Course Introduction
Health Sciences Exam Preparation Guide
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that explores the many factors influencing human health, disease prevention, and healthcare delivery. This course examines the biological, psychological, social, and environmental determinants of health, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how health systems operate and how health professionals work to promote well-being in diverse populations. Through foundational concepts in anatomy, physiology, public health, and health policy, students gain insights into current health challenges and the evolving landscape of healthcare professions.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 9th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
4302 Verified Questions
4302 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is homeostatic regulation,and what is its physiological importance?
Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment.This provides a favorable environment for the body's cells.
Q2) While standing erect,the direction of caudal is
A)toward the head.
B)toward the heel.
C)lateral to the trunk.
D)medial to the sides.
E)posterior to the head.
Answer: B
Q3) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system.
A)endocrine
B)digestive
C)respiratory
D)urinary
E)lymphatic
Answer: D
Q4) A person lying face down is in the ________ position.
Answer: prone
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Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions,a substance with a pH of 5 or a substance with a pH of 4?
A)A pH of 4 is greater.
B)A pH of 5 is greater.
C)They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values.
D)pH 9,if you mixed the solutions.
E)There is not enough information to determine.
Answer: A
Q2) Artificial sweeteners
A)are naturally similar to sugars.
B)are always some form of carbohydrate.
C)are usually not broken down by the body.
D)are inorganic sugar substitutes.
E)provide the same number of calories as an equivalent amount of sucrose.
Answer: C
Q3) In living cells,complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called a(n)________.
Answer: pathway
Q4) Ions with a positive charge are called ________.
Answer: cations
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) There is a direct correlation between the potency of a general anesthetic such as ether and its ability to
A)dissolve in water.
B)dissolve in lipids.
C)bind to proteins.
D)interact with carbohydrates.
E)bind to DNA.
Answer: B
Q2) The principal cations in our body fluids are ________ and ________.
A)sodium; potassium
B)calcium; magnesium
C)sodium; calcium
D)chloride; bicarbonate
E)sodium; chloride
Answer: A
Q3) Recognition keeps the immune response from attacking ________,while still enabling it to recognize and destroy invading pathogens.
Answer: self
Q4) The ________ of a membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross.
Answer: permeability
Page 5
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Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compare the three types of muscle tissue.List three similarities and three differences among them.
Q2) A type of intercellular junction that stops materials from crossing an epithelium between cells is termed a(n)
A)occluding junction.
B)gap junction.
C)intermediate junction.
D)desmosome.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The Pap test for cervical cancer utilizes A)histology.
B)physiology.
C)anatomy.
D)embryology.
E)exfoliative cytology.
Q4) Harriet had liposuction several years ago,but has since gained back all the weight lost through the procedure.She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of dividing.Provide a plausible explanation.
Q5) In areolar connective tissue,________ cells release histamine.
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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If epithelial cell migration cannot cover a wound,________ may be required.
Q2) From what structure does sensible perspiration occur?
A)6
B)7
C)8
D)9
E)10
Q3) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system,except
A)protection of underlying tissue.
B)excretion of salts and wastes.
C)maintenance of body temperature.
D)synthesis of vitamin C.
E)provision of sensation.
Q4) Merocrine sweat contains ________ to protect against bacteria.
A)metabolic wastes
B)water
C)penicillin
D)dermicidin
E)organic nutrients
Q5) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is termed ________.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Osseous Tissue and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition known as osteopenia
A)affects mostly women.
B)causes a gradual reduction in bone mass.
C)is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet.
D)is rarely seen as people age.
E)only affects the femur.
Q2) The lining of the medullary cavity is called the A)endosteum.
B)periosteum.
C)epimysium.
D)perimysium.
E)perichondrium.
Q3) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?
A)The bone would be less flexible.
B)The bone would be stronger.
C)The bone would be more brittle.
D)The bone would be more flexible.
E)The bone would be less compressible.
Q4) A(n)________ or closed fracture does not break the skin.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones,except the A)zygomatic.
B)ethmoid.
C)sphenoid.
D)frontal.
E)maxillary.
Q2) The frontal and parietal bones articulate at the ________ suture.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A)lateral process
B)spinous process
C)lamina
D)transverse process
E)pedicle
Q4) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland.
A)lacrimal
B)pituitary
C)olfactory
D)nasal
E)sellar
Q5) The four primary sutures are lambdoid,coronal,sagittal,and ________.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Another name for the first toe is A)hallux.
B)pollex.
C)hyoid.
D)lateral cuneiform.
E)phalanx.
Q2) When standing normally,most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the A)distal ends of the metatarsals and calcaneus.
B)talus and proximal metatarsals.
C)calcaneus and talus.
D)talus and cuneiforms.
E)calcaneus and proximal metatarsals.
Q3) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and muscles is the A)anterior iliac spine.
B)acetabulum.
C)posterior superior iliac spine.
D)iliac crest.
E)iliac notch.
Q4) The trochlea is located on the ________.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Sample Questions
Q1) The knuckle joint is classified as a ________ joint.
A)condylar
B)hinge
C)glide
D)saddle
E)pivot
Q2) A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe.
Q3) The movement of a body part upward is called ________.
Q4) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?
A)opening the mouth
B)turning the hand palm upward
C)extreme bending of the head backwards
D)moving the hand toward the shoulder
E)spreading the fingers
Q5) Structurally,the pubic symphysis is classified as a(n)________ articulation.
Q6) The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is ________ and
Q7) The three functions of synovial fluid are nutrient distribution,shock absorption,and
Q8) The location where two bones meet is called a joint or an ________. Page 11
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A)protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B)repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C)storage and release site for calcium ions
D)thin filaments are anchored here
E)largely made of myosin molecules
Q2) Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called A)sarcomeres.
B)myofibrils.
C)myoblasts.
D)fascicles.
E)myomeres.
Q3) Because skeletal muscle contractions demand large quantities of ATP,skeletal muscles have
A)a rich nerve supply.
B)a rich blood supply and few mitochondria
C)abundant mitochondria and a poor blood supply.
D)adipose tissue between fibers to supply nutrients for ATP production.
E)many mitochondria and a rich blood supply.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a muscle unit contain?
Page 13
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the
A)linea alba.
B)tensor fasciae latae.
C)linea aspera.
D)iliotibial tract.
E)piriformis.
Q2) Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachialis?
A)olecranon process of the ulna
B)infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula
C)lateral condyle of the humerus
D)medial epicondyle of the humerus
E)base of the second metacarpal
Q3) Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue?
A)hyoglossus
B)lateral pterygoideus
C)sternohyoid
D)thyrohyoid
E)geniohyoid
Q4) The ________ muscle elevates the upper eye lid.
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Chapter 12: Neural Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by A)astrocytes.
B)satellite cells.
C)oligodendrocytes.
D)microglia.
E)ependymal cells.
Q2) Integral membrane proteins that connect electrical synapses are called A)connexons.
B)receptors.
C)desmosomes.
D)sodium channels.
E)synapsins.
Q3) ________ are nerves that connect to the brain.(Note: Be sure to capitalize the first letter of your answer).
Q4) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate?
A)It would last indefinitely.
B)It would be much briefer.
C)It would be basically unaffected.
Q5) The basic functional unit of the nervous system are cells called ________.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The spinal cord is part of the A)peripheral nervous system.
B)somatic nervous system.
C)central nervous system.
D)autonomic nervous system.
E)afferent nervous system.
Q2) The outermost connective-tissue covering of nerves is the A)endoneurium.
B)endomysium.
C)perineurium.
D)epineurium.
E)epimysium.
Q3) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called ________.
Q4) All of the following are true of neural reflexes,except that they A)are automatic motor responses.
B)are the simplest form of behavior. C)help preserve homeostasis.
D)cannot be modified by the brain.
E)involve at least two neurons.
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the A)tegmenta.
B)corpora quadrigemina.
C)cerebral peduncles.
D)superior colliculi.
E)inferior colliculi.
Q2) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum are called ________.
Q3) During embryonic development,which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the cerebrum?
A)telencephalon
B)diencephalon
C)mesencephalon
D)metencephalon
E)myelencephalon
Q4) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex.
A)cerebrum
B)thalamus
C)pons
D)medulla oblongata
E)cerebellum
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Chapter 15: Neural Integration I: Sensory Pathways and the
Somatic
Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cerebellum relies on information from A)the eyes.
B)the inner ear as movements are underway.
C)proprioceptive sensations.
D)motor commands from upper motor neurons.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q2) What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side?
A)loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body
B)loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body
C)loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body
D)loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body
E)complete hemiplegia (paralysis)on the left side of the body
Q3) The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following,except
A)temperature.
B)taste.
C)touch.
D)vibration.
E)pain.
Q4) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a ________.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Neural Integration Ii: the Autonomic Nervous
System and
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation
A)increases heart rate.
B)increases gastric motility.
C)causes sweat glands to secrete.
D)causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
E)causes the pupils to dilate.
Q2) The statement "its ganglia are usually near or within the end organ" is
A)true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B)true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C)true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D)not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E)true only for the somatic nervous system.
Q3) Which of these provides preganglionic parasympathetic innervation to structures in the neck and in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities?
A)vagus nerves
B)sciatic nerves
C)glossopharyngeal nerves
D)pelvic nerves
E)cervicothoracocabdominopelvic nerves
Q4) Unpaired sympathetic ganglia are called ________ ganglia.
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ days before it is replaced.
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A)suspensory ligaments
B)optic disc
C)sclera
D)fovea
E)pupil
Q3) Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest?
A)under normal room light
B)in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes
C)immediately after going outside in bright sunlight
D)focusing intently on a close object
E)focusing intently on a distant object
Q4) When ________,the visual system becomes extremely sensitive to stimulation.
Q5) The olfactory receptors are highly modified ________.
Q6) A person suffering from ________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are close.
Q7) The secretion commonly called earwax is produced by ________ glands.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Calcium ions serve as messengers,often in combination with the intracellular protein
A)calcitonin.
B)calcitriol.
C)calmodulin.
D)calcium-binding globulin.
E)calcitropin.
Q2) The heart is known to secrete all of the following hormones,except A)ANP.
B)BNP.
C)thymosin.
D)thyroxine.
E)thymosin and thyroxine.
Q3) Which of the following directly regulates the secretion of insulin?
A)parasympathetic nervous system
B)sympathetic nervous system
C)blood-glucose concentration
D)hypothalamus
E)tropic hormones from the pituitary gland
Q4) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the ________.
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn:
A)mother Rh positive,baby Rh negative
B)mother Rh negative,baby Rh negative
C)mother Rh negative,baby Rh positive
D)mother type A+,baby type O+
E)None of the answers are correct.
Q2) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.
A)Polycythemia
B)Leukemia
C)Anemia
D)Leukopenia
E)Thrombocytopenia
Q3) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
A)metalloprotein
B)steroid-binding protein
C)hormone-binding protein
D)apolipoprotein
E)transport albumin
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day.
A)1,000
B)10,000
C)100,000
D)1,000,000
E)10,000,000
Q2) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the A)right atrium.
B)left atrium.
C)right ventricle.
D)left ventricle.
E)interatrial septum.
Q3) The left ventricle pumps blood to the A)lungs.
B)right ventricle.
C)right atrium.
D)aorta.
E)pulmonary circuit.
Q4) As the heart rate slows,________ gets longer.
Q5) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called ________.
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vessel that collects blood from the overlying structures of the head and neck is the ________.
Q2) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm.
Q3) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A)perforated capillaries.
B)discontinuous capillaries.
C)fenestrated capillaries.
D)sinuses.
E)vasa vasorum.
Q4) In response to hemorrhage,there is
A)peripheral vasodilation.
B)increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C)mobilization of the venous reserve.
D)constriction of elastic arteries to maintain blood pressure.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q5) After the precapillary arteriole,blood enters a ________.
Q6) The common carotid artery divides to form the ________ and ________ carotid arteries.
Q7) Venules feed blood into ________.
Page 24
Q8) The ________ receives blood from the diaphragm.
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Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses,bacteria,and bacterial toxins are
A)IgA.
B)IgD.
C)IgE.
D)IgG.
E)IgM.
Q2) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system.
Q3) Cyclosporin A is an example of a drug that inhibits ________ of a transplanted organ.
Q4) The portions of an antigen to which antibodies bind are the ________.
Q5) The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group.
Q6) In a(n)________ either the immune system fails to develop normally or the immune response is blocked.
Q7) Lymphocytes provide an adaptive or specific defense known as the
A)phagocytic response.
B)adaptive defense.
C)immune response.
D)lymphocytic response.
E)inflammation of tissues.
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of
A)pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B)moist cuboidal epithelium.
C)simple squamous epithelium.
D)ciliated squamous epithelium.
E)surfactant cells.
Q2) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A)oropharynx
B)trachea
C)larynx
D)bronchi
E)alveoli
Q3) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
Q4) Use of the accessory respiratory muscles is characteristic of forced breathing or ________ .
Q5) When the inspiratory muscles relax,the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of ________.
Q6) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability,how easily the lungs expand and contract.
Q7) The superior region of the pharynx is called the ________.
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) G cells of the stomach secrete A)cholecystokinin. B)secretin.
C)gastrin.
D)enteropeptidase. E)pepsin.
Q2) An enzyme that digests proteins into peptides is A)lipase. B)amylase.
C)nuclease.
D)maltase. E)trypsin.
Q3) Sensory nerve cells,parasympathetic ganglia,and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the A)mucosa.
B)serosa.
C)adventitia.
D)submucosal plexus. E)lamina propria.
Q4) Pancreatic juice enters the small intestine at the ________.
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Chapter 25: Metabolism and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major cation in cytoplasm is A)sodium.
B)potassium.
C)calcium.
D)magnesium.
E)iron.
Q2) What is the molecule labeled "5"?
A)fumaric acid
B)citric acid
C)4-carbon molecule
D)malic acid
E)oxaloacetic acid
Q3) Factors that influence an individual's BMR (basal metabolic rate)include all of the following,except
A)physical exertion.
B)age.
C)body weight.
D)genetics.
E)gender.
Q4) According to the food pyramid,there are ________ basic food groups.
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) Filtrate first passes from the glomerular capsule to the
A)nephron loop (loop of Henle).
B)proximal convoluted tubule.
C)distal convoluted tubule.
D)collecting duct.
E)minor calyx.
Q2) Antidiuretic hormone
A)increases the permeability of the collecting ducts to water.
B)is secreted in response to low potassium ion in the blood.
C)causes the kidneys to produce a larger volume of very dilute urine.
D)is secreted by the anterior pituitary.
E)release is insensitive to the osmolarity of interstitial fluid.
Q3) One mechanism the kidney uses to raise systemic blood pressure is to
A)increase secretion of renin by the juxtaglomerular complex.
B)decrease secretion of aldosterone.
C)increase release of angiotensin II by the suprarenal glands.
D)increase filtration into glomerular (Bowman's)capsule.
E)decrease urinary albumin concentration.
Q4) The ________ is the plasma concentration at which a specific compound will begin appearing in the urine.
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Chapter 27: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ promotes water reabsorption at the kidneys and stimulates thirst.
Q2) Which of the following will stimulate thirst?
A)drying the mucosa of the mouth and pharynx
B)angiotensin II acting on the hypothalamus
C)an increase in the osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid within the hypothalamus
D)stimulation of osmoreceptors
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of
A)chronic respiratory acidosis.
B)chronic respiratory alkalosis.
C)acute respiratory acidosis.
D)chronic metabolic acidosis.
Q4) Excess hydrogen ion is eliminated from the body largely by A)sweating.
B)the kidneys.
C)the liver.
D)the feces.
E)buffers.
Q5) Hypercapnia refers to elevated levels of ________.
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Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34537
Sample Questions
Q1) The organ that surrounds the urethra and produces an alkaline secretion is the A)seminal gland (seminal vesicle).
B)bulbourethral gland.
C)prostate gland.
D)preputial gland.
E)Bartholin's gland.
Q2) The ________ is the rounded portion of the uterine body superior to the attachment of the uterine tubes.
A)body
B)cervix
C)myometrium
D)fundus
E)internal os
Q3) The broad ligament attaches to all of the following organs,except the A)ovaries.
B)uterine tubes.
C)uterus.
D)oviducts.
E)urinary bladder.
Q4) The surgical removal of the prepuce is called ________.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
140 Verified Questions
140 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/34538
Sample Questions
Q1) Identical twins that share body structures are called Siamese or ________ twins.
Q2) The gradual modification of anatomical structures during the period from conception to maturity is A)development.
B)differentiation.
C)embryogenesis.
D)capacitation.
E)All of the answers are correct.
Q3) The alternate forms of any one gene are called A)homologous.
B)homozygous.
C)heterozygous.
D)autosomes.
E)alleles.
Q4) Which of these is not one of the extraembryonic membranes?
A)yolk sac
B)amnion
C)allantois
D)chorion
E)umbilical cord
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