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Health Sciences Biology provides students with a comprehensive foundation in the biological principles essential to understanding human health, disease, and medical science. Covering cell biology, genetics, physiology, microbiology, and immunology, the course emphasizes how biological processes relate to health systems and medical practice. Students will explore topics such as cellular structure and function, human anatomy, disease mechanisms, and the impact of genetics and environment on health. Laboratory components reinforce theoretical knowledge with hands-on experience in scientific investigation, data analysis, and critical thinking, preparing students for advanced study in health sciences and related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology An Integrative Approach 2nd Edition by McKinley
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3928 Verified Questions
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Q1) The pleural cavity is the
A)same as the mediastinum.
B)the serous membrane lining the abdomen.
C)space within which the heart sits.
D)potential space between the two serous membranes surrounding a lung.
Answer: D
Q2) Both anatomists and physiologists are aware that form and function are interrelated.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which describes the anatomic position
A)Body is upright.
B)Palms are facing forward.
C)Thumbs point away from the body.
D)Feet are flat on the floor.
E)All of these apply.
Answer: E
Q4) The hypogastric region is located ______ to the right iliac region.
Answer: medial
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Q1) An atomic nucleus consists of protons and neutrons and is positively charged.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which of the following is an accurate description of hydrocarbons
A)Most of them contain phosphorus.
B)They are nonpolar molecules.
C)Most of them contain sulfur.
D)They are polar molecules.
Answer: B
Q3) The first amino acid put in place when a protein is being synthesized at a ribosome is
A)glycine.
B)tryptophan.
C)methionine.
D)cysteine.
E)proline.
Answer: C
Q4) An atom with a positive or negative charge is known as a(n)________.
Answer: ion
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Sample Questions
Q1) To prevent depletion of a substrate,the product of a metabolic pathway will
A)turn off an enzyme early in the pathway.
B)catalyze its own production.
C)increase enzyme activity through positive feedback.
D)occupy the active site of an enzyme early in the pathway.
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement accurately describes the effects of substrate and enzyme concentrations on reaction rate
A)An increase in either substrate or enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate.
B)An increase in either substrate or enzyme concentration will decrease the reaction rate.
C)An increase in substrate concentration increases the reaction rate,but enzyme concentration has no effect.
D)A decrease in substrate concentration or an increase in enzyme concentration increases the reaction rate.
E)An increase in substrate concentration or a decrease in enzyme concentration will increase the reaction rate.
Answer: A
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Q1) Placing a red blood cell in an extremely hypertonic solution leads to hemolysis.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pigment melanin is a(n)
A)membrane-bound organelle.
B)non-membrane-bound organelle.
C)inclusion.
D)nutrient.
E)triglyceride.
Q3) The sodium-potassium ATPase functions by performing
A)primary active transport.
B)secondary active transport.
C)exocytosis.
D)both exocytosis and endocytosis.
E)receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Q4) Describe the process of transcription.What does it produce Where in the cell does it occur What molecules are involved
Explain what happens in each of the following stages: initiation,elongation,termination,and splicing.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The type of muscle that is found in blood vessel walls is __________ muscle.
A)skeletal
B)cardiac
C)smooth
Q2) Where in the body would you expect to find a perichondrium
A)Covering bones
B)Lining kidney tubules
C)Covering the heart
D)Inside of the brain
E)Covering cartilage
Q3) Dendrites
A)transmit signals away from the cell body.
B)transmit signals toward the cell body.
C)manufacture proteins to be used by the neuron.
D)use hormones to transmit information.
E)release neurotransmitter.
Q4) In nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue,the cells in the superficial layers are dead.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Severe injuries and burns to the skin result in scars that are
A)produced by stratum basale keratinocytes,which effectively bind damaged skin parts together.
B)produced by chondrocytes and made mainly of desmosomes.
C)produced by fibroblasts and made mainly of collagen.
D)made by macrophages,which produce a dense granulation tissue.
E)fully functional regenerations.
Q2) The part of the hair that extends beyond the skin surface is called the A)shaft.
B)root.
C)bulb.
D)papilla.
E)alopecia.
Q3) Keratinocytes are
A)the most abundant cell type in the epidermis.
B)found throughout all epidermal strata.
C)sometimes alive and sometimes dead,depending on where they are found.
D)able to synthesize the protein keratin.
E)All of the choices are correct.
Q4) Sebaceous glands discharge an oily,waxy secretion called _______.
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Q1) Where does hemopoiesis occur
A)Epiphyseal line
B)Endosteum
C)Red bone marrow
D)Yellow bone marrow
E)Nutrient foramina
Q2) Which is not true about bone remodeling
A)It occurs throughout life.
B)It assists in the maintenance of calcium and phosphate levels in the body.
C)It occurs at both the endosteal and periosteal surfaces of the bone.
D)It occurs only at articular surfaces.
E)It can occur in response to stress on a bone.
Q3) Interstitial growth of cartilage increases its ______ and occurs in the _______ region of the cartilage.
A)length;internal
B)length;peripheral
C)width;internal
D)width;peripheral
Q4) With aging comes insufficient ossification of bone,a condition known as
9
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Q1) This figure shows the major cavities within the skull.Which number indicates the frontal sinus
A)1
B)2
C)3
D)4
E)The frontal sinus is not shown on this figure.
Q2) Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim
A)Arcuate line
B)Sacral promontory
C)Pubic crest
D)Gluteal line
E)Pectineal line
Q3) The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the
A)pterygoid process.
B)pterygoid plate.
C)greater wing.
D)lesser wing.
E)sella turcica.
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Q4) The ____________ arch of the foot runs perpendicular to the longitudinal arches.
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Q1) Which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow
A)Glenohumeral and humeroulnar
B)Humeroulnar and humeroradial
C)Humeroulnar,humeroradial,and radioulnar
D)Humeroradial,radioulnar,and radiocarpal
E)Humeroradial and radioulnar
Q2) Which are not considered to be features of a synovial joint
A)Muscles
B)Nerves
C)Blood vessels
D)Articular cartilage
E)Synovial fluid
Q3) The connection between a tooth and jaw bone is an example of a joint.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A slightly mobile joint is referred to as a(n)_________.
Q5) The joints in the body that are the most mobile,such as the glenohumeral joint or coxal joint,are also the most stable.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The repolarization of the action potential involves the opening of
A)chemically gated Na<sup>+</sup>channels.
B)voltage-gated Na<sup>+</sup>channels.
C)chemically gated K<sup>+</sup>channels.
D)voltage-gated K<sup>+</sup>channels.
Q2) Which letter is associated with a zone (in a relaxed muscle)that is a little more lightly shaded because only thick filaments are present
A)I
B)A
C)M
D)Z
E)H
Q3) A continuous,smooth contraction of muscle in which twitches are fully fused is referred to as _________.
Q4) Phosphate transfer is used for
A)immediate ATP needs and is dependent on oxygen.
B)immediate ATP needs and is not dependent on oxygen.
C)long term ATP needs and is dependent on oxygen.
D)long term ATP needs and is not dependent on the presence of oxygen.
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Q1) As a baseball pitcher winds up to throw,he medially rotates his arm by contracting his
A)supraspinatus.
B)subscapularis.
C)infraspinatus.
D)teres minor.
Q2) The piriformis muscle inserts on the greater trochanter of the femur.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which muscle "unlocks" the fully extended knee joint
A)Popliteus
B)Tibialis posterior
C)Tibialis anterior
D)Gastrocnemius
E)Soleus
Q4) The pelvic diaphragm supports the pelvic viscera.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The _________ of a muscle is its less movable attachment. Page 13
Q5) The rectus abdominis inserts on the _________ process,as well as on ribs 5-7.
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Q1) What type of circuit would you use to solve a higher-order mathematical problem
A)Converging
B)Diverging
C)Reverberating
D)Parallel-after-discharge
E)None of the choices is correct.
Q2) One of the ways in which neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft is
A)endocytosis by the postsynaptic cell.
B)reuptake by the presynaptic cell.
C)phagocytosis by a macrophage.
D)dendritic lassos.
Q3) The monoamine that has functions related to sleep,appetite,cognition,and mood is A)dopamine.
B)serotonin.
C)norepinephrine.
D)acetylcholine.
E)epinephrine.
Q4) The motor nervous system is also known as the __________ nervous sytem.
Q5) ___________ is the release of chemicals that locally regulate the response of neurons to neurotransmitters.
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Q1) Damage to which lobe of the brain (that normally plans appropriate behavior)has been most frequently associated with personality abnormalities
A)Frontal
B)Parietal
C)Occipital
D)Temporal
E)Insula
Q2) Alpha and beta waves are typically seen in an awake,alert adult,and indicate a brain functioning normally.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is the most anterior cranial nerve
A)Trochlear
B)Optic
C)Olfactory
D)Oculomotor
E)Accessory
Q4) An arch of white matter that connects the hippocampus to structures in the diencephalon is the ________.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The third cervical spinal nerve exits the vertebral column through the
A)intervertebral foramen between C2 and C3 vertebrae.
B)intervertebral foramen between C3 and C4 vertebrae.
C)transverse foramen of C3 vertebra.
D)vertebral canal of vertebrae C2,C3,and C4.
Q2) The large section of spinal white matter that is found between the posterior gray horns is known as the posterior A)commissure.
B)funiculus.
C)decussation.
D)peduncle.
Q3) A typical spinal cord in an adult is
A)24-26 inches long.
B)12-14 inches long.
C)8-10 inches long.
D)16-18 inches long.
E)20-24 inches long.
Q4) Which type of reflex occurs with the smallest delay
A)Polysynaptic
B)Monosynaptic

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Q1) In the parasympathetic division,_________ ganglia are located close to the target organ.
Q2) Activation of parasympathetic fibers in pelvic splanchnic nerves leads to
A)inhibition of urinary bladder contractions.
B)erection of the male penis and female clitoris.
C)decreased secretions in the digestive tract.
D)an increase in the heart rate.
E)decreased secretion of adrenaline from the adrenal glands.
Q3) Stimulation of \(\beta\)<sub>2</sub>receptors in the lung causes A)bronchoconstriction. B)bronchodilation.
Q4) _______ nerves are composed of preganglionic sympathetic axons that did not synapse in a sympathetic ganglion.
Q5) Which of the diagrams illustrates a parasympathetic ANS pathway
A)1
B)2
Q6) The parasympathetic postganglionic axons that travel to the pupillary constrictor muscle result in pupil ________ when the eye is exposed to bright light.
Q7) White rami appear white in color due to the fact that they are ___________.
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Q1) Axons from the vestibular nerve project to each of the cranial nuclei that control the extrinsic eye muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The route that the sensation of taste follows is
A: Primary axons pass along cranial nerves VII and IX.
B: Primary neurons synapse in the nucleus solitarius.
C: Secondary neurons synapse in the thalamus.
D: Tertiary neurons travel to the primary gustatory cortex.
A)a,b,c,d
B)b,c,a,d
C)a,d,b,c
D)d,c,b,a
E)c,d,a,b
Q3) Olfactory receptor cells are _____ neurons.
A)multipolar
B)unipolar
C)bipolar
D)nonpolar
E)apolar
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Q1) Thyroid hormone is somewhat unique in that it is a
A)biogenic amine that is lipid-soluble.
B)protein hormone that is water-soluble.
C)steroid hormone that is water-soluble.
D)steroid hormone that is lipid-soluble.
E)monoamine that is water-soluble.
Q2) This figure shows the pituitary gland.Which number indicates the pars nervosa
A)1
B)2
C)4
D)5
E)6
Q3) When a chemical messenger helps initiate an inflammatory response by causing cellular changes in neighboring cells,it is demonstrating ___________ signaling.
A)autocrine
B)paracrine
C)allomone
D)pheromone
Q4) Alpha cells of the pancreas secrete the hormone _________.
Q5) Modified amino acids that act as hormones are referred to as ________ amines.
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Q1) The iron that has been transferred to the liver after the aged erythrocytes were phagocytized is stored by the protein _______________.
Q2) Old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the A)liver.
B)spleen. C)lung.
D)liver and spleen. E)spleen and lung.
Q3) Plasma makes up about ______ percent of a centrifuged sample of whole blood. A)25 B)35 C)45
D)55 E)75
Q4) In many of the elderly,leukocytes appear to be
A)decreased in number and less efficient.
B)decreased in number but more efficient.
C)increased in number but more efficient. D)increased in number and more efficient.
Q5) The rupture of erythrocytes is called ____________.
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Q1) Which layer is made of dense irregular connective tissue
A)Myocardium
B)Fibrous pericardium
C)Epicardium
D)Serous pericardium
E)Endocardium
Q2) The internal wall surface of each ventricle displays large,smooth,irregular muscular ridges called
A)conus arteriosus.
B)atrioventricular opening.
C)trabeculae carneae.
D)tendinous cords.
E)pectinate muscles.
Q3) Myofibrils within cardiac muscle cells are aligned in sarcomeres.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The heartbeat is initiated by the cells of the _______________ node.or
Q5) The property that allows the heart to initiate each heartbeat itself is called
Q6) The _______________ cardiac vein travels alongside the right marginal artery.
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Q1) An increase in blood vessel diameter would lead to a decrease in blood flow.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The function of the postcapillary venule is to
A)allow for diffusion of nutrients to the tissues.
B)allow for diffusion of metabolic wastes from the tissues.
C)drain the capillary bed.
D)supply metarteriole with blood.
E)allow for diffusion of nutrients and metabolic wastes.
Q3) The respiratory pump assists blood movement within the veins of the trunk,because as a person inspires,
A)intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure both increase.
B)intra-abdominal and intrathoracic pressure both decrease.
C)intra-abdominal pressure increases and intrathoracic pressure decreases.
D)intra-abdominal pressure decreases and intrathoracic pressure increases.
Q4) Give the formula for net filtration pressure;then include typical values (at the arterial end of a capillary bed)for all variables and include units.
Q5) The cyclical process of contracting and relaxing of the precapillary sphincters is called _________________.
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Q1) Where do T-lymphocytes mature
A)Spleen
B)White bone marrow
C)Tonsils
D)Thymus gland
E)Thyroid gland
Q2) Obstruction of the flow of lymph in lymphatic vessels can lead to an accumulation of interstitial fluid in the tissues.This condition is characterized by pain and swelling,and is called ________________.
Q3) Lymph contains protein.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Lymph contains red blood cells.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In which abdominal quadrant is the spleen located
A)Left upper quadrant
B)Right upper quadrant
C)Left lower quadrant
D)Right lower quadrant
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Q1) When they leave the red marrow,pre-T-lymphocytes have
A)only the CD4 protein.
B)only the CD8 protein.
C)both the CD4 and CD8 proteins.
D)neither the CD4 nor CD8 protein.
E)either the CD4 or CD8 protein.
Q2) In the classical pathway of complement activation,
A)complement is activated within liver cells and released into the blood.
B)complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance.
C)complement binds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall.
D)complement inhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins.
Q3) As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus,they are
A)naive and not yet competent.
B)naive and immunocompetent.
C)activated but not yet competent.
D)activated and immunocompetent.
Q4) Dendritic cells serve as antigen-presenting cells.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The terms "upper respiratory system" and "lower respiratory system" are ___________ categorizations of the respiratory system.
A)structural
B)functional
C)outdated
Q2) Into what region of the pharynx do auditory tubes open
A)Oropharynx
B)Nasopharynx
C)Laryngopharynx
Q3) Mucous secretions of the respiratory tract include antimicrobial substances such as lysozyme and defensins.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A buildup of fluid in the lungs caused by pneumonia leads to an increase in the A)physiologic dead space.
B)anatomic dead space.
C)residual volume.
Q5) The bronchial circulation is a component of the pulmonary circulation.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) Large proteins and red blood cells normally pass freely through the filtration membrane.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The basement membrane of the glomerulus is composed of glycoproteins and _________,and it restricts the passage of _________.
A)phospholipids;plasma ions
B)phospholipids;plasma proteins
C)proteoglycans;plasma ions
D)proteoglycans;plasma proteins
Q3) To test someone's glomerular filtration rate,the individual is injected with the polysaccharide _____________.
Q4) Where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney
A)Renal cortex
B)Renal sinus
C)Renal pelvis
D)Renal medulla
E)Renal papilla
Q5) The concave medial border of the kidney is called the __________.
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Q1) The stimuli that trigger the release of ADH are
A)high blood pressure,high blood volume,and high blood osmolarity.
B)high blood pressure,low blood volume,and low blood osmolarity.
C)low blood pressure,low blood volume,and high blood osmolarity.
D)low blood pressure,high blood volume,and high blood osmolarity.
E)low blood pressure,low blood volume,and low blood osmolarity.
Q2) A substance that dissociates in water to form cations and anions is called a nonelectrolyte.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which type of intake accounts for most of our daily fluid intake
A)Metabolic water
B)Preformed water
Q4) Insulin causes blood plasma levels of potassium to ________ by _______ activity of the Na<sup>+</sup>/K<sup>+</sup>pumps. A)increase;stimulating B)increase;inhibiting C)decrease;stimulating D)decrease;inhibiting
Q5) An elevated level of potassium in the blood is referred to as __________.
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Q1) What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine,starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum
A: Left colic flexure
B: Ascending colon
C: Transverse colon
D: Right colic flexure
E: Sigmoid colon
F: Descending colon
A)f,c,d,e,a,b
B)b,d,c,a,f,e
C)e,b,a,c,d,f
D)b,a,c,d,f,e
E)e,b,d,c,a,f
Q2) Which is not found in the wall of the large intestine
A)Goblet cells
B)Simple columnar epithelium
C)Lymphatic nodules
D)Villi
E)Intestinal glands
Q3) The process of swallowing is also called _____________.
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Q1) Removal of the amine group from amino acids is a process that occurs in the liver known as ___________.
Q2) Food labels are required by law to include the amount of cholesterol in each serving.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Bile canaliculi are located
A)within branches of the hepatic artery.
B)between cords of hepatocytes.
C)adjacent to the central artery of a liver lobule.
D)adjacent to the central vein of a liver lobule.
Q4) Since beans contain the essential amino acid methionine,beans are considered complete protein sources.
A)True
B)False
Q5) According to the MyPlate system,bread,cereals,rice,and pasta should make up a little more than half of an individual's diet.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Normally,the uterus is angled anterosuperiorly within the body,a position referred to as _________________.
Q2) A child has the same number of chromosomes as each of his parents.This is because the gametes that combined when that child was conceived each contained _____ chromosomes.
A)12
B)23
C)46
D)92
E)2
Q3) The portion of the uterine wall that includes the basal layer is the A)myometrium.
B)perimetrium. C)endometrium.
D)serosa.
E)muscularis.
Q4) An erection is the result of parasympathetic innervation,and ejaculation is the result of sympathetic innervation.
A)True
B)False

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Q1) The process of organogenesis begins in the fetal period.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fetal alcohol syndrome involves a disorder that alters the
A)sequence of base pairs in the genes of the fetus.
B)structural integrity of the chromosomes of the fetus.
C)expression of genes in the fetus.
D)gametes of the fetus.
Q3) The process that involves the fusion of the two sides of the embryonic disc at a newly formed midline,thereby creating a cylindrical embryo is __________ folding.
A)invagination
B)cephalocaudal
C)transverse
D)amphiamniotic
E)coronal
Q4) Breastfeeding prolongs the duration of time it takes for the uterus to shrink to its pre-pregnancy size.
A)True
B)False
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 32