of fracturing because of incompletely ossified bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ulna articulates proximally with the:
A) carpal bones.
B) humerus.
C) scapula.
D) None of the above is correct.
Q4) Going from proximal to distal, the bones of the lower extremity are:
A) femur, tibia, carpals, and metacarpals.
B) metacarpals, tarsals, femur, and tibia.
C) femur, tibia, tarsals, and metatarsals.
D) tarsals, metatarsals, femur, and tibia.
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Chapter 14: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Synchondroses:
A) have hyaline cartilage between articulating bones in a joint.
B) are immovable joints.
C) are found only in the skull.
D) is another term for symphysis.
Q2) The iliofemoral ligament, which helps stabilize the hip, is one of the strongest ligaments in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Gomphoses can be found in the:
A) mandible.
B) frontal bone.
C) maxilla.
D) Both A and C are correct.
Q4) The occipital bone fitting into the atlas bone of the vertebrae is an example of a _____ joint.
A) pivot
B) condyloid
C) saddle
D) gomphosis
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Axial Muscles
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151 Verified Questions
151 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Draw(s) the eyebrows together, producing vertical wrinkles (frowning)
A)Buccinator
B)Corrugator supercilii
C)Epicranius
D)Orbicularis oculi
E)Pterygoid
F)Sternocleidomastoid
Q2) The covering of individual muscle fibers is the:
A) epimysium.
B) endomysium.
C) periosteum.
D) perimysium.
Q3) Purposeful movement is determined by:
A) the relationship of muscles to joints.
B) how muscles are attached to the skeleton.
C) the manner in which muscles are grouped.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Explain how muscles and the movement of the body help maintain stability or homeostasis.
Q5) What is the "optimum angle of pull"?
17
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Chapter 16: Appendicular Muscles
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a muscle that moves the foot?
A) Sartorius
B) Peroneus longus
C) Tibialis anterior
D) Soleus
Q2) In pushing (pressing) a weight from shoulder height to above the head, which of the following muscles is least utilized?
A) Triceps brachii
B) Biceps brachii
C) Deltoid
Q3) To give stability to the shoulder, both the clavicle and scapula have very limited movement.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Poor posture puts abnormal strain on bones and may eventually produce deformities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is tenosynovitis, and how is it caused?
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Chapter 17: Muscle Contraction
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226 Verified Questions
226 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The stimulus to contract the muscle is carried inside the muscle by this structure
A)Troponin
B)Myosin
C)Actin
D)T-tubules
E)ATP
F)Calcium
G)Cross-bridges
H)Tropomyosin
I)Acetylcholine
Q2) In psychological muscle fatigue, an individual cannot contract his or her muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of muscle is responsible for peristalsis?
A) Multiunit smooth
B) Single-unit smooth
C) Cardiac
D) Striated
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Chapter 18: Nervous System Cells
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157 Verified Questions
157 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of the parasympathetic nervous system is commonly described as preparing the body for "fight or flight."
A)True
B)False
Q2) Has the capability of phagocytosis
A)Astrocyte
B)Oligodendrocyte
C)Microglia
D)Schwann cell
E)Ependymal cell
Q3) Small distinct regions of gray matter in the CNS are called:
A) nuclei.
B) tracts.
C) ganglia.
D) axons.
Q4) Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheaths around nerve fibers in the CNS.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
Q6) What is the major function of neurons?
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nerve Signaling
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119 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The depolarization of a neuron is caused by the influx of the positively charged sodium ion into the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q2) During the nerve impulse, the internal charge of the neuron becomes briefly positive.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential?
A) Action
B) Conduction
C) Polarized
D) Resting
Q4) Serotonin and histamine are both in the monoamine subclass of neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Define IPSP and EPSP.
Q6) Explain both temporal and spatial summation.
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Chapter 20: Central Nervous System
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245 Verified Questions
245 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What structure is the deepest groove in the cerebrum?
A) Central sulcus
B) Fissure of Rolando
C) Fissure of Sylvius
D) Longitudinal fissure
Q2) The two "colorful" structures in the brain, the red nucleus and the substantia nigra, are located in the midbrain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Besides protection, the cerebrospinal fluid helps regulate:
A) oxygen content of the body.
B) carbon dioxide content of the body.
C) pH of the body.
D) both B and C.
Q4) The deepest border of the subdural space is the arachnoid membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The infundibulum connects the hypothalamus and the pineal body.
A)True
B)False
22
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Chapter 21: Peripheral Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The largest nerve of the body, the sciatic nerve, has its source in the sacral plexus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain the difference between the Babinski reflex and the plantar reflex. What does a positive Babinski reflex in an adult indicate?
Q3) Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for movements of the tongue?
A) Olfactory
B) Trigeminal
C) Trochlear
D) Hypoglossal
Q4) A patient has a severe case of the hiccups. The physician injects an anesthetic solution into the neck about an inch above the clavicle. What nerve was injected, and what is the result?
Q5) The brachial plexus is the only plexus that contains a thoracic spinal nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain how the nerve plexuses make the nervous system more efficient.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: Autonomic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A sympathetic preganglionic neuron usually synapses with only one postganglionic neuron.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Visceral effectors are innervated by sympathetic fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Monoamine oxidase is an enzyme that enhances the action of norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The preganglionic neurons of both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic divisions are cholinergic.
A)True
B)False
Q5) If a nerve impulse is being sent to a gland, it will pass through two neurons. A)True
B)False
Q6) The autonomic nervous system includes only efferent neurons.
A)True
B)False
Page 24
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Chapter 23: General Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Proprioceptors in muscles and joints tend to adapt faster than other types of receptors.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The Ruffini corpuscle is an example of a bulboid corpuscle.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The terms Merkel disk and tactile meniscus refer to the same structure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Found only in the eye and responds to light
A)Chemoreceptors
B)Mechanoreceptors
C)Nociceptors
D)Photoreceptors
E)Thermoreceptors
Q5) Osmoreceptors monitor the concentration of glucose in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Differentiate between exteroceptors, visceroceptors, and proprioceptors.
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Chapter 24: Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Membrane that separates the scala tympani and the cochlear duct
A)Basilar membrane
B)Bony labyrinth
C)Cochlea
D)Cochlear duct
E)Endolymph
F)Membranous labyrinth
G)Organ of Corti
H)Perilymph
I)Scala tympani
J)Scala vestibule
K)Semicircular canals
L)Tectorial membrane
M)Vestibular membrane
N)Vestibule
Q2) Which of the following is not a structure of the middle ear?
A) Incus
B) Stapes
C) Auditory tube
D) Vestibule
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Endocrine Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cortisol
A)Steroid
B)Protein
C)Glycoprotein
D)Peptide
E)Amine
Q2) The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are neurotransmitters.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a description of hormone interaction explained in the text?
A) Suppression
B) Antagonism
C) Synergism
D) Permissiveness
Q4) Steroid hormones frequently travel in the bloodstream attached to soluble plasma proteins.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how cAMP acts as a second messenger for certain nonsteroid hormones.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: Endocrine Glands
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium-regulating hormone that is made in the thyroid gland
A)Thyroid hormone
B)Insulin
C)Human chorionic gonadotropin
D)Aldosterone
E)Calcitonin
F)Glucagon
G)Cortisol
H)Parathyroid hormone
Q2) The hormone that can be detected during the early part of a woman's pregnancy with an over-the-counter kit is hCG.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An abnormally high metabolic rate could be associated with the functioning of the:
A) thyroid gland.
B) parathyroid gland.
C) posterior pituitary.
D) thymus.
Q4) Explain how the renin-angiotensin mechanism operates to maintain blood pressure.
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Chapter 27: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of blood is to:
A) carry food to the cells.
B) remove waste from the cells.
C) assist the body in temperature regulation.
D) do all of the above.
Q2) Neutrophils contain granules that are able to release the anticoagulant heparin.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In general terms, explain the difference between the process of agglutination, when incompatible blood groups are mixed, and coagulation, the formation of a blood clot.
Q4) A person with a parasitic worm infection might have an increase in the number of eosinophils in the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name and give the function of the three blood-formed elements.
Q6) People with type O blood are considered universal donors because their blood has Rh antigen on the red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 28: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The period between the closure of the semilunar valve and the opening of the atrioventricular valves is called:
A) atrial systole.
B) isovolumetric ventricular contraction.
C) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation.
D) passive ventricular filling.
Q2) Which of the following would not cause an ectopic beat?
A) Bundle of His
B) Purkinje fibers
C) SA node
D) AV node
Q3) If today is your twenty-third birthday, your heart has been beating for more than 23 years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiac tamponade is a serious compression of the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q5) As compared with the body's own heart pacemaker, what is the major disadvantage of a mechanical pacemaker?
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Chapter 29: Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Umbilical arteries carry blood from the placenta to the fetus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A stenotic valve is a leaky valve.
A)True
B)False
Q3) One function of elastic fibers is to help maintain blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the various types of capillaries and the differences in the structure of their walls. Explain why capillaries are the most important of all the blood vessels.
Q5) Both the tunica media and the tunica adventitia are absent in:
A) arteries.
B) veins.
C) capillaries.
D) both B and C.
Q6) The descending aorta is composed of the thoracic and abdominal aortas.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Circulation of the Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a mechanism that increases blood volume and therefore venous return of blood to the heart?
A) Antidiuretic hormone
B) Aldosterone
C) Atrial natriuretic hormone
D) Renin-angiotensin mechanism
Q2) Which of the following is not a true statement about cardiac output?
A) It can be calculated by dividing the stroke volume by the heart rate.
B) It is the amount of blood that flows out of a ventricle per unit of time.
C) In can be computed by using Fick's Formula.
D) All of the above are true statements about cardiac output.
Q3) Diastolic pressure is the force of blood pushing against artery walls when the ventricles are contracting.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The effect of what substance is to increase the total blood volume?
A) ADH
B) ANH
C) Aldosterone
D) Both A and C
Page 32
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Chapter 31: Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Structure in the abdominal cavity that is the origin of the thoracic duct
A)Tonsils
B)Spleen
C)Lymph node
D)Cisterna chyli
E)Lymph
F)Thoracic duct
G)Thymus
H)Right lymphatic duct
I)Peyer patches
J)Hassall corpuscles
K)Interstitial fluid
Q2) Lymphatics have thicker walls than do veins.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Palatine tonsils are called adenoids when they become swollen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Compare and contrast the structures of veins and lymphatics.
Q5) Name and give the location of the major clusters of lymph nodes in the body.
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Chapter 32: Innate Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most numerous type of phagocyte is the:
A) neutrophil.
B) histocyte.
C) microglia.
D) Kupffer cell.
Q2) Tobacco mosaic virus can destroy tobacco plants. It has no effect on humans. This is an example of species resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called innate immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A macrophage can migrate out of the bloodstream.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytokines include leukotrienes, interferons, and histamine.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 33: Adaptive Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) T cell immune mechanisms are classified as antibody-mediated immunity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The second stage of B cell development usually takes place in the lymph nodes and spleen.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first vaccination provided immunity against the chickenpox virus.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chris has very bad allergies, especially in the springtime, and is seeking help to overcome her allergic reactions. Why would an antihistamine help Chris be more comfortable?
A) It would counter the effects of the self-antigen reaction.
B) It would replace the allergen with a different chemical and thus reduce her symptoms.
C) It would reduce the antigen-antibody reactions caused by the allergen.
D) It would reduce the amount of human leukocyte antigen in her system.
Q5) Explain the apparent basis for autoimmune diseases. Give two examples of such diseases.
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Chapter 34: Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not characteristic of the exhaustion stage of stress?
A) It occurs less frequently than the other stages.
B) It may develop over a long period of stress.
C) It decreases the body's ability to adapt.
D) The body's resistance eventually produces adaptation.
Q2) It is well accepted among physiologists that the higher the blood level of corticoids, the greater an individual's ability to resist stress.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Every individual responds somewhat differently to stress.
A)True
B)False
Q4) One of the components of the "stress triad" is hypertrophy of the lymphatic organs. A)True
B)False
Q5) The hypothalamus is sometimes referred to as the emotional brain. A)True B)False
Q6) List the changes that constitute Selye's stress triad.
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Chapter 35: Respiratory Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory portion of the nasal passage is lined with a mucous membrane made up of _____ epithelium.
A) stratified columnar
B) pseudostratified columnar
C) simple squamous
D) simple columnar
Q2) The first part of the bronchial tree that does not contain cartilage as part of its structure is the alveolar ducts.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Extends from the larynx in the neck to the primary bronchi; the windpipe
A)Alveoli
B)Primary bronchi
C)Secondary bronchi
D)Tertiary bronchi
E)Trachea
Q4) The diameter of the trachea is about 2.5 inches.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How does the structure of the trachea help it accomplish its function?
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Chapter 36: Ventilation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The expiratory center of the medulla seems to be inactive in normal, quiet breathing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) External respiration can be defined as:
A) the exchange of gases between the lung and the blood capillaries in the lung.
B) pulmonary ventilation.
C) the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells.
D) both A and B.
Q3) Standard atmospheric pressure is usually about 760 mm Hg.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A type of breathing characterized by gradually increasing tidal volume for several breaths followed by several breaths with gradually decreasing tidal volume is:
A) dyspnea.
B) apnea.
C) Biot breathing.
D) Cheyne-Stokes respiration.
Q5) Identify and describe four nonrespiratory breathing reflexes.
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Chapter 37: Gas Exchange & Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbon dioxide is carried in three forms in the blood. Ranking them from greatest to least amount carried, the sequence would be:
A) dissolved in the plasma, carbaminohemoglobin, and bicarbonate ion.
B) carbaminohemoglobin, bicarbonate ion, and dissolved in plasma.
C) bicarbonate ion, dissolved in plasma, and carbaminohemoglobin.
D) bicarbonate ion, carbaminohemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
Q2) One reason that carbon monoxide gas is so dangerous is that it attaches to hemoglobin more readily than does oxygen gas.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the lung as the partial pressure of oxygen of the blood goes up, the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air goes down proportionally.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Explain Dalton law as it relates to the movement of oxygen from the lungs into the circulatory system.
Q5) Briefly describe and diagram the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve.
Q6) Explain the process by which oxygen is transported by the blood.
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Chapter 38: Upper Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) During deglutition and speech, the only muscles of the tongue that contract are the intrinsic muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) lower part of the stomach that connects to the small intestine
A)Pharynx
B)Body of the stomach
C)Esophagus
D)Fundus of the stomach
E)Pylorus of the stomach
Q3) The pyloric sphincter is located in the fundus portion of the stomach.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following salivary glands produces only a mucus type of saliva?
A) Sublinguals
B) Parotids
C) Submandibulars
D) Both A and B
Q5) Name and give the location of the three major pairs of salivary glands. Describe the secretions of each gland.
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Chapter 39: Lower Digestive Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) The gallbladder can hold between 30 and 50 ml of bile.
B) The gallbladder lies on the undersurface of the liver.
C) The walls of the gallbladder have rugae similar to the ones found in the stomach wall.
D) The gallbladder empties bile into the stomach to assist in fat digestion.
Q2) Name and describe the reflections of the peritoneum.
Q3) Phagocytic cells lining liver sinusoids are called _____ cells.
A) chief
B) alpha
C) Kupffer
D) hepatic
Q4) In the wall of the large intestine, the longitudinal muscles are grouped into tape-like strips called taeniae coli.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The microbiome is a name for the normal community of bacteria that inhabit the colon.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 40: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Large amounts of cool, dilute, or isotonic fluids are best for replacing fluids quickly during exercise.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Most enzymes are able to work on more than one substance.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An end product of fat digestion is:
A) glycerol.
B) glucose.
C) glycogen.
D) galactose.
Q4) Segmentation is described as a wavelike muscle contraction in a hollow organ that moves food through the digestive system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Enzymes are usually defined as inorganic catalysts.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Explain the mechanism of absorption for water-soluble nutrients.
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Chapter 41: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) An increase of body temperature of 1 degree Celsius will necessitate an increase in metabolism of approximately:
A) 7%.
B) 11%.
C) 13%.
D) 15%.
Q2) All cells have basically the same metabolic rate.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Catabolism is a _____ process involving the _____ of energy.
A) synthesis; release
B) decomposition; release
C) synthesis; use
D) decomposition; use
Q4) Muscle cells are able to break down glycogen and release the resulting glucose back into the blood.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Distinguish between saturated and unsaturated fats.
Q6) Explain what is meant by oxidative phosphorylation.
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Chapter 42: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The proximal tubule is called "proximal" because it is nearest to Bowman capsule.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Glomerular osmotic pressure and capsular osmotic pressure are equally important in determining the GFR.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In the average bladder, what amount of urine would cause a moderately distended sensation and the desire to void?
A) 250 ml
B) 100 ml
C) 600 ml
D) 150 ml
Q4) Penicillin can be cleared from the blood by tubular secretion.
A)True
B)False
Q5) ANH reinforces and adds to the effect of aldosterone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 43: Fluid and Electrolyte Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) When compared chemically, interstitial fluid and intercellular fluid are almost identical.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The principle of fluid balance states that fluid intake normally equals fluid output.
A)True
B)False
Q3) If a person takes nothing by mouth for several days, fluid output decreases to zero to compensate and maintain homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) If two electrodes charged with a weak current were placed in a solution of NaCl, the positive electrode would attract:
A) cations.
B) sodium ions.
C) chloride ions.
D) Both A and B are correct.
Q5) What are anions? What are cations? Give examples of each.
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Chapter 44: Acid Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pH of the blood is maintained at approximately:
A) 7.1.
B) 7.2.
C) 7.3.
D) 7.4.
Q2) In clinical medicine, acidosis can occur when the arterial blood is still basic.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The compensatory mechanisms that respond to acidosis may lead to hyperkalemia and cause heart blockage or death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A change in pH damages an enzyme's ability to function because it changes the shape of the enzyme.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Stomach acid is the most alkaline substance in the body.
A)True B)False
Q6) Describe the respiratory compensation for a change in blood pH.
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Chapter 45: Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) One function of an epididymis is to serve as a maturation area for sperm.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The corpus spongiosum of the penis contains the male urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Explain what is meant by "immune infertility."
Q4) If the anabolic steroid testosterone is taken at a young age, the epiphyses of the bones will continue to grow and the person will grow taller.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which statement is the best explanation of "immune infertility"?
A) The sperm contains hyaluronidase and other hydrolytic enzymes that destroy the female ovum.
B) Once the egg and the sperm join, an antigen-antibody reaction occurs, which kills the sperm.
C) An allergy to the female egg results in female infertility.
D) Antigen-antibody reaction in males causes destruction of sperm, resulting in infertility.
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Chapter 46: Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The accessory organs of the female reproductive system include the uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, and vulva. The uterine tubes and uterus are considered the internal genitals and the vagina and vulva are considered the external genitals.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A clump of granulosa cells called cumulus cells attach the oocyte to the follicle when it is surrounded by fluid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The female reproductive system differs from the male reproductive system in that it: A) produces gametes.
B) provides protection for the developing offspring. C) provides nutrition to the developing offspring. D) does both B and C.
Q4) Each breast has 5 to 10 lactiferous ducts. A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the process of lactation is regulated.
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Chapter 47: Growth and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stan and Dan are twins. Stan suffers from kidney disease. The physicians said Stan can receive Dan's kidney with very little chance of rejection. Explain why.
Q2) The meiotic division differs from the mitotic division in that in the mitotic division, the number of chromosomes is reduced by half.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An imperforate hymen may prevent the escape of menstrual flow from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Breast size basically determines the functional ability of the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the female, meiotic division of the egg cell begins before birth and is not completed until fertilization.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Compare and contrast the two different processes that can result in twinning.
Q7) Compare and contrast spermatogenesis and oogenesis.
Page 49
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Chapter 48: Genetics and Heredity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genes that have effects that always appears in the offspring
A)Recessive
B)Codominance
C)Monosomy
D)Autosome
E)Karyotype
F)Sex-linked trait
G)Dominant
H)Trisomy
I)Punnett square
J)Genome
K)Sex chromosome
L)Heterozygous
M)Homozygous
N)Genetics
Q2) Osteogenesis imperfecta is a dominant genetic disorder of connective tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Define the term congenital disorder. Are these disorders always inherited? Explain.
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