Health Sciences
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the study of human health and well-being, integrating knowledge from biology, medicine, nutrition, psychology, and public health. This course provides an understanding of the basic principles of health, disease prevention, and health promotion. Students will explore the human bodys structure and function, the impact of lifestyle and environmental factors on health, as well as healthcare systems, epidemiology, and current health challenges facing populations worldwide. The course aims to prepare students for further specialized study or careers in healthcare, wellness, research, or policy.
Recommended Textbook
Human Biology 15th Edition by Sylvia S. Mader Dr
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Chapter 1: Exploring Life and Science
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Q1) Only humans have a language that allows for the communication of information and experiences symbolically.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) An important part of scientific research is repeatability.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following statements most correctly defines homeostasis?
A) All living organisms are alike.
B) Living organisms do not change much over time.
C) Human beings and other animals acquire materials and energy when they eat food.
D) It takes energy to maintain the organization of the cell.
E) Cells and organisms maintain a fairly constant internal environment.
Answer: E
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hydrogen bonds
A) result from the loss of neutrons by an atom.
B) result in the formation of salts.
C) involve the loss and gain of electrons.
D) involve the sharing of electrons.
E) are relatively weak and can be broken rather easily.
Answer: E
Q2) Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> represents a(n)
A) element.
B) mixture.
C) compound.
D) isotope.
E) atom.
Answer: C
Q3) In biology,calling something organic means that it was grown without the use of any type of herbicide.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following does not utilize active transport?
A) movement of oxygen from the lungs into the blood
B) concentrating iodine ions in the thyroid gland
C) absorbing sugar in the gut
D) water homeostasis in the kidneys
E) movement of sodium and potassium in nerve cells
Answer: A
Q2) If a cell lacked ribosomes,it would not be able to
A) form a spindle apparatus.
B) synthesize proteins.
C) respire oxidatively.
D) break down fats.
E) produce ATP.
Answer: B
Q3) A malfunction with the microtubules would interfere with mitosis and meiosis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Organization and Regulation of Body Systems
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Q1) It is thought that President Abraham Lincoln suffered from a genetic disorder known as Marfan syndrome.Which types of fibers are affected in this disorder?
A) elastic fibers
B) reticular fibers
C) collagen fibers
D) hyaline fibers
E) ground fibers
Q2) There is no matrix in blood because it is a liquid.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The three major components of connective tissue are
A) cells, ground substance, and carbohydrate fibers.
B) cells, fat, and protein fibers.
C) cells, ground substance, and protein fibers.
D) cells, ground substance, and enzymes.
E) ground substance, enzymes, and protein fibers.
Q4) Smooth muscle in the bladder contracts to send urine into the urethra.
A)True
B)False
Q5) List and describe the three types of cartilage.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System: Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Q1) What is considered the pacemaker of the heart?
A) medulla oblongata
B) the sinoatrial node
C) the atrioventricular node
D) Purkinje fibers
E) atrioventricular bundle
Q2) Blood pressure plays a major role in returning venous blood to the heart.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the pulmonary circuit?
A) right atrium
B) right ventricle
C) left atrium
D) left ventricle
E) aorta
Q4) The blood from the digestive tract travels through two different veins before reaching the inferior vena cava.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Compare the structure and function of arteries to that of veins.
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Chapter 6: Cardiovascular System: Blood
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Q1) If there is a problem with clotting,what plasma protein may be involved?
A) fibrinogens
B) gamma globulins
C) alpha globulins
D) albumins
E) beta globulins
Q2) RBCs are better known as _____ and WBCs are better known as _____.
A) lymphocytes; monocytes
B) erythrocytes; eosinophils
C) leukocytes; erythrocytes
D) erythrocytes; leukocytes
E) macrophages; neutrophils
Q3) Robby has type B positive blood.His blood will contain
A)A and Rh antigens,and anti-B antibodies.
B)A but no Rh antigens,and anti-B antibodies.
C)B but no Rh antigens,and anti-A antibodies.
D)B and Rh antigens,and anti-A antibodies.
E)B and Rh antigens,and no antibodies.
Q4) List the steps involved in the formation of a blood clot.When a blood vessel is punctured
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Chapter 7: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) If the lymph system did not do its job,what would be one of the consequences?
A) excess glucose in the blood stream
B) slow reaction time to external stimuli
C) inability to clot
D) edema in the tissues
E) jaundice
Q2) Monocytes become what type of cell in the tissue?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) macrophages
E) red blood cells
Q3) Cytotoxic T cells contain which type of molecules that punch holes in the plasma membranes of potential pathogens?
A) steroid
B) interferon
C) antioxidant
D) complement
E) perforin
Q4) Explain the presence and function of the IgA class of antibodies.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Infectious Diseases
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Q1) Describe the causative agents and transmission of tuberculosis.
Q2) Why might an HIV test be negative within the first two to three weeks of an HIV infection?
A) because there is no HIV in the blood
B) because there are no detectable levels of HIV antibodies in the blood
C) because there are no symptoms
D) because the CD4 T-cell count is above 500 cells/mm<sup>3</sup>
E) because there are no opportunistic infections yet
Q3) Which of the following factors is/are helping increase the incidence of emerging diseases?
A) global warming
B) expansion of range by insect vectors
C) abuse of antibiotics
D) poor implementation of vaccination programs
E) All of these factors are helping increase the incidence of emerging diseases.
Q4) List and explain the events that occur during the reproductive cycle of an HIV virus.
Q5) Infection with HIV is listed as the cause of death for an AIDS patient.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Digestive System and Nutrition
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Q1) Which of the following is a digestive hormone that causes the gallbladder to release stored bile?
A) GIP
B) CCK
C) HCl
D) ATP
E) NAD
Q2) About 90% of people suffering from anorexia nervosa are
A) young men.
B) older women.
C) young women.
D) older men.
E) senior citizens.
Q3) Today,physicians and dentists are concerned that gum disease is linked to _____.
A) neurological disorders
B) peritonitis
C) vitamin deficiencies
D) cardiovascular disease
E) asthma
Q4) List the functions of the liver.
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Chapter 10: Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Inhalation is another word for inspiration.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Ventilation includes
A) inspiration only.
B) expiration only.
C) both inspiration and expiration.
D) the volume of air that can be exhaled.
E) the transportation of oxygen to cells in the body.
Q3) Which type of infecting organism causes strep throat?
A) bacterium
B) virus
C) fungus
D) parasitic worm
E) protist
Q4) Explain the nervous system's control of the respiratory system.
Q5) Humans inhale by negative pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 11: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If you do not drink enough water,which hormone will the hypothalamus produce to regulate urine production?
A) renin
B) ADH
C) ANH
D) aldosterone
E) diuretics
Q2) Which of the following is considered a secondary or additional function of the urinary system?
A) synthesis of vitamin D
B) excretion of metabolic wastes
C) secretion of hormones
D) maintenance of acid-base balance
E) maintenance of water-salt balance
Q3) The urethra in females is much longer than in males.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The renal pyramids are located within the renal pelvis.
A)True
B)False
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Skeletal System
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Q1) Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone?
A) scapula
B) maxilla
C) hyoid
D) coccyx
E) temporal
Q2) How many vertebrae are there?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 18
D) 24
E) 33
Q3) Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs?
A) clavicle
B) sternum
C) scapula
D) ulna
E) humerus
Q4) List and describe the three types of joints found in the human body.
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Chapter 13: Muscular System
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Q1) Of the three types of muscle tissue,which has multinucleated fibers?
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) both smooth and skeletal muscles
E) both cardiac and smooth muscles
Q2) The origin of a muscle is on a stationary bone.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Muscles can only pull; they cannot push.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which of the following does not occur when you are very,very cold?
A) More blood flows to the surface of the body.
B) Smooth muscle contracts inside the blood vessels supplying the skin.
C) The arrector pili muscles contract.
D) Shivering occurs.
E) You get goose bumps.
Q5) Explain the differences between fast-twitch and slow-twitch muscle fibers.
Q6) List the functions of the skeletal muscles.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following areas is not associated with the frontal lobe?
A) primary motor area
B) primary visual area
C) premotor area
D) motor speech (Broca's) area
E) prefrontal area
Q2) Which of the following statements about cranial nerves is not true?
A) Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves.
B) The cranial nerves are referred to by roman numerals.
C) Some cranial nerves are only sensory nerves, while some are only motor fibers. Others are mixed.
D) Cranial nerves are largely associated with the head, neck, and face.
E) The vagus nerve is a cranial nerve.
Q3) Which two drugs are in the same category?
A) nicotine and alcohol
B) nicotine and heroin
C) alcohol and heroin
D) cocaine and marijuana
E) marijuana and heroin
Q4) List the order of events that will occur during a reflex arc.
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Senses
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Q1) Which of the following statements is not true concerning olfactory cells?
A) Olfactory cells are located in the roof of the nasal cavity.
B) Olfactory cells are modified neurons.
C) Each olfactory cell has only one out of several hundred different types of receptor proteins.
D) Each olfactory cell has its own individual neuron leading to the olfactory bulb.
E) Olfactory cells end in a tuft of about five cilia.
Q2) Which of the following is not a layer or coat of the eye?
A) sclera
B) choroid
C) retina
D) aqueous humor
E) collagen fibers
Q3) All of the parts of the inner ear are concerned with equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The louder a pitch,the more the basilar membrane vibrates.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 16: Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cramping associated with premenstrual syndrome is often due to norepinephrine.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is not produced by the adrenal glands?
A) epinephrine
B) norepinephrine
C) glucagon
D) glucocorticoids
E) mineralocorticoids
Q3) Where is the thymus gland located?
A) in the neck
B) in the brain
C) in the chest
D) near the ovaries/testes
E) on top of the kidneys
Q4) Glycogen can be broken down to increase blood glucose levels,but fat cannot be.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain how the adrenal cortex responds to long term stress.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Reproductive System
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Q1) Which structure of the male reproductive system is also part of the urinary system?
A) bulbourethral gland
B) prostate gland
C) urethra
D) vas deferens
E) testes
Q2) Following ovulation,the follicle
A) becomes the corpus luteum and produces sex hormones.
B) disappears immediately.
C) becomes a vesicular or Graafian follicle.
D) becomes a secondary follicle containing a secondary oocyte.
E) becomes a polar body.
Q3) Which of the following parts of the female reproductive system is not present in pairs?
A) uterus
B) ovary
C) oviduct
D) fimbriae
E) uterine tube
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Development and Aging
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Q1) Which of the following occurs during the embryonic stage of development?
A) Chorion appears.
B) Nose, eyes, and ears become noticeable.
C) Testes descend into the scrotum.
D) Heartbeat can be heard.
E) Fingernails appear.
Q2) Why would you predict that the blood carbon dioxide levels in a pregnant woman would fall?
A) She has trouble breathing due to the expanding uterus.
B) The fetus is removing carbon dioxide from her blood.
C) The maternal oxygen levels are also falling.
D) Pregnancy creates a favorable concentration gradient between the fetal and maternal blood.
E) The bronchial tubes relax.
Q3) Which of the following develops into the male genital ducts?
A) epididymis
B) urogenital groove
C) cloaca
D) Mullerian ducts
E) Wolffian ducts
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Chapter 19: Patterns of Chromosome Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following is not a stage of mitosis?
A) interphase
B) prophase
C) metaphase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
Q2) At what two checkpoints does the cell check for the integrity of the DNA?
A) G<sub>1</sub> and G<sub>2</sub>
B) G<sub>1</sub> and mitotic
C) G<sub>2</sub> and mitotic
D) cytokinesis and G<sub>2</sub>
E) G<sub>1</sub> and cytokinesis
Q3) In a karyotype it can be seen that a homologous pair of duplicated chromosomes will contain how many chromatids?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) six
Q4) List the stages of mitosis and explain the key events during each of the stages.
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Chapter 20: Cancer
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Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic that distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells?
A) Cancer cells lack differentiation.
B) Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei.
C) Cancer cells use mitosis to divide.
D) Cancer cells have an unlimited potential to replicate.
E) Cancer cells form tumors.
Q2) What do BRCA1 and p53 have in common?
A) Both cause breast cancer.
B) Both cause eye cancers.
C) Both are oncogenes.
D) Both are tumor suppressors.
E) Both are inherited as autosomal dominant traits.
Q3) What is the most common cancer found in males?
A) colon and rectum
B) urinary and bladder
C) melanoma of the skin
D) oral cavity
E) prostate
Q4) List standard therapies and newer therapies for the treatment of cancer.
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Patterns of Genetic Inheritance
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Q1) Which of the following traits would not be considered multifactorial?
A) alcoholism
B) suicide risk
C) cleft lip/palate
D) diabetes
E) ABO blood type
Q2) Which of the following individuals has a recessive phenotype?
A) AA
B) Aa
C) AaBb
D) aabb
E) aAbB
Q3) Which of the following terms refers to the genes of an individual?
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) gamete
D) probability
E) autosomal
Q4) Describe the term "polygenic traits."
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Chapter 22: Dna Biology and Technology
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Q1) What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides into the new strand?
A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA helicase
C) DNA replicase
D) DNA ligase
E) DNA telomerase
Q2) What is the goal of functional genomics?
A) to determine all of the human genome sequence
B) to determine the genome sequence of other organisms useful to humans
C) to determine the purpose of our genes and how they form a human being
D) to determine how all the proteins within the cell interact
E) to carry out gene therapy for human diseases
Q3) Which of the following is a benefit gained from learning how to sequence DNA?
A) identification of faulty genes
B) development of treatments for diseases
C) modification of crops to increase yields
D) understanding of our evolutionary history
E) all of these are benefits gained from DNA sequencing
Q4) List and explain the five steps involved in DNA replication.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Human Evolution
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Q1) On what basis was life divided into three domains?
A) rRNA sequence data
B) cytochrome c sequence data
C) mitochondrial DNA sequence data
D) the presence or absence of a nucleus and organelles
E) presence or absence of mammary glands
Q2) Homo habilis was the first hominid to use fire.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Miller's experiment showed that life could arise via chemical evolution.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Which primate is found within the anthropoid group with humans?
A) monkeys
B) lemurs
C) tarsiers
D) lorises
E) elephants
Q5) List and explain the elements of the natural selection process.
Q6) Describe the four stages of chemical and biological evolution.
Page 25
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Chapter 24: Ecology and the Nature of Ecosystems
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Q1) Timothy has become a vegan.He does not eat any meat,eggs,milk,or cheese.How would Timothy be classified?
A) producer
B) herbivore
C) carnivore
D) omnivore
E) detritus feeder
Q2) Water vapor contributes to global warming.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Decomposers perform a valuable service because they recycle nutrients.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What do autotrophs require in order to produce food for themselves and all the heterotrophs?
A) sunlight, inorganic nutrients
B) sunlight, organic nutrients
C) an energy source, water
D) an energy source, inorganic nutrients
E) heat, water
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Chapter 25: Human Interactions With the Biosphere
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Q1) Wind is to a wind farm as what is to hydropower?
A) flowing water
B) solar energy
C) hydrogen gas
D) steam
E) hot salt
Q2) Decorative plants and exotic pets often suffer from overexploitation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a way to reduce your ecological footprint?
A) drive an energy-efficient car
B) eat more beef
C) live in a smaller home
D) turn down the thermostat in the winter
E) refrain from watering the lawn
Q4) Is it important to save the wild relatives of our current crop plants,even at great cost?
A)True
B)False
Q5) Explain the consequences of groundwater depletion.
Page 27
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