Health Sciences Anatomy and Physiology
Practice Questions
Course Introduction
Health Sciences Anatomy and Physiology is a foundational course that explores the structure and function of the human body, emphasizing how individual organ systems work together to maintain health and homeostasis. Students will study the anatomical organization and physiological mechanisms of major systems, including the skeletal, muscular, circulatory, respiratory, nervous, digestive, urinary, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Through lectures, laboratory activities, and practical applications, this course provides a comprehensive understanding essential for further study in health sciences and allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology 11th Edition by Frederic H. Martini
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29 Chapters
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Page 2
Chapter 1: An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be
A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus.
B) sweat glands that increase secretion.
C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector.
D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate.
E) sweat glands that act like effectors.
Answer: A
Q2) Cardiovascular function is an example of A) histophysiology.
B) organ physiology.
C) systemic physiology.
D) pathological physiology.
E) physiological chemistry.
Answer: C
Q3) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each. Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach, pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
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Page 3
Chapter 2: The Chemical Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) Molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called A) isotopes. B) isomers. C) isozymes.
D) isotypes.
E) isomoles.
Answer: B
Q2) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions.
A) acid; base
B) base; acid
C) compound; element
D) element; compound
E) molecule; acid
Answer: B
Q3) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing hydrogen ions as needed.
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Chapter 3: The Cellular Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the facilitated diffusion of glucose, what determines the direction in which glucose molecules will betransported? (Figure 3-18)
A)______the amount of ATP available inside the cell versus outside the cell
B) the amount of sodium available to bind inside the cell versus outside the cell
C) the concentration gradient
D) the voltage of the membrane
E) the tonicity of the cell
Answer: C
Q2) The cell theory includes all of these concepts except
A) each cell maintains homeostasis at the cellular level.
B) cells are the smallest units that carry out the essential functions of life.
C) cells are the building blocks of all organisms.
D) all cells come from the division of preexisting cells.
E) every cell is capable of living on its own if isolated from the body.
Answer: E
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5
Chapter 4: The Tissue Level of Organization
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Sample Questions
Q1) The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is ________ tissue.
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscle
D) basal
E) apical
Q2) Cells that respond to injury by dividing to assist in connective tissue repair are
A) mast cells.
B) fibroblasts.
C) plasmocytes.
D) mesenchymal cells.
E) lymphocytes.
Q3) The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the functionof
A) cutaneous membranes.
B) mucous membranes.
C) serous membranes.
D) synovial membranes.
E) the lamina propria.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: The Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the arrector pili muscles contract,
A) "goose bumps" are formed.
B) hairs are shed.
C) sweat is released from sweat glands.
D) shivering occurs.
E) the skin changes color.
Q2) What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure?
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) lamellar corpuscle
C) tactile corpuscles
D) tactile dics
E) Merkel cells
Q3) Which tissue is located in the region labeled "2"?
A) stratified squamous epithelium
B) areolar connective tissue
C) adipose tissue
D) cartilage and blood
E) reticular connective tissues
Q4) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature.
Q5) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
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Chapter 6: Bones and Bone Structure
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Sample Questions
Q1) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.
A) compression
B) Pott's
C) displaced
D) greenstick
E) Colles
Q2) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of
A) osteoid matrix.
B) calcium carbonate.
C) hydroxyapatite.
D) calcitriol.
E) proteolytic enzymes.
Q3) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)
A) fibrous connective-tissue model.
B) cartilage model.
C) membranous model.
D) calcified model.
E) osteoid model.
Q4) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Page 8
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Chapter 7: The Axial Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not true regarding the vertebral canal?
A) It encloses the spinal cord.
B) It is formed by vertebral foramina of successive vertebrae.
C) The anterior border is the vertebral body.
D) It is found only in cervical and thoracic vertebrae.
E) The posterior border is the vertebral arch.
Q2) Sinus inflammation is called
A) sinusitis.
B) asthma.
C) congestion.
D) postnasal drip.
E) encephalitis.
Q3) Which of the following articulate in the mandibular fossa?
A) condylar process
B) mastoid process
C) acromion process
D) coronoid process
E) zygomatic process
Q4) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and fractures morecommon in cervical vertebrae?
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Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Sample Questions
Q1) The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals is the
A) longitudinal arch.
B) transverse arch.
C) superior arch.
D) posterior arch.
E) distal arch.
Q2) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A) olecranon process
B) medial epicondyle
C) lateral epicondyle
D) greater tubercle
E) trochlea
Q3) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?
A) sacrum
B) coccyx
C) coxal bone
D) lumbar vertebrae
E) pubic symphysis
Q4) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Joints
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Sample Questions
Q1) The supraspinous ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Q2) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion?
A) coracohumeral
B) coracoacromial
C) coracoclavicular
D) glenohumeral
E) acromioclavicular
Q3) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
Q4) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Q5) Explain how the structure of synovial fluid allows it to function as a lubricant in a joint.
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Chapter 10: Muscle Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction?
A) increases tone in the muscle
B) causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp
C) increases the muscle's excitability
D) produces a strong, continuous state of contraction
E) reduces the muscle's ability for contraction
Q2) What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased? (Figure 10-14)
A) sarcomere length decreases
B) sarcomere length stays the same
C) sarcomere length increases
Q3) In the myofibril the thin filament is organized around a rod-like core protein called A) titin.
B) actin.
C) G actin.
D) nebulin.
E) myosin.
Q4) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
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Chapter 11: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n)
A) synergist.
B) fixator.
C) agonist.
D) prime mover.
E) antagonist.
Q2) The ________ allows you to look up.
A) inferior rectus
B) medial rectus
C) lateral rectus
D) superior rectus
E) inferior oblique
Q3) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called
A) rectus.
B) distalis.
C) proximal.
D) medialis.
E) lateralis.
Q4) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to accomplish hisgoal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nervous Tissue
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell
C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions
D) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions
E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges.
Q2) ________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive systems.
A) Spinal nerves
B) Unipolar neurons
C) Internoceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Proprioceptors
Q3) The equilibrium potential of potassium is
A) -90mV.
B) -65mV.
C) -70mV.
D) +30mV.
E) +66mV.
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Chapter 13: The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal
Reflexes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The neural "wiring" of a single reflex is called a(n)
A) reflex arc.
B) ramus.
C) ganglion.
D) tract.
E) circuit.
Q2) During the procedure known as a(n) ________, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid space in the inferior lumbar region.
A) myelography
B) encephalomyelogram
C) laminectomy
D) lumbar puncture
E) thoracic tap
Q3) The anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus.
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) thoracic
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Sample Questions
Q1) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the
A) subarachnoid space.
B) superior sagittal sinus.
C) carotid canal.
D) inferior sagittal sinus.
E) jugular foramen.
Q2) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with
A) control of autonomic function.
B) regulation of body temperature.
C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
D) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
E) control of breathing.
Q3) A person with a damaged visual association area may be
A) unable to see rows of letters.
B) declared legally blind.
C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings.
D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words.
E) unable to understand spoken words.
Q4) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
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Chapter 15: Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct her when youhear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense.
A) smell
B) sight
C) balance
D) cold
E) hearing
Q2) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called
A) nociceptors.
B) chemoreceptors.
C) baroreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.
Q3) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) primary sensory cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) thalamus
D) autonomic motor center
E) basal nuclei
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Chapter 16: The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest."
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) thoracolumbar
D) visceral
E) somatomotor
Q2) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) excessive salivation.
D) excessive heart rate.
E) prostate disorders.
Q3) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds to ________ receptors.
A) nicotinic cholinergic
B) muscarinic cholinergic
C) alpha-1 adrenergic
D) alpha-2 adrenergic
E) beta-1 adrenergic
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Chapter 17: The Special Senses
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of A) 700 and 1000 nm.
B) 100 and 200 nm.
C) 200 and 400 nm.
D) 2000 and 2500 nm.
E) 400 and 700 nm.
Q2) Taste buds are clusters of individual
A) vallate papillae.
B) gustatory hairs.
C) epithelial cells.
D) olfactory receptors.
E) gustatory receptors.
Q3) All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye except that it
A) contains ganglion cells.
B) contains the photoreceptor cells.
C) contains bipolar cells.
D) is the innermost layer of the eyeball.
E) consists of dense fibrous connective tissue.
Q4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Q5) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
19
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Chapter 18: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by
A) increased levels of melanin.
B) increased levels of melatonin.
C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
D) increased levels of gonadotrophins.
E) decreased levels of testosterone.
Q2) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is A) cortisol.
B) parathormone.
C) thymosin.
D) somatotropin.
E) aldosterone.
Q3) Hyposecretion of cortisol causes A) goiter.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) Addison's disease.
E) Cushing's disease.
Q4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
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Chapter 19: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Erythropoietin is a hormone
A) released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production.
B) released by the liver to stimulate white blood cell production.
C) released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production.
D) released by the kidneys to stimulate red and white blood cell production.
E) released by the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production.
Q2) Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets?
A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Q3) Antibodies are what type of plasma protein?
A) apolipoprotein
B) metalloprotein
C) steroid-binding protein
D) immunoglobulin
E) fibrinogen
Q4) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
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Chapter 20: The Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right and left lungs.
B) left ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) aorta.
E) right atrium.
Q2) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________.
A) deoxygenated; left atrium
B) oxygenated; right lung
C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava
D) deoxygenated; right atrium
E) oxygenated; left atrium
Q3) In mitral valve prolapse, the cusps of the mitral valve are pushed into the A) left ventricle.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) right atrium.
E) aorta.
Q4) Adoctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why?
Page 22
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Chapter 21: Blood Vessels and Circulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow?
A) vascular resistance
B) venous pressure
C) viscosity of blood
D) vessel length
E) turbulence
Q2) Identify the artery labeled "1."
A) axillary
B) brachiocephalic trunk
C) common carotid
D) ascending aorta
E) brachial
Q3) Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased
A) salt and water loss through the kidneys.
B) blood volume.
C) sodium ion levels in blood.
D) venous return and preload.
E) blood pressure.
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Page 23
Chapter 22: The Lymphatic System and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Various types of macrophages are derived from A) lymphocytes.
B) monocytes.
C) neutrophils.
D) eosinophils.
E) basophils.
Q2) A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
A) is feeling achy.
B) is producing T lymphocytes.
C) has a sore throat.
D) is running a fever.
E) has swollen lymph nodes.
Q3) Cancer cells can be detected by NK cells when they show A) interferons.
B) complement proteins.
C) tumor-specific antigens.
D) opsonization.
E) CD4 markers.
Q4) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: The Respiratory System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in
A) increased respiratory rate.
B) more intense inhalation.
C) a shorter respiratory cycle.
D) less activity in the DRG center.
E) decreased vital capacity.
Q2) The most superior portion of the lung is called the A) base.
B) apex.
C) cardiac notch.
D) hilus.
E) epipleurium.
Q3) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cricoid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) epiglottic
Q4) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
Q5) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
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Chapter 24: The Digestive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these digestive structures is not necessary for life?
A) stomach
B) small intestines
C) colon
D) liver
E) pancreas
Q2) The duodenal ampulla receives secretions from the
A) duodenum and the jejunum.
B) duodenum and the pylorus.
C) bile duct and the pancreatic duct.
D) duodenum and the pancreatic duct.
E) duodenum and the bile duct.
Q3) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis.
D) adventitia.
E) serosa.
Q4) Leon has gallstones. His doctor puts him on a diet low in fat. Why?
Q5) What role do hormones play in hunger and satiety?
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Metabolism, Nutrition, and Energetics
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Sample Questions
Q1) The major cation in extracellular fluid is A) sodium.
B) potassium. C) calcium.
D) magnesium.
E) iron.
Q2) The vitamin that is part of the coenzyme NAD is A) thiamine.
B) riboflavin.
C) niacin.
D) folic acid (folate).
E) cobalamin.
Q3) Inadequate exposure to sunlight could result in decreased amounts of vitamin ________ in the body.
A) A
B) B12
C) C
D) D
E) E
Q4) What happens during protein catabolism? How is this related to nitrogen balance?
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Chapter 26: The Urinary System
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Q1) The efferent arteriole of a nephron divides to form a network of capillaries within the cortex called the ________ capillaries.
A) peritubular
B) glomerular
C) vasa recta
D) cortical
E) efferent
Q2) Identify the region labeled "1."
A) renal cortex
B) renal medulla
C) renal papilla
D) renal sinus
E) fibrous capsule
Q3) The ________ delivers urine to a minor calyx.
A) nephron loop (loop of Henle)
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) papillary duct
D) renal corpuscle
E) ureter
Q4) List each organ of the urinary system and concisely describe its function.
Page 28
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Chapter 27: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mg2+ and K+ are found in higher concentrations in the (intracellular, extracellular) fluid, whereas Na+ andCl- are found in higher concentrations in the (intracellular, extracellular) fluid. (Figure 27-2)
A) intracellular; extracellular
B) extracellular; intracellular
Q2) Extreme losses of bicarbonate ions, such as in diarrhea, will cause
A) acute respiratory acidosis.
B) chronic respiratory acidosis.
C) respiratory alkalosis.
D) metabolic acidosis.
E) metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Administration of a medication in the elderly can result in a much higher dosage than the clinician might intend because
A) the metabolic rate in the elderly is so high.
B) the kidneys of the elderly do not work well.
C) the elderly have less water content in the body.
D) other medications they take might enhance the concentration of another drug.
E) they cannot regulate pH well.
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29
Chapter 28: The Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) After ovulation, the ovary secretes
A) luteinizing hormone.
B) estrogen.
C) progesterone.
D) both estrogen and progesterone.
E) luteinizing hormone, estrogen, and progesterone.
Q2) The ________ consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation.
A) stroma
B) corpus albicans
C) antrum
D) zona pellucida
E) corona radiata
Q3) The painful condition that develops because epithelial tissue from the uterus is present in the peritonealcavity is
A) endometriosis.
B) ovarian cysts.
C) peritonitis.
D) lymphedema.
E) orchitis.
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Chapter 29: Development and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identify the structure labeled "8."
A) amnion
B) chorion
C) basal decidua
D) placenta
E) capsular decidua
Q2) The outer layer of the blastocyst that can penetrate the endometrium is the A) archegonium.
B) chorion.
C) gastrula.
D) blastula.
E) trophoblast.
Q3) Anew mother tells you that when she nurses her baby, she feels as if she is having menstrual cramps. Howwould you explain this phenomenon?
Q4) In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are
A) determined by a double pair of alleles.
B) determined by interactions among several genes.
C) determined by multiple copies of a single gene.
D) always controlled by genes on the same chromosome.
E) determined by the genes on the Y chromosome.
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