Health Sciences Microbiology Exam
Review
Course Introduction
Health Sciences Microbiology introduces students to the fundamental principles of microbiology with a focus on organisms and processes relevant to human health. The course covers the structure, function, classification, and growth of bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites, as well as the ways these microbes interact with the human body. Students will explore mechanisms of disease, host immune responses, epidemiology, and methods for identifying, preventing, and treating infections. Emphasis is placed on the application of microbiological concepts in clinical, public health, and laboratory settings, preparing students for further study or careers in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook Microbiology with Diseases by Body System 5th Edition by Robert W. Bauman
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Chapter 1: A Brief History of Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following types of microbe was NOT observed by Leeuwenhoek?
A) fungus
B) protozoan
C) prokaryote
D) alga
E) virus
Answer: E
Q2) The technique developed by Hans Christian Gram is important for bacterial
A) etiology.
B) identification.
C) classification.
D) isolation.
E) epidemiology.
Answer: B
Q3) Joseph Lister reduced the incidence of wound infections in health care settings by using chlorinated lime water.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of phospholipids?
A) they are found in cellular membranes.
B) they can form micelles and bilayers.
C) they contain fatty acids that associate with water.
D) they contain a hydrophilic phosphate "head."
E) they contain two fatty acids and a phosphate functional group.
Answer: C
Q2) The number of ________ of an element determines its atomic number.
A) protons
B) neutrons
C) electrons
D) valence electrons
E) isotopes
Answer: A
Q3) A(n) (nonpolar/polar/ionic/hydrogen) bond is one in which electrons are shared equally between atoms.
Answer: nonpolar
Q4) The folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape is its (secondary/tertiary/quaternary) structure.
Answer: tertiary
4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cytoplasmic membranes of ________ are composed of unbranched phospholipids.
A) bacteria
B) eukaryotes
C) archaea
D) prokaryotes
E) bacteria and eukaryotes
Answer: E
Q2) Describe how the structure of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane relates to its function of selective permeability.
Answer: The structure and function of the cytoplasmic membrane are explained in the fluid mosaic model.The cytoplasmic membranes of bacterial cells are composed of phospholipids, which create a semipermeable barrier to the cell's outer environment.The only molecules that can easily cross the membrane are small, lipid soluble molecules.Other types of molecules must use the wide variety of transport proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer to cross the membrane.In this way, the cell can control the concentration of both its nutrients and its waste products.The cytoplasmic membrane can also be used for energy production and for photosynthesis in prokaryotic cells.
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Microscopy, Staining, and Classification
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Q1) A primary purpose for the use of stains in microscopy is to increase the (magnification/brightness/contrast) of a specimen.
Q2) Carbolfuchsin is the ________ in the acid-fast stain.
A) primary stain
B) mordant
C) decolorizer
D) counterstain
E) fixing reagent
Q3) A measurement of a microbe is reported as 1 × 10 m, also known as A) centimeters (cm).
B) millimeters (mm).
C) micrometers ( m).
D) nanometers (nm).
E) yards.
Q4) Viruses are generally measured in A) nanometers.
B) millimeters.
C) micrometers.
D) centimeters.
E) decimeters.
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Chapter 5: Microbial Metabolism
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Q1) The reactions of photosynthesis take place in the ________ of prokaryotes.
A) thylakoids
B) cytoplasm
C) nucleoid
D) cristae
E) outer membrane
Q2) Chemical reactions that can proceed toward either anabolism or catabolism are called
A) glycolytic.
B) light-independent.
C) synthetic.
D) cyclic.
E) amphibolic.
Q3) Anaerobic respiration involves the use of molecules other than oxygen as the final electron (acceptor/donor) in an electron transport chain.
Q4) Only Photosystem I is required for (anoxygenic/cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation to occur.
Q5) The amount of energy required for a reaction to occur is its activation energy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: Microbial Nutrition and Growth
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Q1) A 0.1 ml sample of a log phase culture contains 10,000 bacterial cells/ml. It is added to 9.9 ml of fresh culture medium broth. Assume a generation time of 30 minutes, and no limiting nutrients. How many bacteria will be present in the entire broth culture after five hours?
A) 3.2 × 10
B) 5.0 × 10
C) 1.02 × 10
D) 6.0 × 10
E) 2.56 × 10
Q2) A ________ is used in industrial microbiology to produce microbial products that are only synthesized during log phase growth.
A) Coulter counter
B) broth culture
C) spectrophotometer
D) pour plate
E) chemostat
Q3) The preferred method for long term storage of bacteria is (freezing/refrigeration/lyophilization).
Q4) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).
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Chapter 7: Microbial Genetics
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Q1) A bacterial genome is typically
A) a single linear piece of DNA.
B) multiple linear pieces of DNA.
C) a linear RNA molecule.
D) a single circular DNA molecule.
E) multiple circular DNA molecules.
Q2) Which of the following processes occurs in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?
A) DNA replication
B) capping
C) transcription
D) translation
E) gene regulation
Q3) Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers?
A) nucleotide analogs
B) nitrous acid
C) ultraviolet light
D) benzopyrene
E) gamma rays
Q4) The (leading/lagging/replicating) strand is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA replication.
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Chapter 8: Recombinant DNA Technology
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Q1) The technique called (northern/Southern/western) blotting is useful for using probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis.
Q2) The human microbiome is very uniform across the entire species Homo sapiens in all geographic locations.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene is A) gene therapy.
B) genomics.
C) gene cloning.
D) gene mapping.
E) gene selection.
Q4) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because they A) are acellular.
B) are administered in food.
C) do not pose a risk for causing the disease.
D) are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease.
E) are acellular and can be administered in food.
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Chapter 9: Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment
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Q1) An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n)
A) high-level germicide.
B) low-level germicide.
C) intermediate-level germicide.
D) degerming agent only.
E) germistatic agent only.
Q2) Alcohols are used for A) disinfection.
B) sterilization.
C) antisepsis.
D) both sterilization and disinfection.
E) both antisepsis and disinfection.
Q3) Formalin (37% formaldehyde) is used for A) antisepsis.
B) disinfection.
C) sterilization.
D) sanitization.
E) both disinfection and sterilization.
Q4) The microbial death rate is (constant/nonlinear/variable) over time.
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Chapter 10:Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs
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Q1) Semisynthetic drugs developed to combat resistance are often called (analog/second generation/synergist) drugs.
Q2) Which of the following tests does NOT provide information on the lowest concentration of drug effective on a pathogen?
A) Etest
B) diffusion susceptibility test
C) broth dilution test
D) both the Etest and diffusion susceptibility test
E) MBC test
Q3) Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Biofilms contribute to the spread of resistance to antimicrobials.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the concept of selective toxicity.
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Q6) Why can microbial resistance to antibiotics and other drugs be considered a primarily genetic phenomenon?
Chapter 11: Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes
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Q1) A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of A) tuberculosis.
B) urinary tract infections.
C) contaminated milk and meat.
D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.
E) food poisoning from rice.
Q2) Cocci can be spherical as well as kidney-shaped.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The domain Archaea includes prokaryotes that are A) endospore formers.
B) intracellular parasites.
C) members of the deeply branching bacteria.
D) human pathogens.
E) hyperthermophiles.
Q4) Burkholderia is a common (true/opportunistic) pathogen of patients with cystic fibrosis.
Q5) Random planes of division in cocci result in an arrangement known as (sarcinae/staphylo/strepto).
Q6) Explain the significance of endospores.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes
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Q1) Protozoa that move and feed by the use of broad pseudopods are called (amoebozoa/apicomplexa/rhizaria).
Q2) Some fungi postpone cytokinesis, producing A) coenocytes.
B) cysts.
C) merozoites.
D) schizonts.
E) trophozoites.
Q3) Sexual reproduction in multicellular Ascomycota leads to the production of A) asci.
B) basidia.
C) conidia.
D) sporangia
E) zygotes.
Q4) The fusion of two gametes produces a A) zygote.
B) schizont.
C) chromatid.
D) centromere.
E) merozoite.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions
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Q1) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the laboratory and begins to analyze it. What features will help her determine the virus' classification? How does this help her understand the virus' mechanism for causing cancer?
Q2) Continuous cell cultures are developed from (embryonic/haploid/neoplastic) cells.
Q3) Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Seven (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses.
Q5) A viral infection which does not result in the production of new virions is ________ infection(s).
A) a lytic
B) a latent
C) a persistent
D) a lysogenic
E) either latent or lysogenic
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Chapter 14: Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a sign of disease?
A) headache
B) dizziness
C) fever
D) nausea
E) cramps
Q2) The bacterium that causes tuberculosis can be expelled from the lungs by a cough and remain viable in the air for an hour or more. If a person inhales the bacteria from the air, what type of transmission has occurred?
A) indirect contact
B) airborne
C) waterborne
D) foodborne
E) bodily fluid
Q3) The degree to which a microbe is able to cause disease is known as its (morbidity/virulence/toxicity).
Q4) A patient has an upper GI endoscopic procedure and later develops a severe (endogenous/iatrogenic/secondary) infection with the Gram-negative pathogen known as CRE.
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Chapter 15: Innate Immunity
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Q1) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is false?
A) It has sebum as a coating.
B) It has normal microbiota.
C) It has goblet cells.
D) It is salty.
E) It is acidic.
Q3) How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation?
A) it acts as an antiprostaglandin.
B) it is an antitoxoid for most microbial toxins.
C) it prevents complement activation.
D) it interferes with the action of interferons.
E) it blocks the release of histamine.
Q4) Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process.
Q5) Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever.
Page 17
Q6) What are macrophages, and what are their functions?
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Chapter 16: Adaptive Immunity
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Q1) A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?
A) the child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.
B) the child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
C) the child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
D) the child has neither influenza nor RSV.
E) the results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.
Q2) You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the
A) appendix.
B) lymph nodes of the groin.
C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).
D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).
E) spleen.
Q3) What are the steps involved in B cell activation?
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Immunization and Immune Testing
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Q1) Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Infection with HIV is routinely verified using a(n) ________ assay.
A) direct fluorescent antibody
B) immunodiffusion precipitation
C) viral neutralization
D) viral hemagglutination inhibition
E) immunoblot
Q3) Large quantities of pure antigen produced using recombinant DNA technology can be used to prepare ________ vaccines.
A) attenuated
B) inactived whole
C) toxoid
D) subunit
E) DNA
Q4) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).
Q5) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Immune Disorders
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Q1) Transfusion reactions are the result of antibody reaction to A) glycolipids and glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells.
B) MHC molecules on red blood cells.
C) MHC molecules on white blood cells.
D) plasma proteins.
E) foreign antibodies.
Q2) If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Chronic granulomatous disease is a disorder of the (first/second/third) line of immune defense.
Q5) The effectiveness of ART is determined by (ELISA/IFA/PCR) testing.
Q6) MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease.
A)True
B)False
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Microbial Diseases of the Skin and Wounds
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Q1) Chickenpox and (herpes/shingles/warts) are caused by the same virus.
Q2) Localized swelling of a scratch accompanied by fever, malaise, and swollen lymph nodes may result from infection with A) Rickettsia rickettsii.
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
D) Bartonella henselae.
E) Microsporum canis.
Q3) The rash described as "teardrops on rose petals" is characteristic of A) anthrax.
B) chickenpox.
C) herpes.
D) smallpox.
E) warts.
Q4) Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common microbe associated with infections of (burn/immunocompromised/elderly) patients.
Q5) Explain why Pseudomonas aeruginosa is described as a "medical puzzle."
Q6) Infection with (Sporothrix/Staphylococcus/Streptococcus) may result in disease known as scalded skin syndrome.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Microbial Diseases of the Nervous System and Eyes
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Q1) The Gram-negative diplococcus ________ is resistant to phagocytosis and releases Lipid A to cause inflammation.
A) Clostridium botulinum
B) Haemophilus influenza
C) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Neisseria meningitidis
E) Listeria monocytogenes
Q2) Which of the following is classified as a spongiform encephalopathy?
A) botulism
B) variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C) Hansen's disease
D) arboviral encephalitis
E) African sleeping sickness
Q3) Infant botulism is the result of (inhalation/ingestion/inoculation) of bacterial endospores.
Q4) Rabies is a rare zoonosis in humans but common in many other species of mammal.
A)True
B)False
Q6) West Nile virus is transmitted by (food/mosquitoes/water). Page 22
Q5) The normal habitat for Naegleria is (birds/mammals/water).
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Page 23
Chapter 21: Microbial Cardiovascular and Systemic Diseases
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Q1) The release of bacterial toxins into the blood leads to (bacteremia/septicemia/toxemia).
Q2) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a complication resulting from the A) release of cytotoxins.
B) triggering of the complement system.
C) attachment of bacterial cells to the endocardium.
D) release of heme from damaged RBCs.
E) release of lipid A from dying Gram-negative bacteria.
Q3) The chief diagnostic sign of brucellosis is A) petechiae.
B) jaundice.
C) "bull's eye" rash.
D) fever which recurs at 24 hour intervals.
E) fever which cycles every 72 hours.
Q4) Plasmodium (gametocytes/merozoites/sporozoites) reproduce by schizogony in humans.
Q5) Anaplasma primarily infects (erythrocytes/monocytes/neutrophils).
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Q6) Compare and contrast dengue hemorrhagic fever and Ebola hemorrhagic fever. Discuss both the pathogens and the pathology.
Chapter 22: Microbial Diseases of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome can be transmitted from person-to-person and from rodents to humans.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Legionella pneumophila is an opportunistic pathogen that
A) is part of the microbiome of the lower respiratory system.
B) is part of the microbiota of the nasal cavity which occasionally invades the lungs.
C) survives in the environment as an intracellular parasite of a protozoan.
D) is capable of forming endospores.
E) is a disease of birds transmissible to humans.
Q3) Otitis media is more common in adults than children because of differences in the anatomy of the head.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Why is immunity to the common cold so difficult to develop, either naturally or through vaccines?
Q5) The attachment protein for almost all rhinoviruses is (BCG/ICAM-1/IgA). (Be sure your answer is in uppercase letters.)
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Chapter 23: Microbial Diseases of the Digestive System
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Q1) The viruses responsible for the majority of infant deaths resulting from diarrhea in the world are the
A) noroviruses.
B) rotaviruses.
C) caliciviruses.
D) astroviruses.
E) hepaciviruses.
Q2) Peritonitis may develop in severe cases of A) giardiasis.
B) hepatitis.
C) pinworm infestation.
D) typhoid.
E) peptic ulcer disease.
Q3) The (liver/pancreas/villus) is the accessory organ responsible for producing digestive enzymes active in the small intestine.
Q4) Helicobacter pylori colonizes the (mouth/liver/stomach/intestine) and can cause severe inflammation and tissue erosion.
Q5) The accumulation of plaque can lead to the development of (abscesses/caries/ulcers) in the mouth.
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Chapter 24: Microbial Diseases of the Urinary and Reproductive Systems
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Q1) Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding the incidence of STDs?
A) Bacterial STDs are declining worldwide as a result of the ready availability of antibiotics.
B) The incidence of STDs is known with a high degree of accuracy.
C) Viruses transmitted by sexual contact are not widespread.
D) Viral STDs in the U.S. are considered epidemic.
E) The incidence of most STDs could be reduced by vaccination.
Q2) Some strains of the virus responsible for genital warts can cause the development of A) tertiary syphilis.
B) cervical cancer.
C) trichomoniasis.
D) genital herpes.
E) vaginosis.
Q3) A young woman is brought to the ER who is running a high fever and is confused about where she is. She also has an extensive red rash. She begins vomiting, and her blood pressure drops. The ER staff determine she is menstruating. What is the likely diagnosis?
Q4) Because the (ductus/urethra/ureter) is shorter in females than in males, it can be a portal of entry for pathogens.
Page 27
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Chapter 25: Applied and Industrial Microbiology
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Q1) Which of the following additives help preserve food as well as enhancing flavor?
A) cinnamon
B) garlic
C) salt
D) salt and pepper
E) cinnamon, garlic, and salt
Q2) Most microbes need an environment that has a water activity of at least 0.90.
A)True
B)False
Q3) In modern times beer and wine are considered recreational beverages. In the past they were important staples in the human diet, so much so that their consumption is often remarked upon in historical documents. Why were they so important?
Q4) With the (batch/continuous/static) production technique, organisms are allowed to ferment their substrate until it is exhausted.
Q5) Pasteurization is a more rigorous process than canning.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The protozoan parasite (Gonyaulax/Toxoplasma gondii/Vibrio vulnificus) is acquired by eating contaminated meat.
Page 28
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Chapter 26: Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes
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Q1) The dengue and Ebola viruses cause hemorrhagic fevers. Evaluate their threat levels as select agents using the criteria in the textbook, and decide whether they pose significant risk as biological weapons.
Q2) Members of a guild are metabolically related to each other.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Where does the bulk of biogeochemical cycling occur?
A) in the air
B) in soil
C) in water
D) in the benthic zone
E) in both air and water
Q4) A microbiome is composed of
A) biospheres.
B) microhabitats.
C) ecosystems.
D) populations
E) sets of guilds.
Q5) Some microbes can (dissimilate/oxidize/reduce) hydrogen sulfide to elemental sulfur.
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