Course Introduction
Health Sciences
Final Exam Questions
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the application of scientific principles to human health, disease prevention, and healthcare delivery. This course provides students with a broad foundation in biomedical, psychosocial, and environmental factors that impact health. Topics include human anatomy and physiology, public health, epidemiology, healthcare systems, and the social determinants of health. Through a combination of theory and practical case studies, students gain an understanding of how health professionals contribute to individual and community wellbeing, preparing them for further study or careers in healthcare, research, or public health.
Recommended Textbook
Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 9th Edition by Ricki Lewis
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22 Chapters
998 Verified Questions
998 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Genetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) DNA profiling has been used to
A) identify victims of terrorist attacks and natural disasters.
B) cure metabolic diseases caused by mutations in single genes.
C) treat male infertility.
D) predict how children will do in school.
E) predict if someone will develop cancer.
Answer: E
Q2) Humans have __ pairs of chromosomes.
A) 16
B) 23
C) 38
D) 46
E) 32
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The approximate number of differentiated cell types in a human body is A) 10.
B) 100.
C) 260.
D) 840.
E) 3.2 billion.
Answer: C
Q2) Cilia are built of A) microorganisms.
B) microfilaments.
C) micronutrients.
D) microtubules.
E) intermediate filaments.
Answer: D
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4
Chapter 3: Meiosis and Development
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Sample Questions
Q1) Current thinking about the cause of Hutchinson-Gilford syndrome,which is a severe segmental progeroid syndrome,is that
A) the cellular clock ticks much too fast.
B) the part of the brain that controls aging is damaged.
C) abnormal lamin A protein stresses the nuclear membrane, disturbing DNA repair such that mutations accumulate that cause the diseases of aging.
D) a protein called progerin forms clumps in the brain in a way that removes DNA from the tips of telomeres, shortening chromosomes and lifespan.
E) starvation in the uterus sets the stage for diseases of the aged occurring in childhood.
Answer: C
Q2) Centenarians are
A) segmented worms.
B) people in the military.
C) people who live past 100 years.
D) people who die just before their 100<sup>th</sup> birthday.
E) people who live past 90.
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Single-Gene Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Using the product rule,the probability that parents heterozygous for two traits (AaBb)produce an offspring homozygous recessive for the same two traits (aabb)is
A) 1/4.
B) 1/8.
C) 1/16.
D) 1/24.
E) 1/32.
Q2) Which of the following represents a monohybrid cross?
A) Bb x Bb
B) AaBb x AaBb
C) BB x bb
D) AABB x aabb
E) a x b
Q3) The second generation resulting from a genetic cross is the _______ generation.
A) P<sub>1</sub>
B) P<sub>2</sub>
C) F<sub>1</sub>
D) F<sub>2</sub>
E) L<sub>1</sub>
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Beyond Mendels Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mitochondrial disorders are probably very rare because A) people have many mitochondria, so the healthy ones can substitute for the affected ones.
B) as oocytes formed, those with harmful mitochondrial mutations did not have sufficient energy to survive.
C) they are difficult to diagnose because most physicians have forgotten what mitochondria are.
D) they do not produce symptoms.
E) they are not inherited from the father.
Q2) The mitochondrial genome consists of ___ genes.
A) 12
B) 37
C) 250
D) 370
E) 3,700.
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Chapter 6: Matters of Sex
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Sample Questions
Q1) X inactivation is controlled by
A) the SRY gene.
B) the XIST gene.
C) the XTASY gene.
D) whether or not a woman takes birth control pills.
E) the location of the spindle in mitosis.
Q2) Homosexuality
A) is seen only in humans.
B) has been documented for only a few hundred years in only a few societies.
C) likely reflects the input of several if not many genes and environmental factors.
D) is inherited from a mutation on the X chromosome.
E) is a matter of choice.
Q3) Two unusual type of people who led researchers to discovery of the SRY gene were
A) physicists and chemists.
B) XX males and XY females.
C) XY males and XX females.
D) XXX females and XYY males.
E) men and women who lack sex chromosomes.
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8
Chapter 7: Multifactorial Traits
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Sample Questions
Q1) For a multifactorial,polygenic trait,the characteristic shape of the mathematical plot of frequency for each phenotype class is
A) linear, going up.
B) linear, going down.
C) a bell curve.
D) a square curve.
E) an ellipse.
Q2) The DNA of dizygotic twins is
A) identical in the number and distribution of copy number variants, but not necessarily in sequence.
B) different in the number and distribution of copy number variants, but not necessarily in sequence.
C) identical in the number and distribution of copy number variants and in sequence.
D) different in the number and distribution of copy number variants and in sequence.
E) as alike as the DNA of any two full siblings.
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Chapter 8: Genetics of Behavior
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Sample Questions
Q1) The biological basis of autism may be
A) exposure to Ebola viruses during pregnancy.
B) formation of aberrant synapses.
C) interference with the ability to form synapses during childhood that are a response to experience, impairing learning and memory.
D) binding to nicotinic receptors in a way that destroys neurons in the hippocampus.
E) a reaction to flu vaccine.
Q2) Which of the following psychiatric disorders has the highest risk of death?
A) depression
B) schizophrenia
C) anorexia nervosa
D) bulimia
E) narcissism
Q3) LSD binds receptors that normally bind
A) dopamine.
B) serotonin.
C) epinephrine.
D) trace amines.
E) insulin.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: DNA Structure and Replication
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Sample Questions
Q1) Okazaki fragments are small pieces of
A) RNA.
B) protein.
C) DNA.
D) enzymes.
E) sushi.
Q2) The directional nature of the DNA double helix is observed in the
A) locations of the hydrogen bonds.
B) locations of the numbered carbons in the sugars.
C) locations of the oxygen atom in the phosphate.
D) double helix when it is separated into single strands.
E) mirror.
Q3) _______ used models to deduce the double helical shape of DNA.
A) Linus Pauling
B) James Watson and Francis Crick
C) Martha Chase
D) Maclyn McCarty
E) Rosalind Franklin
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11
Chapter 10: Gene Action: From Dna to Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) A benefit of alternate splicing of introns out of mRNAs is that
A) it maximizes the number of introns.
B) it increases the number of proteins that the genome encodes.
C) it lowers the risk of inherited disease.
D) it lowers the risk of infection.
E) it speeds transcription.
Q2) Transcription and replication are alike in that both
A) are guided by complementary base pairing.
B) are regulated by homeobox genes.
C) require DNA polymerase.
D) require a promoter and RNA polymerase.
E) are created from an ordered sequence of amino acids.
Q3) Part of a DNA template of sequence GTTAGTCTGTGGGCT corresponds to the amino acid sequence
A) GTTAGTCTGTGGGCT.
B) CAATCAGACACCCGA.
C) CAAUCAGACACCCGA.
D) gln-ser-asp-thr-arg.
E) val-ser-leu-trp-ala.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Gene Expression and Epigenetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most abundant type of DNA repeat sequence is called a A) genome.
B) lipidome.
C) proteome.
D) transposon.
E) transcriptome.
Q2) Transcription factors account for a greater proportion of the proteome in a fetus compared to a 20-year-old because
A) many cells have already died in a 20-year-old.
B) a fetus does not yet need many of its proteins.
C) cells are actively differentiating and many structures are forming in a fetus.
D) an adult can carry out more activities than can a fetus.
E) the 20-year-old can consciously activate his or her transcription factors.
Q3) About ___ percent of the human genome actually encodes proteins.
A) 0.5
B) 1.5
C) 5.0
D) 10
E) 100
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Gene Mutation
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Q1) The Hutterites are a peace-loving people descended from people who lived in the Austrian province of Tyrol in the 16th century,and immigrated to Montana and the Dakotas,then to Canada.Bowen-Conradi syndrome is a rare autosomal condition seen only among Hutterites,who marry within their own communities.The condition causes extreme growth retardation shortly before and after birth,resulting in early childhood death.The mutation that causes Bowen-Conradi syndrome changes an aspartic acid to a glycine by replacing an A with a G.This is a _______ mutation affecting the _____ codon position.(Consult the genetic code in figure 10.12 for your answer).
A)missense; first
B)missense; third
C)missense; second
D)nonsense; second
E)nonsense; third
Q2) Protection against inherited prion disorders seems to depend upon
A)whether people are heterozygotes at particular part of the prion protein gene.
B)whether people have extra copies of the prion protein gene.
C)whether people eat food contaminated with toxin from E.coli.
D)whether people eat tainted beef.
E)whether people inherit a sickle cell allele.
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Chromosomes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most males born with an extra Y chromosome
A) die shortly before or after birth.
B) are violent and anti-social.
C) are tall but are otherwise normal.
D) are phenotypically female.
E) are genotypically female.
Q2) CVS reveals a fetus has the karyotype 47,XX,+21.What is the diagnosis?
A) normal female
B) Edward syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Klinefelter syndrome
Q3) Aneuploidy may occur in some cells of an individual if nondisjunction happens in A) an early embryo.
B) a sperm cell.
C) an oocyte.
D) a skin cell in an adult.
E) a polar body.
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Chapter 14: Constant Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A "cold hit" refers to
A) a DNA profile made from frozen DNA, such as from a wooly mammoth.
B) identifying a suspect from DNA alone.
C) a technology to preserve DNA.
D) using CODIS to identify the victim of a crime.
E) using mitochondrial DNA to take a DNA profile.
Q2) If the incidence of an autosomal recessive condition is 1/3,600 live births,what is the carrier frequency?
A) 0.0003
B) 0.029
C) 0.286
D) 0.684
E) near 1.0
Q3) Which group is used to calculate the frequency of an allele in a population?
A) homozygous recessives
B) the most fertile individuals
C) homozygous dominants
D) heterozygotes
E) heterozygous dominants
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Changing Allele Frequencies
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Sample Questions
Q1) A founder effect occurs when
A) whole populations migrate after a natural disaster.
B) geographic barriers separate populations.
C) small groups of individuals leave a population to start their own.
D) individuals in a population have few children.
E) mutation introduces a new allele into a population.
Q2) Consanguineous marriages are between men and women who are
A) from different cultures.
B) "blood" relatives.
C) carriers of a disorder.
D) from the same town.
E) too young to be married.
Q3) A sharp cline may indicate
A) a sudden increase in the mutation rate.
B) a population bottleneck.
C) a geographical obstacle, such as a mountain.
D) exposure to a devastating infectious disease.
E) nonrandom mating.
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17
Chapter 16: Human Ancestry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major genetic distinction between humans and chimps is
A) the DNA sequence.
B) the number of indels.
C) gene expression patterns.
D) the number of introns.
E) dietary effects on the genome.
Q2) A major way that the human genome differs from the genomes of other primates is that
A) the human genome has many deletions compared to the other primate genomes.
B) the human genome has many duplicated regions compared to the other primate genomes.
C) the human genome has many more C and T bases in its genes than the other genomes.
D) human proteins are much larger than their counterparts in the other primate species.
E) the human genome does not have as many introns as the other primate genomes.
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Chapter 17: Genetics of Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a less severe form of combined immune deficiency,the individual
A) has normal numbers of T and B cells.
B) makes antibodies that attack the body's own tissues.
C) has no white blood cells.
D) has some T cells but lacks B cells.
E) lacks both T and A B cells.
Q2) The two major types of lymphocytes are
A) T and B cells.
B) A and B cells.
C) cytokines and antibodies.
D) thymus and spleen cells.
E) RBCs and WBCs.
Q3) Cytotoxic T cells target
A) cancer cells and virally infected cells.
B) skin cells and blood cells.
C) bacterial cells and fungal cells.
D) B cells and macrophages.
E) antigens and antibodies.
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19
Chapter 18: Genetics of Cancer
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Q1) All cancers reflect,at the most general level,a defect in A) DNA replication.
B) the formation of mitochondria.
C) cell membrane structure.
D) the cell's ability to extract energy from nutrients.
E) the cell cycle.
Q2) A cancer stem cell can divide to give rise to
A) tumor cells, abnormal daughter cells, normal cells, and more cancer stem cells.
B) more cancer stem cells only.
C) healthy stem cells and normally differentiated cells.
D) nothing. It cannot divide further.
E) invasive cells and metastatic malignant cells.
Q3) When tumor cell DNA is examined from people at different stages of the same cancer type,mutations that are common to all of them
A) act early in the disease.
B) act late in the disease.
C) acted on an initial cell and then reverted to wild type.
D) entered the cells on the same type of virus.
E) are there by coincidence and do not mean anything about the disease.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Genetic Technologies: Amplifying, Modifying, and Monitoring DNA
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Sample Questions
Q1) Transgenic pharming uses _______ to produce recombinant proteins in _______.
A) cows; milk
B) bacteriophage; bacteria
C) bacteria; culture media
D) fungi; culture media
E) viruses; cell culture
Q2) Restriction enzymes are useful in creating recombinant DNA molecules because they
A) generate "sticky ends" by cutting at the same sequence on both strands.
B) are found only in human cells, where they naturally mend broken DNA strands.
C) are only attracted to and act on DNA sequences from different species.
D) are used to encapsulate and transport foreign DNA into cells of the target organism.
E) stimulate DNA amplification so that the desired cells or their products can be scaled up.
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Chapter 20: Genetic Testing and Treatment
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Q1) One of the first applications of pharmacogenetics in prescribing drugs is for
A) Accutane, an acne drug.
B) an early pregnancy test kit.
C) Viagra, a drug to treat erectile dysfunction.
D) Warfarin, a blood thinner.
E) a narcotic to treat chronic pain.
Q2) Adenosine deaminase (ADA)deficiency results in A) Canavan disease.
B) hereditary emphysema.
C) neurotransmitter imbalances.
D) severe combined immune deficiency.
E) chronic myelogenous leukemia.
Q3) A nasal spray for cystic fibrosis patients,which contains adenovirus particles carrying a normal human CFTR gene,is an example of A) ex vivo gene therapy.
B) in situ gene therapy.
C) in vitro gene therapy.
D) in vivo gene therapy.
E) in vitro fertilization.
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Chapter 21: Reproductive Technologies
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Q1) The fact that the live birth rate from older mothers using oocytes in IVF from much younger women is much higher than from older mothers using their own oocytes indicates that the age effects on reproductive success reflect
A) the oocyte source.
B) the uterus source.
C) the age of the father.
D) the sperm count.
E) how many other children a couple has.
Q2) A normal sperm count is ____ sperm per ejaculate.
A) 10,000 - 50,000
B) 100,000 - 500,000
C) 1-2 million
D) 20 to 200 million
E) 1 to 3 billion
Q3) An ectopic pregnancy results when
A) more than one sperm fertilizes an oocyte.
B) an oocyte that has not been fertilized implants in the uterus.
C) more than one oocyte is fertilized.
D) a fertilized ovum begins to develop in the uterine tube.
E) a fertilized ovum begins to develop while attached to the cervix.
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Chapter 22: Genomics
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Sample Questions
Q1) cDNA is copied from A) DNA.
B) protein.
C) mRNA.
D) a pictogram.
E) a cytogenetic map.
Q2) The following sequence is part of a genome.
Fragments corresponding to it that would be useful in deriving the sequence are
A) \(G U C U C \quad G A U C \quad A C C A U \quad A U U G A \quad G A C U C \quad C U C A G \quad A G U G \)
B) \( C TGTG \quad CTAG \quad TGGTA \quad TAACT \quad CTGAG \quad GAGTC \quad TCAC \)
C) \(CACT \quad CTGAG \quad GAGTC \quad TCAAT \quad ATGGT \quad GATC \quad GTGTC \)
D) \(ACG \quad GTGAT \quad CTGTA \quad CTGTGTAC \quad GTG \quad CTGACTG \)
E) \( CTGATGT \quad CGTGT \quad CTGTGATGC \quad CGTGTA \quad CCCGTA \)
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