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Health Sciences Foundations introduces students to the core principles and essential knowledge necessary for further study and careers in health-related fields. This course covers foundational topics such as the basic structure and function of the human body, principles of health promotion, disease prevention, and the organization of healthcare systems. Students will explore medical terminology, ethical and legal issues in healthcare, and the roles and responsibilities of various health professionals. Through a combination of theoretical understanding and practical skills, the course aims to equip students with the critical thinking, communication, and teamwork abilities required in the modern health sciences environment.
Recommended Textbook
The Human Body in Health and Illness 3rd Edition by Barbara L. Herlihy
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27 Chapters
1314 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which organ is located in the ventral cavity,but not in the thoracic cavity?
A) lung
B) heart
C) liver
D) brain
Answer: C
Q2) In which cavity is the heart not located?
A) mediastinum
B) thoracic cavity
C) ventral cavity
D) dorsal cavity
Answer: D
Q3) Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body?
A) popliteal
B) umbilical
C) lumbar
D) occipital
Answer: B
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Q1) Which of the following represents bicarbonate,an anion that is important in acid-base regulation?
A) HCl
B) CaCO<sub>3</sub>
C) HCO-<sub>3</sub>
D) KCl
Answer: C
Q2) Iron is a(n)
A) anion.
B) electrolyte.
C) acid.
D) cation.
Answer: D
Q3) Which element must be present for a substance to be classified as organic?
A) iodine
B) iron
C) carbon
D) calcium
Answer: C
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Q1) These hairlike structures are located on the outer surface of the cell membrane.
A) mitochondria
B) ribosomes
C) cilia
D) centrioles
Answer: C
Q2) Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion?
A) ATP-driven
B) passive transport
C) requires a pressure or pushing force
D) causes a solute to move uphill
Answer: B
Q3) Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome?
A) differentiation
B) phagocytosis
C) meiosis
D) hemolysis
Answer: B
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Q1) Adenine,thymine,cytosine,and guanine are
A) bases of DNA.
B) sugars used to synthesize nucleotides.
C) intermediates of the Krebs cycle.
D) amino acids.
Q2) Which of the following are joined together by peptide bonds?
A) amino acids
B) monosaccharides
C) lipids
D) steroids
Q3) Glycogen is
A) an end-product of fatty acid catabolism.
B) stored within adipose tissue.
C) the storage form of glucose.
D) an essential amino acid.
Q4) Adenine,uracil,cytosine,and guanine are
A) sugars used to synthesize nucleotides.
B) bases of RNA.
C) nonessential amino acids.
D) ketone bodies.
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Q1) Rickettsiae are
A) classified as fungi.
B) viruses.
C) often carried by fleas,ticks,and body lice.
D) arthropod vectors.
Q2) Amebic dysentery and giardiasis are
A) mycotic infections.
B) caused by salmonella.
C) worm infestations.
D) caused by protozoan parasites.
Q3) A mycotic infection is caused by a(n)
A) parasite.
B) bacterium.
C) fungus.
D) arthropod.
Q4) Bacteria
A) include cocci,bacilli,and curved rods.
B) are not part of the normal flora of the intestines.
C) cause mycotic infections.
D) include mold and yeast.

Page 7
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Sample Questions
Q1) Osseous tissue is
A) also called bone tissue.
B) formed from chondrocytes.
C) classified as squamous,cuboidal,and columnar.
D) classified as skeletal,smooth,and cardiac.
Q2) Chondrocytes and osteocytes form
A) squamous epithelium.
B) transitional epithelium.
C) astrocytes and ependymal cells.
D) cartilage and bone.
Q3) Identify the type of cell that conducts an action potential or electrical signal.
A) astrocyte
B) glial cell
C) neuron
D) ependymal cell
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Q1) What is the effect of shivering?
A) increases heat production
B) increases heat loss
C) causes the blood vessels of the skin to dilate
D) decreases sweating
Q2) A person sweats and becomes flushed while exercising in order to
A) decrease heat production.
B) keep the heat in the core or center of the body.
C) lose heat.
D) prevent hypothermia.
Q3) The sebaceous,apocrine,and eccrine glands are
A) sweat glands.
B) endocrine glands.
C) sebum-secreting glands.
D) exocrine glands.
Q4) Which action is most likely to lower body temperature?
A) shivering
B) vasoconstriction
C) cyanosis
D) vasodilation
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Q1) This bone is distal to the femur and proximal to the tibia.
A) fibula
B) patella
C) talus
D) coxal bone
Q2) The lambdoidal suture in the skull is a(n)
A) synovial joint.
B) hinge joint.
C) freely movable joint.
D) immovable joint.
Q3) This structure refers to the shaft of a long bone.
A) diaphysis
B) epiphysis
C) periosteum
D) bursa
Q4) Cervical,thoracic,lumbar,sacral,and coccygeal refer to A) vertebrae.
B) long bones.
C) spinal curves.
D) phalanges.
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Q1) The rectus,transversus,internal oblique,and the external oblique refer to A) smooth muscles.
B) abdominal muscles.
C) breathing muscles.
D) muscles that are located on the back and work synergistically with the latissimus dorsi.
Q2) The levator palpebrae superioris
A) purses the lips.
B) allows one to whistle.
C) raises the eyelids.
D) wiggles the nose.
Q3) These muscles are located on the inner (medial)surface of the thigh and move the thigh toward the midline of the body.
A) gastrocnemius
B) quadriceps femoris
C) adductors
D) sartorius
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Q1) Excessive opioids (narcotics)depress the medulla oblongata and therefore cause
A) Parkinson's disease.
B) blindness.
C) respiratory depression.
D) hypertension.
Q2) Which of the following structures is most associated with "wake up"?
A) Broca's area
B) cerebellum
C) reticular activating system
D) thalamus
Q3) Which group is incorrect?
A) parts of the brain:cerebrum,diencephalon,brain stem,cerebellum
B) meninges:pia mater,corpus callosum,dura mater
C) protective structures of the CNS:bone,meninges,cerebrospinal fluid,blood-brain barrier
D) types of glia:astrocytes,ependymal cells,oligodendrocytes,microglia
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Q1) Tic douloureux or trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by
A) intense facial pain.
B) diminished vision.
C) hearing loss.
D) hemiplegia.
Q2) The ___________ nerve (tract)carries sensory information toward the brain.
A) phrenic
B) pyramidal
C) corticospinal
D) spinothalamic
Q3) A "dilated and fixed" pupil is indicative of pressure on this cranial nerve.
A) cranial nerve II
B) olfactory nerve
C) cranial nerve III
D) vestibulocochlear
Q4) Which group is incorrect?
A) cranial nerves:olfactory,optic,oculomotor,vagus
B) plexuses:cervical,brachial,lumbosacral,cauda equina
C) states of paralysis:paraplegia,quadriplegia,hemiplegia
D) nerves that affect eye movement:oculomotor,abducens,trochlear
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Q1) What is another term for thoracolumbar outflow? 12-PAGE 2
Test Bank
A) vagal discharge
B) parasympathetic nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) limbic system
Q2) Which of the following is an adrenergic fiber?
A) postganglionic parasympathetic
B) preganglionic sympathetic
C) preganglionic parasympathetic
D) postganglionic sympathetic
Q3) A preoperative patient received an antimuscarinic drug (atropine).What drug-related postoperative consequence is he likely to experience?
A) decreased heart rate
B) difficult urination
C) elevated blood pressure
D) excess salivation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A cataract is a A) retinal detachment.
B) bulging optic disc.
C) cloudy lens.
D) scarred cornea.
Q2) This ossicle picks up vibrations from the tympanic membrane.
A) stapes
B) malleus
C) stirrup
D) incus
Q3) Olfaction refers to the sense of A) vision.
13-PAGE 5
Test Bank
B) taste.
C) smell.
D) equilibrium.
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Q1) Which of the following is not controlled by a hypothalamic-releasing hormone?
A) ACTH
B) ADH
C) growth hormone
D) prolactin
Q2) Obesity
A) antagonizes insulin.
B) elevates blood glucose.
C) causes Na and water reabsorption,thereby increasing blood pressure.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Which of the following is most descriptive of cAMP?
A) second chemical messenger
B) catecholamine that contributes to the "fight-or-flight" response
C) steroid
D) releasing hormone
Q4) Which of the following is a function of parathyroid hormone?
A) It causes the excretion of calcium in the urine.
B) It stimulates osteoblastic activity to form bone.
C) It stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete calcitonin.
D) It increases plasma levels of calcium.
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Q1) Bilirubin is a breakdown product of
A) leukocytes.
B) neutrophils.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.
Q2) Which of the following causes granulocytopenia?
A) myelosuppression
B) hemolysis
C) infection
D) petechiae
Q3) What is the breakdown product of heme?
A) thrombin
B) plasmin
C) bilirubin
D) albumin
Q4) Which of the following does the prothrombin time measure?
A) the amount of oxygen in the blood
B) clotting activity of the blood
C) bone marrow activity
D) the degree or intensity of jaundice
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Q1) Which of the following semilunar valves "sees" oxygenated blood?
A) mitral
B) bicuspid
C) aortic
D) pulmonic
Q2) Under what condition is blood most likely to flow "backward" (e.g.,from the left ventricle back into the left atrium)?
A) pulmonary artery hypertension
B) left ventricular hypertrophy
C) an insufficient mitral valve
D) pulmonary edema
Q3) Which of the following supplies oxygenated blood to the heart muscle?
A) coronary arteries
B) pulmonary artery
C) pulmonary veins
D) cardiac veins
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Q1) Which of the following is an example of forward failure?
A) Blood accumulates in the pulmonary capillaries,elevating pressure and causing pulmonary edema.
B) Diminished renal blood flow stimulates the kidney to decrease urinary output and to retain Na+ and water.
C) Blood distends the jugular vein.
D) Blood distends the liver,causing hepatomegaly and digestive symptoms.
Q2) An ejection fraction of 30% is
A) normal.
B) characteristic of a healthy person who is engaged in aerobic exercise.
C) characteristic of a failing heart.
D) the amount of oxygenated hemoglobin in the blood in the left ventricle.
Q3) Systole and diastole describe the function of the A) pericardium.
B) SA node.
C) myocardium.
D) mediastinum.
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Q1) What is the "main vein that drains the brain"?
A) carotid
B) brachial
C) jugular
D) saphenous
Q2) If this fetal heart structure failed to close after birth,blood would shunt from the left atrium into the right atrium.
A) ductus arteriosus
B) ductus venosus
C) foramen ovale
D) circle of Willis
Q3) What are the blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart?
A) veins
B) arteries
C) capillaries
D) venules
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Q1) A pregnant woman notices that her ankles are swollen after standing for 6 hours at her place of employment.In the evening when she elevates her feet,the swelling diminishes because
A) capillary hydrostatic pressure in the blood vessels of the lower extremities decreases.
B) plasma oncotic pressure decreases.
C) plasma oncotic pressure increases.
D) lymphatic drainage decreases.
Q2) A drug that activates alpha? adrenergic receptors
A) causes a vasodepressor effect.
B) is classified as a (+)inotropic drug.
C) elevates blood pressure.
D) is classified as an antihypertensive drug.
Q3) A sudden rise in blood pressure is most likely to produce a baroreceptor-induced A) (+)inotropic effect.
B) bradycardia.
C) narrowed pulse pressure.
D) increased heart rate.
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Q1) The right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct empty into the A) jugular vein.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) portal vein.
D) subclavian veins.
Q2) If proteins are allowed to accumulate in the interstitial space,they will
A) dehydrate the tissue space.
B) block or clog the capillary pores.
C) "hold water" and cause edema.
D) act as antigens and cause an allergic reaction.
Q3) The inguinal lymph nodes
A) line the entrance of the spleen.
B) are the Kupffer cells within the liver.
C) are located in the groin.
D) are part of the hepatic portal circulation.
Q4) What is the name of the lymph nodes that drain the head and neck region?
A) inguinal
B) cervical
C) thoracic
D) pelvic

22
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Q1) What is the name of the toxin that has been altered so that it is harmless,yet still antigenic?
A) vaccine
B) antibody
C) gamma globulin
D) toxoid
Q2) Binding of the bee venom allergen to antibodies on the mast cells causes a massive release of which substance?
A) vaccine
B) histamine
C) bilirubin
D) intrinsic factor
Q3) Which of the following cells engulfs the pathogen to achieve "antigen presentation"?
A) a red blood cell
B) a macrophage
C) antibodies
D) vaccines
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Q1) Which of the following is the dome-shaped muscle that is the chief muscle of inhalation?
A) diaphragm
B) epiglottis
C) mediastinum
D) pericardium
Q2) Which of the following is most related to the relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles?
A) results from the firing of the inspiratory neurons
B) due to the firing of the phrenic and intercostal nerves
C) decreases thoracic volume
D) causes air to move into the lungs
Q3) What is the effect of phrenic nerve stimulation?
A) expiration
B) relaxation of the diaphragm and the intercostals
C) inhalation
D) a decrease in chest diameter
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Q1) Gastrin,secretin,and cholecystokinin are
A) secreted by the stomach.
B) amylases.
C) emulsifying agents.
D) hormones.
Q2) Which condition is most likely to be caused by pyloric stenosis?
A) diarrhea
B) jaundice
C) projectile vomiting
D) ascites
Q3) This is the site of absorption for most end-products of digestion.
A) duodenum
B) ileum
C) colon
D) stomach
Q4) A paralytic ileus is caused by a cessation of A) peristalsis.
B) mastication.
C) emulsification.
D) deglutition.
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Q1) The internal and external sphincters are associated with (the)
A) renal pelvis.
B) Bowman's capsule.
C) juxtaglomerular apparatus.
D) urinary bladder.
Q2) Cystitis refers to inflammation of the A) kidneys.
B) meatus.
C) urinary bladder.
D) renal pelvis.
Q3) Which of the following is correct?
A) one kidney
B) one ureter
C) two urinary bladders
D) one urethra
Q4) Aldosterone
A) depletes blood volume.
B) causes potassium reabsorption.
C) causes sodium excretion.
D) causes Na and water reabsorption.
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Q1) Respiratory rate is most sensitive to the effects of this ion.
A) Na
B) K
C) H
D) Cl-
Q2) Which of the following is most likely to occur when output is less than intake?
A) dehydration
B) edema
C) hypovolemia
D) polyuria
Q3) Bicarbonate (HCO-<sub>3</sub>)is considered an anion because it
A) contains hydrogen.
B) contains carbon.
C) contains oxygen.
D) carries a negative charge.
Q4) Most diuretics increase urine production by blocking the effects of this cation.
A) calcium
B) bicarbonate
C) chloride
D) sodium
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Q1) Implantation
A) occurs within the fallopian tubes or the oviducts.
B) is achieved by the morula.
C) is a uterine event achieved by the blastocyst.
D) occurs within the ovaries.
Q2) This hormone promotes the maturation of the egg and helps develop the female characteristics.
A) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
B) androgen
C) estrogen
D) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
Q3) The myometrium
A) is the layer that sloughs during menstruation.
B) is responsive to oxytocin.
C) thickens in response to estrogen and progesterone.
D) is the target of the gonadotropins.
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Q1) In addition to acting as an exchange site between the mother and fetus,the placenta also secretes
A) estrogen and progesterone.
B) amniotic fluid.
C) vernix caseosa.
D) colostrum.
Q2) Which of the following is most descriptive of a zygote?
A) fertilized ovum
B) mature sperm
C) graafian follicle
D) fetus
Q3) Which of the following is least true of prolactin?
A) secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
B) stimulates the mammary gland
C) is an adenohypophyseal hormone
D) plays the primary role in the milk let-down reflex
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