Health Sciences Biology Exam
Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences Biology is an introductory course that explores the fundamental concepts of biology as they relate to human health and disease. Topics covered include cell structure and function, genetics and heredity, basic biochemistry, systemic physiology, microbiology, and principles of infection and immunity. Through lectures, laboratory work, and real-world case studies, students gain an understanding of how biological processes underpin health, the mechanisms behind common diseases, and the scientific basis of clinical interventions. This course provides essential knowledge for students pursuing careers in healthcare, nursing, or biomedical sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Anatomy and Physiology The Unity of Form and Function 8th Edition by Saladin
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Chapter 1: Major Themes of Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The plural of villus (hair)is ____________,whereas the plural of diagnosis is
A) villuses;diagnosises
B) villi;diagnoses
C) villus;diagnosis
D) villi;diagnosis
E) villuses;diagnosis
Answer: B
Q2) _____________ is the view that not everything about an organism can be understood or predicted from the knowledge of its components;that is,the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
A) Naturalism
B) Reductionism
C) Holism
D) Materialism
E) Science
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks starches down into sugars through __________ reactions.
A) hydrolysis
B) dehydration synthesis
C) anabolic
D) endergonic
Answer: A
Q2) Carbon is very versatile in forming bonds with other atoms because it has __________ valence electrons.
A) four
B) two
C) eight
D) six
Answer: A
Q3) The pH of blood plasma is approximately 7.4,which is slightly acidic.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Cellular Form and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The greater the concentration gradient,the faster the diffusion rate.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) ATP is consumed when __________ transfer solutes from one side of the membrane to the other.
A) receptors
B) pumps
C) cell-adhesion molecules
D) channels
E) cell-identity markers
Answer: B
Q3) The term _____________ refers to a membrane that allows some things to pass through it,but not others.
A) selectively permeable
B) glycocalyx
C) phospholipid bilayer
D) specificity
E) carrier-mediated
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: Genetics of Cellular Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these processes occurs during a cell's first gap (G<sub>1</sub>)phase?
A) DNA is semiconservatively replicated.
B) The nuclear envelope breaks down.
C) The cell synthesizes the enzymes that control mitosis.
D) The cell synthesizes proteins and grows.
E) The chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.
Q2) Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?
A) The S phase
B) Telophase
C) Metaphase
D) Prophase
E) Interphase
Q3) A __________ contains the necessary information for the production of a molecule of RNA.
A) genome
B) gene
C) nucleotide
D) genetic code
E) codon
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Histology
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Sample Questions
Q1) Connective tissues contain abundant cells that are on contact with one another.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types,neurons and __________.
A) fibroblasts
B) chondrocytes
C) neuroglia
D) myocytes
E) osteocytes
Q3) The membrane that lines passageways that open to the exterior environment is called __________.
A) the lamina propria
B) endothelium
C) a synovial membrane
D) a serous membrane (serosa)
E) a mucous membrane (mucosa)
Q4) Nonkeratinized cells exfoliate from the surface of the skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order?
A) Anagen,telogen,and catagen
B) Anagen,catagen,and telogen
C) Catagen,anagen,and telogen
D) Catagen,telogen,and anagen
E) Telogen,anagen,and catagen
Q2) The hypodermis is characterized by an abundance of which tissue?
A) Statified squamous epithelium
B) Smooth muscle
C) Nervous tissue
D) Adipose tissue
E) Dense irregular connective tissue
Q3) Pattern baldness is relatively rare in women because women have lower testosterone levels than men.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The acidity of sweat contributes to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth in the skin.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Bone Tissue
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Q1) The most common bone disease is __________.
A) osteomyelitis
B) osteoporosis
C) osteosarcoma
D) osteomalacia
E) rickets
Q2) Bone protrudes through the skin in a fracture called __________.
A) complete
B) incomplete
C) closed
D) open
E) displaced
Q3) When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae,they become cells called
A) osteogenic cells;osteoblasts
B) osteoblasts;osteoclasts
C) osteoblasts;osteocytes
D) osteocytes;osteoclasts
E) osteocytes;osteoblasts
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Male and female pelves differ in all of the following features except __________.
A) the male pelvis is more massive
B) the male pelvic outlet is smaller
C) the female pubic arch is usually greater than 100 degrees
D) the female coccyx is tilted posteriorly
E) the female sacrum is longer
Q2) The atlantoaxial joint is the joint between C1 and C2.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following bones is adjacent to both the coronal and lambdoid sutures?
A) Occipital bone
B) Sphenoid bone
C) Parietal bone
D) Zygomatic bone
E) Frontal bone
Q4) Trochanters are unique to the femur.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Q1) Some joints become synostoses by replacing __________ with __________.
A) fibers;cartilage
B) cartilage;fibers
C) bone;cartilage
D) bone;fibers
E) fibers;bone
Q2) Fibrous joints are joints,at which two bones are united by hyaline cartilage.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The ligament that attaches the lateral femoral epicondyle to the fibula is called the
A) anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
B) posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
C) fibular (lateral)collateral ligament (LCL)
D) tibial (medial)collateral ligament (MCL)
E) patellar ligament
Q4) The shoulder is the only multiaxial,ball-and-socket joint in the human body.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is the __________.
A) retinaculum
B) aponeurotica
C) modiolus
D) nuchal line
E) galea
Q2) Which of the following is true regarding the levator scapulae?
A) It is innervated by the phrenic nerve.
B) It elevates the scapula if the scapula is fixed.
C) It rotates the scapula and depresses the apex of the shoulder.
D) It flexes the neck if the scapula is fixed.
E) It protracts the scapula if the humerus is fixed.
Q3) The antagonist to the triceps brachii is the __________.
A) deltoid
B) anconeus
C) biceps brachii
D) supinator
E) teres minor
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Chapter 11: Muscular Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cardiac muscle has very little capacity for regeneration because it lacks
A) satellite cells
B) an endomysium
C) sarcomeres
D) dense bodies
E) somatic nerve fibers
Q2) Extensibility refers to the ability of a muscle to stretch.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which muscle(s)can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?
A) Skeletal muscle only
B) Smooth muscle only
C) Cardiac muscle only
D) Smooth and cardiac muscle
E) Skeletal,smooth and cardiac muscle
Q4) Clinically,dystrophin is the most important noncontractile protein to occur in muscle fibers.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) While both systems maintain homeostasis,how does the nervous system differ from the endocrine system?
A) The nervous system releases neurotransmitters between cells,while the endocrine system releases hormones into the blood.
B) The nervous system releases neurotransmitters into the blood,while the endocrine system releases hormones between cells.
C) The nervous system releases hormones between cells,while the endocrine system releases neurotransmitters into the blood.
D) The nervous system releases hormones into the blood,while the endocrine system releases neurotransmitters between cells.
Q2) The respiratory center gathers information from a variety of sources in order to set the rate and depth of breathing.This is an example of what type of neural circuit?
A) Convergent
B) Divergent
C) Reverberating
D) Parallel after-discharge
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord,spinal Nerves,and Somatic
Reflexes
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Q1) You go to the movies after a long day and you begin to nod off as soon as the movie starts.Your head starts to lower a little,but a reflex causes your head to rise.This is called the __________ reflex.
A) tendon
B) crossed extension
C) withdrawal
D) stretch (myotatic)
E) flexor (withdrawal)
Q2) A nerve fiber is enclosed in its own fibrous sleeve called perineurium.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Posterior root ganglia contain neurosomas of unipolar neurons.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A mixed nerve consists of both __________ and ___________.
A) myelinated;unmyelinated fibers
B) glial cells;nerve cells
C) afferent;efferent fibers
D) interneurons;efferent neurons
E) spinal;cranial fibers
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) From superficial to deep,the meninges occur in which order?
A) Dura mater,pia mater,arachnoid
B) Dura mater,arachnoid,pia mater
C) Pia mater,dura mater,arachnoid
D) Pia mater,arachnoid,dura mater
E) Arachnoid,pia mater,dura mater
Q2) Planning,motivation,and social judgment are functions of the brain associated with which part of the cerebrum?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Occipital lobe
D) Insula
E) Temporal lobe
Q3) Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease?
A) Cerebral crus
B) Tegmentum
C) Pons
D) Substantia nigra
E) Inferior colliculi
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Chapter 15: The Autonomic Nervous System and Visceral
Reflexes
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Q1) Most preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in the dorsal root ganglia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Antagonistic effects of the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are exemplified in the control of __________.
A) blood clotting
B) blood flow to the skeletal muscles
C) sweating
D) hair erection
E) gastrointestinal motility
Q3) Drugs that are monoamine oxidase (MAO)inhibitors would most likely
A) activate the parasympathetic division and allow for normal digestive system activities
B) block ACh receptors on skeletal muscle and cause flaccid paralysis
C) stimulate -2 receptors and cause an increase in heart rate and dilation of bronchioles
D) decrease the amount of NE destroyed and may be used as an antidepressant
E) inhibit uptake of dopamine and cause depression
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Sense Organs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The vestibule contains organs of hearing and equilibrium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The middle ear consists of a fluid-filled chamber.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Adjustment to close-range vision involves all of the following except __________.
A) activity of the extrinsic eye muscles
B) change in the curvature of the lens
C) constriction of the pupil
D) ciliary muscle activity
E) light adaptation
Q4) The ossicles belong to the middle ear.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The macula sacculi is nearly horizontal and the macula utriculi is nearly vertical.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 17: The Endocrine System
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Q1) The resistance stage in the general adaptation syndrome (stress response)is dominated by __________.
A) cortisol
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) angiotensin
E) aldosterone
Q2) Which of the following organs has both endocrine and exocrine functions?
A) The adrenal gland
B) The salivary glands
C) The ovary
D) The pineal gland
E) The thymus
Q3) Which of the following is synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A) Aldosterone
B) Cortisol
C) Testosterone
D) Calcitriol
E) Glucagon
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Page 19
Chapter 18: The Circulatory System: Blood
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Q1) A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).
A) no
B) anti-A and anti-B
C) anti-A
D) anti-B
E) A and B
Q2) During coagulation,which of the following is found in the extrinsic mechanism only?
A) Calcium
B) Prothrombin activator
C) Prothrombin
D) Thromboplastin
E) Thrombin
Q3) Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?
A) Cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow
B) Iron deficiency
C) Dehydration
D) Emphysema
E) Excessive aerobic exercise
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Chapter 19: The Circulatory System: Heart
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Q1) When the left ventricle contracts,the __________ valve closes and the __________ valve is pushed open.
A) mitral;pulmonary
B) right AV;pulmonary
C) right AV;aortic
D) mitral;aortic
E) aortic;pulmonary
Q2) Atrial systole begins __________.
A) immediately before the P wave
B) immediately after the P wave
C) during the Q wave
D) during the S-T segment
E) immediately after the T wave
Q3) Cells of the sinoatrial node __________ during the pacemaker potential.
A) depolarize fast
B) depolarize slow
C) repolarize slow
D) repolarize fast
E) depolarize slow and repolarize fast
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Chapter 20: The Circulatory System: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Q1) The three primary branches of the celiac trunk are the common hepatic,left gastric,and splenic veins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) What is the longest vein commonly used in grafts in coronary bypass surgery?
A) Inferior vena cava
B) Femoral vein
C) Deep femoral vein
D) Great saphenous vein
E) Common iliac vein
Q3) Blood flow to the __________ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP)fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg.
A) hypothalamus
B) adrenal gland
C) stomach
D) skeletal muscles
E) kidneys
Q4) The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 21: The Lymphatic and Immune Systems
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Q1) __________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels,and they empty into the
A) Lymphatic trunks;collecting ducts
B) Lymphatic trunks;subclavian arteries
C) Lymphatic trunks;subclavian veins
D) Collecting ducts;subclavian veins
E) Collecting ducts;subclavian arteries
Q2) Cellular immunity uses MHC-I and MHC-II,but humoral immunity uses only MHC-II.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity.
A) natural active
B) artificial active
C) natural passive
D) artificial passive
E) innate
Q4) Clonal selection of T cells happens in the thymus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: The Respiratory System
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Q1) Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
A) Left segmental bronchus
B) Right segmental bronchus
C) Right lobar bronchus
D) Left main bronchus
E) Right main bronchus
Q3) In which condition are the lungs infected with Mycobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria,leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis?
A) Pneumonia
B) Dyspnea
C) Pneumothorax
D) Tuberculosis
E) Rhinitis
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24
Chapter 23: The Urinary System
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Q1) Renin hydrolyzes angiotensinogen,which is released from the _________,to form angiotensin I.
A) lungs
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) heart
E) spleen
Q2) The pigment responsible for the color of urine is called __________.
A) monochrome
B) urochrome
C) cyanochrome
D) multichrome
E) pyuria
Q3) Which organ system excretes nitrogenous wastes?
A) The urinary system
B) The cardiovascular system
C) The integumentary system
D) The digestive system
E) The respiratory system
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Chapter 24: Fluid, electrolyte, and Acidbase Balance
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Q1) Ina state of fluid balance, average daily fluid gains and losses are equal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fluid intake is governed mainly by hypothalamic neurons called .
A) baroreceptors
B) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
D) osmoreceptors
E) mechanoreceptors
Q3) Hypovolemia refers to a reduction in total body water while maintaining normal osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The kidneys secrete ADH in response to dehydration.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Blood plasma osmolarity is higher than intracellular fluid osmolarity.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: The Digestive System
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Q1) Which of the following is not a component of the pancreatic juice?
A) Trypsinogen
B) Chymotrypsinogen
C) Deoxyribonuclease
D) Sodium bicarbonate
E) Enteropeptidase
Q2) The __________ of the small intestine is/are similar to the __________ of the stomach.
A) villi;pyloric glands
B) rugae;aggregated lymphoid nodules
C) intestinal crypts;gastric pits
D) goblet cells;parietal cells
E) pyloric sphincter;ileocecal valve
Q3) The large intestine absorbs water,fats,and salts.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The digestive system processes food,extracts nutrients,and eliminates the residue.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 26: Nutrition and Metabolism
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Q1) When a person is active,most of the body heat is generated in the brain,heart,and endocrine glands.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The heat-promoting center is located in the hypothalamus,which triggers shivering.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of proteins in the body?
A) Muscle contraction
B) Transport of blood lipids
C) Maintaining blood viscosity and osmolarity
D) Catalyzing enzymatic reactions
E) Serving as cofactors for enzymes
Q4) Glucose in excess of the body's immediate needs is usually converted to protein.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Both glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis are examples of catabolic reactions. A)True
B)False
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Chapter 27: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) Changes called male climacteric are a consequence of a(n)__________.
A) increased secretion of estrogens
B) increased secretion of progesterone
C) decreased secretion of testosterone
D) increased secretion of FSH and LH
E) increased secretion of GnRH
Q2) When do the testes start secreting testosterone?
A) In the first trimester of fetal development
B) In the first trimester after birth
C) In the first three years after birth
D) In the first three years of adolescence
E) After the first ejaculation
Q3) The gene that codes for the testis-determining factor (TDF)is found in or on the __________.
A) Y chromosome
B) X chromosome
C) gonadal ridges
D) fetal testes
E) mesonephros
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Chapter 28: The Female Reproductive System
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Q1) Which hormone acts primarily on the uterus?
A) Estrogen
B) Androgen
C) Progesterone
D) Follicle-stimulating hormone
E) Luteinizing hormone
Q2) During the follicular phase,granulosa cells secrete __________,which stimulates secretion of __________.
A) estradiol;LH
B) estradiol;FSH
C) estradiol;GnRH
D) progesterone;FSH
E) progesterone;LH
Q3) Which of the following structures is composed of a theca folliculi,granulosa cells,a zona pellucida,and a secondary oocyte?
A) Primary follicle
B) Secondary follicle
C) Tertiary follicle
D) Corpus luteum
E) Corpus albicans
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Chapter 29: Human Development and Aging
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Q1) The embryonic stage extends from 16 days through the end of week 8.
A)True
B)False
Q2) By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus,it consists of at least __________ or more cells.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Q3) Which of the following statements is true regarding telomeres?
A) Telomeres are cytoplasmic enzymes involved in senescence.
B) Telomeres are antioxidants that slow the progress of senescence.
C) Telomeres are DNA segments at each end of a chromosome.
D) Telomeres are proteins that cap the ends of the chromosomes.
E) Telomeres are motor molecules that guide embryonic cells to the right destinations.
Q4) During implantation,the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 30: Atlas a General Orientation to Human
Anatomy
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Q1) The __________ system breaks down food and absorbs nutrients.
A) digestive
B) urinary
C) reproductive
D) circulatory
E) lymphatic
Q2) The right shoulder is __________ and __________ to the umbilical region.
A) superior;lateral
B) superior;medial
C) inferior;lateral
D) inferior;medial
E) posterior;lateral
Q3) The kidneys,ureters,adrenal glands,aorta,and inferior vena cava are all
A) located within the peritoneal cavity
B) retroperitoneal
C) inside the visceral peritoneum
D) within the pelvic cavity
E) located within the thoracic cavity
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