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Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that examines the application of science to the maintenance and improvement of human health. This course covers foundational concepts in biology, chemistry, physiology, and public health, integrating them to understand the determinants of health, disease prevention, diagnostics, and health care delivery systems. Students will explore topics such as epidemiology, health promotion, medical technology, and global health challenges. The course also emphasizes the social, ethical, and policy aspects of health care, preparing students for diverse careers in clinical, research, or public health settings.
Recommended Textbook Essentials of Anatomy Physiology 7th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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Q1) ________ are terms used when comparing body areas on appendages.
A) Lateral and medial
B) Proximal and distal
C) Superior and inferior
D) Supine and prone
E) Superficial and deep
Answer: B
Q2) A person lying face up in the anatomical position is said to be in the ________ position.
A) coronal
B) supine
C) prone
D) sagittal
E) lateral
Answer: B
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Q1) The difference between AMP,ADP,and ATP molecules is the
A) type of monosaccharide sugar.
B) type of bond-whether ionic or covalent.
C) presence or absence of nitrogen.
D) structure of the molecule-primary, secondary, or tertiary structure.
E) number of phosphates in the molecule.
Answer: E
Q2) The reaction NaOH + HCl NaCl + H O would be an example of a(n)
A) exchange reaction.
B) decomposition reaction.
C) synthesis reaction.
D) enzyme reaction.
E) metabolic reaction.
Answer: A
Q3) Why is it life-threatening to have a low pH?
Answer: A low pH can be life-threatening because the change in hydrogen ion concentration can cause certain proteins,such as vital enzymes,to become inactive.When this occurs,the proteins become nonfunctional,and if they catalyze reactions that are necessary for life,life will cease.
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Q1) Microtubules
A) are usually composed of myosin.
B) are hollow, filamentous structures.
C) attach the plasma membrane to the underlying cytoplasm.
D) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions.
E) are found on the ribosomes.
Answer: B
Q2) The release of intracellular materials by a vesicle at the cell surface is called
A) osmosis.
B) active transport.
C) exocytosis.
D) endocytosis.
E) an ion exchange pump.
Answer: C
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Q1) Which of the following is a connective tissue with a solid matrix?
A) cartilage
B) blood
C) adipose connective tissue
D) dense connective tissue
E) areolar connective tissue
Q2) Functions of connective tissue include
A) specialization for contraction.
B) the conduction of electrical impulses.
C) glandular secretion production.
D) storage of energy reserves.
E) control of permeability.
Q3) ________ are cells that support and protect the neurons.
A) Matrix
B) Neuroglia
C) Ground substance
D) Goblet cells
E) Proteoglycans
Q4) What type of epithelium would you expect to find lining the urinary bladder? Explain your answer.
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Q1) Mammary glands are modified
A) sensory receptors.
B) wax glands.
C) oil glands.
D) sebaceous glands.
E) sweat glands.
Q2) Structures marked J on the skin diagram are
A) sudoriferous glands.
B) smooth muscles.
C) sebaceous glands.
D) immature hair follicles.
E) sensory receptors.
Q3) ________ is a pigment found in vegetables that can make skin appear orange or yellow.
A) Carotene
B) Melanin
C) Sebum
D) Cerumen
E) Cyanosis
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Q1) The bone tissue at E is ________ bone.
A) cancellous
B) spongy
C) compact
D) articular
E) fibrous bone
Q2) The ankle consists of ________ tarsal bones.
A) two
B) five
C) six
D) seven
E) eight
Q3) Moving the arm in a loop is an example of which angular movement?
A) flexion
B) adduction
C) extension
D) circumduction
E) gliding
Q4) Billy is injured during a high school football game.His chest is badly bruised,and he is experiencing difficulty breathing.What might be the problem?
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Q1) A person whose genetic makeup makes him or her a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more ________ in his or her leg muscles.
A) fast fibers
B) intermediate fibers
C) slow fibers
D) dark fibers
E) red fibers
Q2) Botulism
A) is the result of an attack on acetylcholine receptors by the immune system.
B) is usually tied to a genetic predisposition.
C) is a viral illness.
D) results from the loss of acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate.
E) results from a bacterial toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at the axon terminals.
Q3) Because Mary wants to enter a marathon,she decides to consult a trainer who happens to be a kinesiologist.The trainer advises her on what type of muscle fibers she needs to develop and how she should train for it.Which type of muscle fibers are involved? Briefly explain the anatomy and physiology of the trainer's advice.
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Q1) As a result of a severe concussion from a car accident,you have a terrible problem with both retaining new information and recalling old information.The injury affected the A) mammillary bodies.
B) basal ganglia.
C) inferior colliculi.
D) hippocampus.
E) superior colliculi.
Q2) The effects of neurotransmitters released by the modified neurons of the adrenal medullae resemble those produced by stimulation of
A) sympathetic preganglionic fibers.
B) parasympathetic postganglionic fibers.
C) pelvic nerves.
D) parasympathetic preganglionic fibers.
E) sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
Q3) A condition known as Bell's palsy is thought to be caused by an inflammation of the facial nerve (VII).What symptoms would one expect to see in a person suffering from this condition?
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Q1) The Golgi tendon organs are examples of which of the following?
A) mechanoreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) baroreceptors
D) chemoreceptors
E) nociceptors
Q2) Structure O is the
A) optic disc.
B) fovea.
C) blood vessels.
D) ocular muscle.
E) optic nerve.
Q3) Olfactory glands
A) contain the neural receptors for the sense of smell.
B) form the basement membrane of the olfactory epithelium.
C) are sensitive to aromatic molecules in the air.
D) produce a pigmented mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium.
E) form structures called olfactory bulbs.
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Q1) Structure J is
A) adipose tissue.
B) the thyroid gland.
C) the pancreas.
D) the parathyroid gland.
E) the adrenal gland.
Q2) The hormones that dominate during the Resistance Phase of the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)are the A) mineralocorticoids.
B) androgens.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) thyroid hormones.
E) gonadotropins.
Q3) These organs labeled M produce hormones involved in A) digestion.
B) respiration.
C) reproduction.
D) muscle contraction.
E) calcium absorption from blood.
Q4) Explain the interactions of parathyroid hormone and calcitonin.
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Q1) Excess transferrins are removed in the ________,where the iron extracted from heme molecules is stored in special protein-iron complexes.
A) liver and thymus
B) liver and spleen
C) thymus and bone marrow
D) spleen and bone marrow
E) thymus and spleen
Q2) Plasma and interstitial fluid account for most of the volume of ________ in the body.
A) serum
B) lymphatic fluid
C) whole blood
D) extracellular fluid
E) packed blood
Q3) Label J represents
A) basophils.
B) neutrophils.
C) monocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) lymphocytes.
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Q1) Blood returning directly from the systemic circulation enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) pulmonary trunk.
Q2) If valve function deteriorates such that the heart cannot maintain adequate circulatory flow,symptoms of ________ appear.
A) mitral valve prolapse
B) carditis
C) coronary artery disease
D) rheumatic fever
E) valvular heart disease
Q3) Why is atrial repolarization not illustrated on an ECG?
A) Only ventricles repolarize.
B) It is obscured by the T wave.
C) Ventricular repolarization occurs at the same time and is much stronger.
D) The QRS complex masks it.
E) It is illustrated as the P wave.
Q4) Explain the significance of the thickness of the left ventricular wall.
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Q1) The vessel that supplies blood to the arm,shoulder,chest wall,back,and spinal cord is called the
A) internal thoracic artery.
B) vertebral artery.
C) thyrocervical trunk.
D) subclavian artery.
E) brachial artery.
Q2) ________ refers to the factors that oppose blood flow in the entire cardiovascular system.
A) Turbulence
B) Vascular resistance
C) Total peripheral resistance
D) Viscosity
E) Elastic rebound
Q3) Label L represents the A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) aortic arch.
C) left pulmonary arteries.
D) left pulmonary veins.
E) pulmonary trunk.
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Q1) Adaptive defenses
A) involve immunological surveillance.
B) protect against particular threats.
C) do not distinguish between one threat and another.
D) are not dependent on the activities of lymphocytes.
E) are present at birth.
Q2) Besides suppressor T cells,some ________ also help suppress immune function and shorten the duration of the immune response.
A) interleukins
B) TNFs
C) phagocytic regulators
D) CSFs
E) interferons
Q3) Sensitization to an allergen during the initial exposure leads to the production of large quantities of
A) antigen-antibody complexes.
B) IgE antibodies.
C) IgD antibodies.
D) opsonins.
E) Tc cells.
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Q1) Centers in which of the following adjust the respiratory rate and depth of respiration in response to sensory stimuli,emotional states,or speech patterns?
A) midbrain
B) cerebellum
C) cerebrum
D) spinal cord
E) pons
Q2) After a healthy newborn takes its first breath,
A) the pressure in the thoracic cavity remains low.
B) the rib cage returns to its fully compressed state.
C) the diaphragm and the external intercostal muscles stay contracted.
D) the alveoli stay open because of the presence of surfactant.
E) the compliance of the lungs gradually decreases.
Q3) Label J represents which structure(s)?
A) trachea
B) smallest bronchioles
C) bronchus
D) alveoli
E) bronchioles
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Q1) Which layer of the digestive tract consists of dense irregular connective tissue?
A) submucosa
B) muscularis externa
C) lamina propria
D) muscularis mucosae
E) mucosa
Q2) Which phase of swallowing begins with compression of the bolus against the hard palate?
A) esophageal
B) gastric
C) buccal
D) pharyngeal
E) duodenal
Q3) Functions of the large intestine include
A) chemical digestion of chyme.
B) temporary food storage.
C) reabsorption of water and compaction of feces.
D) absorption of the products of digestion.
E) production of digestive enzymes.
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Q1) Regarding the citric acid cycle,which molecule participates in a complex reaction involving NAD and coenzyme A within the mitochondrion?
A) pyruvate
B) citric acid
C) ATP
D) oxygen
E) FADH
Q2) Most cells generate ATP and other high-energy compounds by breaking down carbohydrates,especially
A) ribose.
B) galactose.
C) sucrose.
D) fructose.
E) glucose.
Q3) Which of the following delivers cholesterol to peripheral tissues?
A) triglycerides
B) low-density lipoproteins
C) high-density lipoproteins
D) free fatty acids
E) glycerol groups
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Q1) The intracellular fluid (ICF)is found in
A) the plasma.
B) lymph.
C) the cytosol.
D) the interstitial spaces.
E) the cerebrospinal fluid.
Q2) Regulation of the amounts of water,sodium ions,and potassium ions lost in the urine occurs between the nephron loop and the
A) collecting system.
B) distal convoluted tubule.
C) renal corpuscle.
D) proximal convoluted tubule.
E) Bowman's capsule.
Q3) Which of the following is correct about the location of the kidney(s)?
A) There is one kidney deep to the liver.
B) The kidneys are bilateral and retroperitoneal.
C) The left kidney is lower than the right.
D) The kidneys are in the anterior abdominal wall.
E) The kidneys lie in the pelvic cavity, and only their superior surfaces are covered by a layer of peritoneum.
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Q1) As tertiary follicles develop,FSH levels decline due to the negative feedback effects of which hormone?
A) LH
B) progesterone
C) GnRH
D) inhibin
E) estrogen
Q2) The shallow recess surrounding the cervical protrusion is known as the A) isthmus.
B) fornix.
C) fundus.
D) body.
E) os.
Q3) Which of the following contraceptive strategies will least likely result in an unwanted pregnancy?
A) tubal ligation
B) condom
C) intra-uterine device
D) diaphragm
E) vasectomy
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Q1) The conversion of mammary glands from resting to active states requires the presence of both placental hormones and
A) oxytocin and insulin.
B) progesterones and estrogens.
C) human chorionic gonadotropin and parathyroid hormones.
D) glucagon and somatostatin.
E) growth hormones, prolactin, and thyroid hormones.
Q2) Which of the following forms when blood vessels form in the chorion,around the periphery of the blastocyst?
A) allantois
B) placenta
C) blastocoele
D) amnion
E) trophoblast
Q3) Sperm carry
A) only one X sex chromosome, exclusively.
B) only one Y sex chromosome, exclusively.
C) no sex chromosomes.
D) two Y sex chromosomes.
E) one X or one Y sex chromosome.
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