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Health Sciences Biology is an introductory course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the biological principles that underpin human health, disease, and medical science. The course covers essential topics such as cell structure and function, genetics, molecular biology, anatomy and physiology, microbiology, immunology, and the basics of pathophysiology. Emphasis is placed on how biological systems interact and the ways in which they affect overall human health. Students will also explore current advances in biotechnology and their applications in healthcare, equipping them with the knowledge necessary for further study or careers in the health sciences field.
Recommended Textbook
Biology of Humans Concepts Applications and Issues 4th Edition by Judith Goodenough
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Q1) A genetic trait that helps an organism survive and reproduce in its environment.
A)Adaptive trait
B)Ecosystem
C)Metabolism
D)Informed consent agreement
E)Hypothesis
F)Homeostasis
G)Theory
H)Critical thinking
I)Placebo
J)Epidemiologic studies
Answer: A
Q2) The smallest functional unit of life is known as a(n)________.
Answer: cell
Q3) During phase I clinical trials,a new drug is tested ________.
A)in an animal model
B)on fewer than 100 human volunteers
C)on a few hundred human volunteers
D)on thousands of human volunteers
Answer: B
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Q1) The ________ can be used to measure whether a substance is an acid or a base. Answer: pH scale
Q2) Any substance that when dissolved in water will give off H+ ions is referred to as a(n):
A)pH. B)buffer. C)catalyst. D)acid.
Answer: D
Q3) Radioactive iodine (131I)is commonly used in medical situations for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid conditions.The most common isotope of iodine that is not radioactive is 127I.Chemically,what is different between 127I and 131I? What is the same between them?
Answer: The difference between the two isotopes of iodine is their weights (or mass).This is due to a difference in the number of neutrons present in each isotope.These isotopes have in common their atomic number (number of protons),which is what makes them both iodine.
Q4) Partially hydrogenated fats are also referred to as ________ fats. Answer: trans
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Q1) The first phase in normal cellular respiration and the only one occurring in the cytoplasm is called ________.
A)citric acid cycle
B)glycolysis
C)electron transport
D)None of the above
Answer: B
Q2) Which is a membranous organelle that chemically modifies and ships proteins to other organelles or out of the cell?
A)lysosome
B)chloroplast
C)mitochondria
D)Golgi complex
Answer: D
Q3) The organelle known as the ________ makes phospholipids.
Answer: smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Q4) Cellular structures that function in movement and consist of numerous short hair-like extensions from the cell are called ________. Answer: cilia
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Q1) The organ system that is responsible for the exchange of gases with the environment.
A)Nervous
B)Endocrine
C)Muscular
D)Skeletal
E)Integumentary
F)Lymphatic
G)Respiratory
H)Cardiovascular
I)Urinary
J)Reproductive
K)Digestive
Q2) Nutrients reach cells in the epidermis by ________.
A)moving out of dermal blood vessels and diffusing through tissue fluid to the epidermis
B)moving out of blood vessels in the epidermis
C)moving out of blood vessels that originate in the hypodermis and extend into the epidermis
D)All of the above are true.
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Q1) Astronauts returning to Earth from an extended stay in space have to be extremely careful or they could break a bone.It takes several weeks to restore normal bone strength.Which would be the best regimen to rebuild the lost bone tissue?
A)Nothing special is needed, just lie around and watch TV.
B)Hit the gym and get going, with a few weeks of heavy weight lifting.
C)Several weeks of swimming will rebuild all lost bone mass.
D)Start with walking and build up to jogging, with an extra regimen of light weight lifting in the gym.
Q2) The ________ joints have no joint cavity and usually do not permit movement.Sutures between skull bones are this kind of joint.
Q3) Arthroscopic surgery is used to repair damage to the knee.What sorts of things can go wrong that can lead to damage in someone's knee?
Q4) The ________ is the site in long bones that stores fatty tissue used for energy.
Q5) Osteoblasts deposit ________ on the secreted collagen during the transformation from cartilage to a mature bone.
Q6) A patient with leukemia has blood cells that are not dividing properly and are out of control.Treatment consists of a bone marrow transplant.How would this help?
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Q1) A band of connective tissue that aids in the attachment of muscle to bone is a(n)________.
Q2) What causes delayed onset muscle soreness?
A)exercise in which a muscle lengthens while it contracts
B)walking on level ground
C)running on level ground
D)gentle stretching
Q3) Which of the following is not a function of muscle?
A)regulate calcium in the blood
B)generate heat
C)move blood in veins
D)move lymph in lymphatic vessels
Q4) A(n)________ is a motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates.
Q5) The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores ions that are necessary for skeletal muscle contractions.Which of the following ions does it store?
A)Mg++
B)Fe++
C)Na+
D)Ca++
Q6) Describe the four traits that all muscle types share.
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Q1) The junction between a neuron and another cell.
A)Synaptic knobs
B)Interneurons
C)Dendrite
D)Excitatory synapse
E)Motor neuron
F)Axon
G)Inhibitory synapse
H)Synapse
I)Sensory neuron
J)Ion channels
Q2) A new drug interferes with the function of the dendrites of a neuron.What will happen to this neuron?
A)The neuron will continuously send signals.
B)The neuron cannot be stimulated to send a signal along its axon.
C)The neuron will die off.
D)The neuron will sometimes send signals and will sometimes not send signals.
Q3) Immediately after an action potential occurs,the sodium channels close and cannot be reopened.What is this period called?
Q4) What is the function of the myelin sheath in the nervous system?
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Q1) The ________ functions as the sensory area for touch,vision,hearing,and olfaction as well as association areas for interpreting sensations,language,thinking,decision making,self-awareness,creativity,and storing memories.
Q2) Which of the following is a specific function of the cerebrospinal fluid?
A)thinking
B)promoting inflammation
C)bone building
D)shock absorption
Q3) Arnold was involved in a major traffic accident and some of his spinal nerves were cut.What are his chances for a full recovery? Please explain your answer.
Q4) Wow! That medicine really tasted bitter! In which lobe of the cerebrum did you consciously think about that?
A)frontal
B)occipital
C)temporal
D)parietal
Q5) If Georgina takes a drug that increases the effects of norepinephrine,what changes would we see in the basic activities of her body?
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Q1) This portion of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for dynamic equilibrium.
A)semicircular canals
B)otoliths
C)vestibule
D)sensory cells
Q2) ________ is caused by excessive aqueous humor pressure.
Q3) If light strikes a photopigment,the photoreceptor cell will decrease the amount of ________ it is releasing.
Q4) Samantha gets into a new elevator in a large skyscraper and the doors close.She hears no noise,feels no vibration,and sees no movement,but she nevertheless knows that she is on her way up.What specific part of her ear is allowing her to know that she is ascending?
A)saccule
B)utricle
C)organ of Corti
D)stapes
Q5) The ________ is a sheet of tissue that separates the outer ear from the middle ear.
Q6) The photoreceptors responsible for an individual's black and white vision are known as ________.
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Q1) Which of the following hormones may take part in one or more of these functions: influence daily rhythms,decrease jet lag,and influence sleep patterns?
A)melatonin
B)thymosin
C)oxytocin
D)growth
Q2) Which of the following might help in the treatment of impotence (inability to achieve an erection)?
A)nitric oxide
B)histamine
C)prostaglandins
D)growth hormone
Q3) Vlad,28 years old,is a slender,jumpy man with eyes that seem to bulge out of their sockets.His heart rate is unusually fast.Which of the following conditions does Vlad most likely have?
A)Addison's disease
B)acromegaly
C)Cushing's syndrome
D)Grave's disease
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Q1) ________ is the process whereby cells engulf pathogens and foreign substances.
Q2) Infectious mononucleosis is caused by ________.
A)pernicious anemia
B)Epstein Barr virus
C)lead poisoning
D)blood doping
Q3) Prothrombin is converted to ________ during the clotting process.
Q4) Explain the ABO blood system and why is it important to fully understand this system when receiving blood transfusions.
Q5) If a person cannot make enough of the plasma protein ________,then they might have problems with water balance.
Q6) Coumadin is a drug that interferes with the action of vitamin K in the liver.What effect will Coumadin have on blood clotting mechanisms?
A)It will make it necessary to eat extra leafy green vegetables.
B)Vitamin K will not be absorbed from the digestive tract.
C)The liver will not be able to produce needed clotting factors.
D)Nothing, because vitamin K is not necessary for blood clotting.
Q7) Long protein strands that form a web that traps blood cells and platelets to form a clot are called ________.
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Q1) What function do the veins have and how do these vessels compare with the arteries?
Q2) The blood vessels that are the site of gas exchange.
A)Veins
B)Thymus
C)Tonsils
D)Jugular veins
E)Circulatory
F)Aorta
G)Capillaries
H)Exercise
I)Pulmonary veins
J)Spleen
Q3) Which of these are the smallest of veins that form when capillaries merge?
A)venules
B)arteries
C)arterioles
D)veins
Q4) A heart ________ is an indication of disturbed blood flow due to a damaged heart valve.
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Q1) Briefly explain the first line of defense that prevents pathogens from invading the body.
Q2) Juana is exhibiting redness,swelling,and elevated temperature in one area of her arm.She has a condition known as ________.
A)complement cascade.
B)inflammation
C)asthma
D)passive immunity
Q3) Line of defense that involves natural killer cells.
A)Eosinophils
B)Autoimmune disorders
C)Third line of defense
D)Neutrophils
E)Plasma cells
F)Second line of defense
G)Cytotoxic T cells
H)First line of defense
I)Mast cells
Q4) ________ are organisms capable of invading the body and causing disease.
Q5) A (n)________ is an overreaction by the immune system to an antigen.
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Q1) The ________ is a thin portion of cartilage and bone that divides the inside of the nose.
Q2) ________ are tiny chambers within the lungs that allow for gas exchange.
Q3) Which of the following is a significant function of the nose?
A)conditioning of inhaled air
B)gas exchange
C)equilibrium
D)carbonic anhydrase activity
Q4) When exercising,CO builds up in the blood.What effect would this have on external respiration?
A)There would be increased diffusion of CO out of the blood and into the lungs and increased ventilation to move it out of the body.
B)There would be decreased diffusion of CO out of the blood and into the lungs and increased ventilation to move it out of the body.
C)There would be increased diffusion of CO out of the blood and into the lungs and decreased ventilation to move it out of the body.
D)There would be decreased diffusion of CO out of the blood and into the lungs and decreased ventilation to move it out of the body.
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Q1) Which of these events occurs normally in swallowing?
A)The larynx rises.
B)The epiglottis rises.
C)The bolus rises.
D)The esophagus closes.
Q2) This enzyme will break down starch into smaller subunits.
A)carboxypeptidase
B)lipase
C)amylase
D)renin
Q3) Food is sent along the GI tract by means of a wave-like process called ________.
Q4) Which of the following is a J-shaped muscular sac that serves in the temporary storage of masticated food while digestive enzymes and HCl are released to digest proteins?
A)large intestines
B)colon
C)stomach
D)esophagus
Q5) Most nutrient absorption occurs in the ________,a major organ of the digestive system.
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Q1) This is a muscular,bag-like structure that stores urine.
A)Respiratory
B)Urinalysis
C)Urinary
D)Kidneys
E)Tubular secretion
F)Nephrons
G)Digestive
H)Urinary bladder
I)Urethra
J)Ureters
Q2) Constant regulation of blood pH is critical.There are several ways (and several organ systems)involved in this regulation.Fully explain two different ways that regulation of blood pH is achieved through the urinary system.
Q3) Substances such as alcohol that promote the formation of urine are known as
A)diuretics
B)renal stimulators
C)antidiuretics
D)hormones
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Q1) The secretions of the ________ contain fructose and prostaglandins.
Q2) The male organ that delivers sperm to the female's reproductive tract.
A)Prostate gland
B)Oviduct
C)Penis
D)Glans penis
E)Ovaries
F)Endometrium
G)Vas deferens
H)Cervix
I)Uterus
J)Seminal vesicle
K)Vagina
L)Testis
Q3) An experimental male birth control method has been developed that inhibits gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).Does this drug have the ability to prevent sperm production? Justify your answer.Indicate any potential side effects that might be of concern to the male.
Q4) The ________ are tubes that conduct sperm from the epididymis to the urethra.
Q5) The ________ are the structures that occur between the ovaries and the uterus.
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Q1) When your mother is mad at you she likes to remind you that she spent 48 hours in painful labor to bring you into the world! Specifically,she means that she spent a long time in the ________ stage of labor.
A)expulsion
B)dilation
C)third trimester
D)placental
Q2) The extraembryonic membrane that contributes to the formation of the placenta.
A)Ovulation
B)Cleavage
C)Implantation
D)Human chorionic gonadotropin
E)Chorion
F)Zygote
G)Parturition
H)Blastocyst
I)Fertilization
J)Placenta
K)Polyspermy
L)Morula
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Q1) Suppose that mitosis was used to produce our gametes.What unique problems would be encountered?
Q2) Oogenesis is completed at ________.
Q3) The failure of either homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis I or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II is called ________.
Q4) In which phase does the chromatin condense into chromosomes,the nuclear membrane disintegrates,and the centrioles migrate to the poles as spindle fibers are organized?
A)interphase
B)anaphase
C)prophase
D)telophase
Q5) The exchange of genetic material during crossing over causes which of the following?
A)genetic variation
B)stasis
C)heterozygosity
D)homozygosity
Q6) The preparation for cell division that precedes mitosis is called ________.
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Q1) Babies were accidentally switched at the hospital! Mr.and Mrs.Fire both have type O blood.Which of the following four babies of the same age is most likely the Fire child?
A)baby with type A
B)baby with type B
C)baby with type AB
D)baby with type O
Q2) Diabetes mellitus type 2 (DM2)is partly hereditary and,if uncontrolled,can lead to kidney disease and heart failure and an increased risk of stroke and blindness.From this information alone,you could say that DM2 is an example of ________.
A)pleiotropy
B)epistasis
C)codominance
D)polygenes
Q3) A genetic cross between two individuals who are heterozygous for two traits of interest is called a ________.
Q4) The principle that states that different homologous chromosomes travel randomly to different ends of the cell is ________.
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Q1) The text says that bovine somatotropin can be given to cows to boost milk production.Suppose that it would be possible to alter the genes of cows so that the animals always made excess somatotropin.What concerns do you think people might have about this procedure?
Q2) According to base pairing rules,cytosine will only pair with this.
A)Genome
B)DNA polymerases
C)Gene therapy
D)Guanine
E)Thymine
F)RNA polymerase
G)Codons
H)Biotechnology
I)Epigenetics
Q3) The process of using each strand of a DNA molecule as a template to form a new strand is called ________.
A)semi-conservative replication
B)conservative replication
C)transcription
D)translation
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Q1) The Euphorbia of desert parts of Africa and India are succulent and have thorns but are superficially very similar to the unrelated cacti native to the deserts of the Americas.This pair of plant groups represents an example of ________.
A)convergent evolution
B)apostatic selection
C)homology
D)divergent evolution
Q2) According to the text,this is the earliest member of the genus Homo to appear in the fossil record.
A)Latin binomial
B)Homo erectus
C)Chimpanzees
D)Neanderthals
E)Australopithecus africanus
F)Astragalus
G)Convergent evolution
H)Ardipithecus ramidus
I)Founder effect
J)Homo habilis
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Q1) Which of the following contains the most species of living things?
A)biosphere
B)niche
C)ecosystem
D)community
Q2) The progression of species that would take place in an abandoned field is called ________.
Q3) A plot of water-soaked soil will have less of the form of nitrogen known as ________ than dry soil.
Q4) The sedimentary rock known as ________ stores carbon deposited by the shells of ocean animals.
Q5) Ammonium is converted to nitrates (NO3-)by this process.
A)nitrification
B)nitrogen fixation
C)nitrofaction
D)calcification
Q6) Hoda,now pregnant,barbequed a shark that her uncle caught in a bay.Upstream from that bay was an old coal mine that was draining into the local river.What should you warn Hoda about?
Q7) What are the benefits of maintaining biodiversity?
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Q1) Air pollution over a long period of time can cause this condition.
A)malaria
B)influenza
C)emphysema
D)measles
Q2) Why is it important that humans attempt to control their numbers and begin to identify renewable resources?
Q3) Which of the following is an example of direct water usage?
A)home drinking water
B)agricultural irrigation
C)steam generation
D)power plant cooling
Q4) Overgrazing transforms marginal farmlands to deserts,a process called ________.
Q5) Which community will need to plan for more schools? One with a population structure shaped like a(n)________.
A)pyramid
B)inverted pyramid
C)box
D)column
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Q6) Irrigating land can lead to a buildup of salt in the soil called ________.
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Q1) John had a cookout last week.He served chicken that he had grilled outdoors and that was fully cooked.However,some of his guests developed a Salmonella infection.Even though the chicken was completely cooked,what might John have done that could have potentially allowed for his guests to develop a Salmonella infection?
Q2) A food product labeled organic has been certified to be ________.
A)grown without certain synthetic pesticides or fertilizers
B)free of pathogens
C)genetically altered to be safer to eat
D)All of the above are true.
Q3) Although you love the taste of uncooked cookie dough,you have heard warnings about the risk of foodborne illness that comes from eating raw food products.Based on the ingredients in cookie dough,which type of pathogen should you be most concerned with?
A)Escherichia coli O157:H7
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Campylobacter jejuni
D)Salmonella
Q4) Explain three things you can do at home to prevent foodborne illness.
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Q1) Angie wants to go with her boyfriend to a bar and consume some alcohol but she does not want to become intoxicated because she needs to drive them both home after 2 hours.She weighs 120 pounds.What advice can you give her based on the information in the textbook?
Q2) This drug is normally injected but can also be processed into forms that can be smoked or inhaled.It is a synthetic opiate that produces feelings of ecstasy.
A)marijuana
B)caffeine
C)alcohol
D)heroin
Q3) Which are synthetically produced stimulants that resemble the brain's natural neurotransmitters?
A)caffeine
B)amphetamines
C)marijuana
D)opium
Q4) Vasily thinks that drinking alcohol heightens his alertness and awareness of his surroundings and that he is a better driver after drinking several beers.Persuade him otherwise.
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Q1) Summarize the origins and functions of insulin in the body.
Q2) Which of the following is a likely side-effect of gestational diabetes?
A)impotence
B)preeclampsia
C)low blood pressure
D)low birth weight
Q3) Marsha says she sometimes has ketoacidosis.What kind of diabetes is she more likely to have and how did she develop ketoacidosis? Why is ketoacidosis dangerous and how can she detect it in time?
Q4) This is the major cause of type 2 diabetes.
A)viral infection
B)heart disease
C)insulin resistance
D)being underweight
Q5) Which of the following is a normal blood glucose reading?
A)400 mg/dl
B)90 mg/dl
C)30 mg/dl
D)4% Hb A1c
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Q1) How could lipids lead to a myocardial infarction?
Q2) Viagra® works by dilating the arteries to the penis and other parts of the body.Why shouldn't a person use nitroglycerin at the same time that they are using Viagra®?
Q3) Which of the following lifestyle changes might be used to treat or prevent high blood pressure?
A)limit dietary salt
B)exercise regularly
C)control body weight
D)All of the above could help with high blood pressure.
Q4) When a leg vein is grafted to provide an alternate route around a point of obstruction between the aorta and a clogged coronary artery,the procedure is called
A)angioplasty
B)stent
C)coronary bypass
D)coronary infarction
Q5) What are some ways that hypertension can kill?
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Q1) Which of the following characteristics of a medicine might be effective in treating a herpes simplex infection with as little harm to the patient as possible?
A)blocking cell wall synthesis
B)stopping cilia activity
C)preventing capsid formation
D)halting membrane formation
Q2) Cholera is spread by contaminated food and water.The bacterium kills because it changes the permeability of the large intestinal cells.Which therapy would give the best chance of saving a person given the information in this chapter?
A)chemotherapy
B)radiation
C)fluid replacement
D)CT scans
Q3) Given the information in this chapter,why do you suppose that the rabies virus attacks mammal nervous systems but not those of crocodiles?
Q4) Explain how antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections.What are some of the problems concerning the use of these drugs?
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Q1) A dentist had a new patient who was abnormally slender for her height.How could the dentist determine if the person suffered from bulimia?
A)There would be evidence of water retention.
B)The teeth and gums would be damaged.
C)Extensive weight gain would be observed.
D)High blood sugar levels would be present.
Q2) Some people believe that an all-vegetable diet will mean that vegetarians will not have a proper balance of amino acids needed to build proteins.Explain why this is false.
Q3) Oat fiber will to some extent block lipid uptake by the digestive system.Which of the following conditions would potentially be more likely in a person eating large amounts of oat fiber?
A)night blindness and xerophthalmia
B)scurvy and poor wound healing
C)pellagra
D)fatigue, numbness, and tingling in the hands and feet
Q4) According to the chapter,a person might prevent atherosclerosis by following these dietary guidelines.
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Q1) The term sexually transmitted infection is used to refer to infections ________.
A)caused by bacteria
B)caused by viruses
C)that cannot be treated
D)that have no symptoms
Q2) Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning the use of drug therapy in an HIV-positive patient?
A)If drug therapy is used in a confirmed HIV-positive patient, all HIV viruses can be successfully eliminated from the body.
B)Protease inhibitors can slow the assembly of new viruses.
C)Reverse transcriptase inhibitors can help to slow the virus from entering into host chromosomes.
D)Each of these statements is correct.
Q3) The STD that will always produce symptoms is ________.
A)gonorrhea
B)chlamydia
C)syphilis
D)HPV infection
Q4) Why are treatable diseases like chlamydia so widespread in the world?
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Q1) The most reliable diagnostic tool for autism spectrum disorders is ________.
A)neuroimaging
B)observation
C)genetic testing
D)the use of screening tests
Q2) A large percentage of the public believes that vaccines have a role in the development of autism.What information would you use to explain to a friend that there is no scientific evidence to suggest that vaccines cause autism?
Q3) Autism is characterized by ________.
A)impaired communication skills
B)unusual patterns of behavior
C)poor social skills
D)all the above
Q4) Explain how neuroimaging brought new results to the study of ASDs,and why it is not yet recommended for use in the diagnosis of ASDs.
Q5) Describe some of the environmental risk factors associated with ASDs.
Q6) What therapies can be used for those with ASDs?
Q7) Explain the two main types of studies that showed the genetic basis of ASDs.
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Q1) Which of the following creates pluripotent stem cells without the need to destroy an embryo?
A)embryonic stem cell removal from unused embryos at fertility clinics
B)retrieval of stem cells from umbilical cord blood
C)retrieval of stem cells from adult bone marrow
D)induced pluripotent stem cells
Q2) Which of the following areas is not known to contain stem cells?
A)the skin
B)bone marrow
C)the umbilical cord
D)muscle
Q3) Which of the following statements is false concerning stem cells and stem cell research?
A)Stem cells are created as the result of in vitro fertilization procedures.
B)Stem cells that are desirable for research come from embryos that are only a few days old.
C)Stem cell research in the United States is federally funded under all circumstances.
D)Stem cells are not yet differentiated.
Q4) Describe several potential applications for embryonic stem cell research.
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Q1) A(n)________ is an abnormal mass of tissue that is surrounded by a capsule of connective tissue and that usually remains at the site where it forms.
Q2) ________ is a treatment method in which rapidly dividing cells are killed using drugs instead of radiation.
Q3) Explain why malignant tumors are more dangerous than benign tumors.
Q4) Which of the following is not a characteristic of cancerous cells?
A)immortality
B)contact inhibition
C)unusual shapes and sizes
D)All of the above are characteristics of cancerous cells.
Q5) In order to be successful,chemotherapy drugs have to stop cell division.The most likely method for this would be to ________.
A)denature all the enzymes in the cell so division can't occur
B)speed up the cell cycle in the cancerous cells
C)stop cellular respiration so the cancerous cells don't have energy
D)interfere with the function of the spindle fibers
Q6) How does chemotherapy work as a treatment for cancer? Why is it not always effective?
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