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Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the study, research, and application of knowledge to improve individual and community health. The course covers the biological, psychological, and social aspects of health and disease, exploring topics such as human anatomy and physiology, public health, epidemiology, healthcare systems, prevention strategies, and health policy. Students will develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills while learning about health promotion, disease prevention, and the impact of healthcare practices on diverse populations. This foundational course prepares students for advanced study or careers in healthcare, research, and health administration.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Q1) List the characteristics that are common to all living organisms.
Answer: Organisms are organizeD They have the ability to acquire materials and energy.They can reproduce and grow.Organisms have an evolutionary history.
Q2) All of the ecosystems on the planet together are called the
A) atmosphere.
B) hydrosphere.
C) biosphere.
D) lithosphere.
E) stratosphere.
Answer: C
Q3) Humans clear forests to grow crops,and they build houses and cities.What are these an example of?
A) how humans modify the biosphere
B) how humans preserve ecosystems
C) the high value humans place on biodiversity
D) the positive impact of humans on life on Earth
E) how humans do not need the rest of life on Earth
Answer: A
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Q1) Starch,cellulose,and glycogen are alike in that they
A) are all made of glucose.
B) contain the same number of side chains.
C) have the same types of bonds between the monomer units.
D) are all found in animals.
E) can all be digested by our bodies.
Answer: A
Q2) When two amino acids combine via a dehydration reaction, A) a peptide bond is formed.
B) the R groups are lost.
C) water is added to begin the reaction.
D) the carboxyl group of each join together.
E) the amino group of each join together.
Answer: A
Q3) After lunch,our digestive system will use the process of hydrolysis to break the food down into smaller subunits.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Q1) In the sodium-potassium pump,sodium and potassium are both pumped out of the cell via active transport.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Centrosomes are associated with
A) ribosomes.
B) mitochondria.
C) chromosomes.
D) microtubules.
E) lysosomes.
Answer: D
Q3) Which of the following does not utilize active transport?
A) movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood
B) concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland
C) absorbing sugar in the gut
D) water homeostasis in the kidneys
E) movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells
Answer: A
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Q1) Lymph contains no cells.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Gynecologists perform regular Pap smears for women.This procedure is important for early diagnosis and prevention of what type of cancer?
A) breast cancer
B) colon cancer
C) cervical cancer
D) pancreatic cancer
E) liver cancer
Q3) Which of the following cells have the greatest probability of developing into cancer?
A) brain cells
B) neurons
C) epithelial cells
D) muscle cells
E) liver cells
Q4) List the functions of and the organs associated with the urinary system.
Q5) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
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Q1) What is the bursting of a blood vessel called?
A) embolus
B) aneurysm
C) thrombus
D) myocardial infarction
E) stroke
Q2) Lisa receives a dose of epinephrine.What does this do to her heart rate?
A) increases it
B) decreases it
C) stops it
D) does not alter it
E) makes it skip every other beat
Q3) Compare the structure and function of arteries to that of veins.
Q4) What structure within a capillary bed controls shunting of blood from the arteriole to the venule?
A) precapillary valve
B) endothelium
C) precapillary sphincter
D) pericardium
E) shunt valve
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Q1) Agglutination refers to the
A) production of antibodies.
B) destruction of red blood cells.
C) development of platelets.
D) production of lymphocytes.
E) clumping of red blood cells.
Q2) Which of the following is not a characteristic of infectious mononucleosis?
A) It is caused by an Epstein-Barr virus.
B) Symptoms include fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph glands.
C) There is uncontrolled white blood cell proliferation.
D) Active EBV can be passed in saliva.
E) The virus remains within a person's body for the rest of his or her life.
Q3) With respect to antigens and antibodies,what do type O negative and type AB positive blood have in common?
A) A and B antigens, no antibodies
B) A antigens, anti-B antibodies
C) B antigens, no antibodies
D) no antibodies
E) nothing
Q4) List and describe the functions of blood in the human body.
Page 8
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Q1) Which of the following is not a lymphatic organ?
A) spleen
B) tonsil
C) thymus
D) liver
E) red bone marrow
Q2) Explain the presence and function of the IgA class of antibodies.
Q3) The reason the complement system is called that is because it
A) is part of the inflammatory response.
B) helps other immune responses.
C) involves chemical barriers to entry.
D) produces T and B cells.
E) is composed of normal flora.
Q4) An allergic response is an overreaction of the immune system.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Cytokines assist in regulating white blood cell formation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List and describe the body's innate defenses.
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Q1) In the "kitchen-sink model" for CD4 T-cell loss,what does the sink's drain represent?
A) the destruction of CD4 T cells by the virus
B) the production of new CD4 T cells
C) the amplification of the virus in the blood
D) the destruction of the virus by the immune system
E) the wide variety of possible opportunistic infections
Q2) Which of the following is an unwise use of antibiotics?
A) discontinuing antibiotics when you feel better
B) not taking antibiotics for a viral infection
C) not saving unused antibiotics
D) not skipping doses of antibiotics
E) taking antibiotics only to treat the infection for which they were prescribed
Q3) SARS is thought to have arisen in China due to the consumption of civets.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The use of antibiotics does not cause antibiotic resistance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The small intestine is longer than the large intestine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not found in/on the tongue?
A) muscle
B) dentin
C) taste buds
D) mucous membrane
E) sensory receptors
Q3) Which of the following is not associated with the small intestine?
A) many villi
B) gastric pits
C) brush border enzymes
D) lacteals
E) bile and lipase
Q4) Explain the process of swallowing.
Q5) The gallbladder produces bile.
A)True
B)False
Q6) List the functions of the liver.

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Q1) If it were not for the nasal cavity,
A) people would not be able to speak.
B) more debris would enter the lungs.
C) oxygen would not be exchanged in the alveoli.
D) food would go down the wrong tube.
E) air would not be conducted to the lungs.
Q2) The right lung is larger than the left lung.
A)True
B)False
Q3) How does the respiratory center control the diaphragm?
A) via the blood carbon dioxide level
B) via the blood pH
C) via the intercostal nerves
D) via the phrenic nerve
E) via the vagus nerve
Q4) The role of the respiratory system is to ensure that oxygen leaves the body and carbon dioxide enters the body.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
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Sample Questions
Q1) What hormones regulate the reabsorption of sodium and water in the distal convoluted tubule?
A) creatinine and renin
B) renin and aquaporin
C) aquaporin and aldosterone
D) aldosterone and renin
E) creatinine and aldosterone
Q2) Which of the following does not assist the kidneys in excretion of nitrogenous wastes?
A) liver
B) sweat glands
C) muscles
D) blood
E) pancreas
Q3) Tubular reabsorption requires both passive and active modes of reabsorption.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Approximately 99% of the water that is filtered in the glomerulus is reabsorbed.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
A) clavicle
B) hyoid
C) temporal
D) rib
E) vertebrae
Q2) Describe the steps involved in bone growth by endochondral ossification.
Q3) There are phalanges in both the lower limbs and upper limbs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back and the sternum in the front.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the three types of cartilage found in the body and indicate a function for each.
Q6) The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone.
A)True
B)False
Q7) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.
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Q1) Of the three types of muscle tissue,which has multinucleated fibers?
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) both smooth and skeletal muscles
E) both cardiac and smooth muscles
Q2) What supplies the energy for muscle contraction?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) tropomyosin
D) ATP
E) Ca<sup>2+</sup>
Q3) Fibromyalgia is a temporary condition of achy muscles,usually due to overuse.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Jillian is a top-level cross-country runner due to her having predominantly slow-twitch muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system?
A) receive sensory input
B) cushion and protect soft tissue
C) perform information processing
D) perform integration
E) generate motor output
Q2) When a neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft,the response of the receiving neuron will be toward excitation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What is the summing up of the excitatory and inhibitory signals by a neuron called?
A) integration
B) addition
C) polarization
D) depolarization
E) firing
Q4) The brain stem contains the midbrain,the pons,and the medulla oblongata.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The brain receives input from the proprioceptors,the eyes,and the vestibular nerve to help maintain our equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Cold receptors are free nerve endings while Merkel disks are the receptors for warmth.
A)True B)False
Q3) Golgi tendon organs are a type of cutaneous receptor for touch.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Nearsighted people cannot see objects that are close.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Which of the following cutaneous receptors is mismatched with its function?
A) Pacinian corpuscles, fine touch
B) Meissner corpuscles, fine touch
C) Krause end bulbs, fine touch
D) Ruffini endings, pressure
E) free nerve endings, temperature

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Sample Questions
Q1) Although other animals produce pheromones,humans have not been shown to make them.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following hormones is not produced by the anterior pituitary?
A) prolactin
B) growth hormone
C) thyroid stimulating hormone
D) adrenocorticotropic hormone
E) oxytocin
Q3) Parathyroid hormone also activates ________ in the kidneys.
A) vitamin D
B) vitamin C
C) vitamin B
D) cholesterol
E) calcium
Q4) The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The placenta,which sustains the developing embryo and fetus,originates only from maternal tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following forms of birth control is a small piece of molded plastic that does not allow the fertilized embryo to implant?
A) diaphragm
B) cervical cap
C) intrauterine device
D) cervical shield
E) female condom
Q3) How many chromosomes does a human sperm contain?
A) 1
B) 23
C) 24
D) 46
E) 48
Q4) The pH of the vagina is basic because that is the pH sperm prefer.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Describe the steps of fertilizing an egg cell.
Q2) Summarize the events that occur during each stage of birth.
Q3) Development ceases at birth.
A)True
B)False
Q4) When does the heart begin to develop?
A) week 1
B) week 3
C) week 5
D) week 7
E) week 9
Q5) Where are the mitochondria located in the sperm?
A) tail
B) middle piece
C) head
D) nucleus
E) cell membrane
Q6) Estrogen is responsible for the onset and continuation of labor.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) If you are looking at a cell in which 2n = 16,and there appear to be 8 structures lined up at the metaphase plate,then you are looking at
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis.
C) interphase.
D) G<sub>2</sub>.
E) G<sub>1</sub>.
Q2) If a cell has four pairs of chromosomes,after mitosis each daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Q3) If an organism does not undergo meiosis,then it cannot undergo sexual reproduction.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.
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Q1) Which of the following is not a type of proto-oncogene?
A) the gene for cyclin D
B) growth factor receptor genes
C) the gene that codes for Ras proteins
D) growth factor genes
E) the gene for p53
Q2) Currently most cancers are diagnosed before metastasis.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Contact inhibition means that
A) there are more chromosomes within the nucleus than there should be.
B) cells are able to divide without the presence of stimulatory growth factors.
C) cells only divide a certain specified number of times and then quit.
D) when cells come in contact with a neighbor, they stop dividing.
E) cells have gained the ability to invade lymphatic and blood vessels.
Q4) A benign tumor is not dangerous because it cannot metastasize.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
Q6) Explain what CAUTION means as the acronym for the warning signs of cancer.
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Q1) How is familial hypercholesterolemia inherited?
A) autosomal recessive
B) autosomal dominant
C) incompletely dominant
D) codominant
E) sex-linked dominant
Q2) In a cross of a homozygous dominant parent and a homozygous recessive parent,what is the ratio of offspring that will exhibit the recessive phenotype?
A) 0.
B) 1/4.
C) 1/2.
D) 3/4.
E) 1.
Q3) A male inherits his X-linked allele from his mother.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Can two parents that have a genetic disorder ever have a normal child?
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe the term "polygenic traits."
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Q1) Which of the following is the monomer unit of DNA?
A) amino acids
B) fatty acids
C) nucleotides
D) carbohydrate rings
E) steroid rings
Q2) In what way are DNA and RNA similar?
A)Both contain C,A,and G.
B)Both contain deoxyribose.
C)Both contain U,C,and G.
D)Both are single stranded.
E)Both form a double helix.
Q3) Which of the following is not a type of small RNA?
A) snoRNAs
B) tRNA
C) snRNAs
D) miRNAs
E) siRNAs
Q4) What are the three things DNA must be able to do in order to serve as the genetic material?
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Q1) List and describe the development of anatomical features that occurred during primate evolution.
Q2) According to the out-of-Africa hypothesis,when did Homo sapiens migrate to Europe and Asia?
A) 1000 years before present
B) 10,000 years before present
C) 100,000 years before present
D) 1 million years before present
E) 5 million years before present
Q3) The first australopithecine fossils were unearthed in A) Europe.
B) North America.
C) South America.
D) Asia.
E) Southern Africa.
Q4) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck's process of acquired characteristics would support the idea that if you run marathons and develop very strong leg muscles,your children would be born with very strong leg muscles.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) What is the advantage of constructing an ecological pyramid based on biomass?
A) Aquatic ecosystem pyramids actually look like pyramids.
B) Size of the various organisms is eliminated as a factor.
C) This includes the detrital food web as well as the grazing food web in one pyramid.
D) This takes into account nutrient cycling as well as energy flow.
E) This eliminates the need to include producers in the pyramid.
Q2) What is the primary source of carbon for aquatic algae?
A) calcium carbonate
B) calcium chloride
C) bicarbonate
D) carbon dioxide
E) carbon monoxide
Q3) What two characteristics define a biome?
A) temperature and the types of plants found there
B) amount of precipitation and the types of plants found there
C) temperature and rainfall
D) latitude and rainfall
E) altitude and temperature
Q4) List and explain the six steps in the hydrological cycle.
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Q1) Most of the fresh water in the world is used for
A) drinking.
B) bathing.
C) irrigation.
D) watering lawns.
E) industrial needs.
Q2) Fish are considered a nonrenewable resource.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint?
A) drive an energy-efficient car
B) eat more beef
C) live in a smaller home
D) turn down the thermostat in the winter
E) refrain from watering the lawn
Q4) The soil in the tropics is very rich and fertile and makes excellent land for agriculture.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
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