Health Sciences Anatomy and Physiology Lab
Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
The Health Sciences Anatomy and Physiology Lab course provides students with hands-on experience in exploring the structure and function of the human body. Through the examination of anatomical models, preserved specimens, and interactive activities, students investigate major organ systems, including the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and urinary systems. The laboratory complements theoretical knowledge by emphasizing scientific observation, practical techniques, and the application of concepts to real-world health scenarios, preparing students for advanced studies and careers in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Visual Anatomy and Physiology Lab Manual Main Version 2nd Edition by Stephen N. Sarikas
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Chapter 1: Body Organization and Terminology
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Q1) The anatomical term <i>superficial</i> means ________.
A) farther from the surface
B) closer to the surface
C) closer to the trunk
D) farther from the trunk
Answer: B
Q2) This system provides nutrients for cells in all tissues and organ systems.
A) muscular
B) respiratory
C) digestive
D) nervous
Answer: C
Q3) The heart is contained within the ________ cavity,whereas the lungs are in the ________ cavities.
A) thoracic; pericardial
B) mediastinum; pleural
C) pericardial; pleural
D) peritoneal; pleural
Answer: C
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Care and Use of the Compound Light
Microscope
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Q1) If the microscope is not parfocal,the user should make focusing adjustments using the ________ adjustment knob when viewing a specimen under high power.
A) coarse
B) condenser
C) stage
D) fine
Answer: D
Q2) At a total magnification of 100×,the diameter of the field of view is 6 mm.If the total magnification is increased to 1000×,the diameter of the field of view is ________.
A) 0.6 mm
B) 0.06 mm
C) 60 mm
D) 600 mm
Answer: A
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Cell Division
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Q1) Which organelle(s)would be most visible in methylene blue-stained cheek cells?
A) mitochondria
B) nucleus
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B
Q2) The ________ provides structural support,strength,and flexibility to the cell.
A) nucleus
B) cytoskeleton
C) plasma membrane
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B
Q3) The plasma membrane contains ________.
A) cholesterol
B) phospholipids
C) phospholipids and cholesterol
D) phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Membrane Transport
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Q1) When comparing the solute concentration of two solutions,the ________ solution has a higher solute concentration.
A) isotonic
B) hypotonic
C) hypertonic
D) solvent
Q2) Which of the following conditions must be met if diffusion across a membrane is to occur?
A) A concentration gradient must be present, and the membrane can't be permeable to the substance being transported.
B) A concentration gradient must be present, and the membrane must be permeable to the substance that is to be transported.
C) The membrane must be permeable to the substance that is to be transported.
D) A concentration gradient must be present.
Q3) As temperature increases,the rate of diffusion of a solute will ________.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) remain the same
D) There is not enough information to answer the question.
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Tissues
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Q1) The appearance of ________ epithelium varies as the tissue is either stretched or relaxed.This type of tissue is unique to the urinary bladder.
A) transitional
B) simple squamous
C) simple cuboidal
D) pseudostratified columnar
Q2) Skeletal muscle cells differ from cardiac muscle cells in that ________.
A) skeletal muscle cells consist of cylindrical, non-branched cells with multiple nuclei
B) skeletal muscle cells are branched and generally possess one nucleus
C) skeletal muscle cells are spindle-shaped and possess one centrally located nucleus
D) skeletal muscle cells possess cell junctions called intercalated discs
Q3) ________ epithelium consists of cube-shaped cells.
A) Simple
B) Squamous
C) Columnar
D) Cuboidal
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Chapter 6: The Integumentary System
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Q1) The production of melanin is dependent on environmental exposure.Which of the following activities would trigger the production of melanin?
A) sunbathing while on vacation in the Caribbean
B) walking outside on a rainy, overcast day
C) hanging out with friends while watching movies
D) swimming in an indoor pool
Q2) Sebaceous glands produce ________,also known as skin oil.
A) melanin
B) sebum
C) mucus
D) sweat
Q3) Which of the following is NOT an accessory structure in the integumentary system?
A) exocrine glands and hair follicles
B) endocrine glands
C) nails and exocrine glands
D) hair follicles and nails
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Chapter 7: Introduction to the Skeletal System and the Axial
Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following bones belongs in the appendicular skeleton?
A) sternum
B) metatarsal
C) rib
D) vertebra
Q2) What type of bone is the sternum?
A) irregular
B) flat
C) sutural
D) sesamoid
Q3) Which of the following changes in the vertebral column is most likely to occur during pregnancy?
A) osteoporosis
B) kyphosis
C) lordosis
D) scoliosis
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Appendicular Skeleton
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Q1) Which of the following tarsal bones form the heel?
A) cuboid
B) talus
C) calcaneus
D) navicular
Q2) Which of the following carpal bones is most commonly fractured during a fall?
A) capitate
B) triquetrum
C) scaphoid
D) hamate
Q3) What is pes cavus?
A) cuneiform
B) capitate
C) flat feet
D) high arches
Q4) Which wrist bone is immediately proximal to the fifth metacarpal (V)?
A) hamate
B) capitate
C) trapezium
D) trapezoid
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Chapter 9: Articulations
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Q1) What is the anatomical name for the knuckle joints?
A) intercarpal
B) radioulnar
C) metacarpophalangeal
D) intertarsal
Q2) What is the anatomical term for when your palm is facing superiorly?
A) dorsiflexion
B) opposition
C) supination
D) pronation
Q3) What type of joint has no movement?
A) synovial
B) synarthrosis
C) diarthrosis
D) amphiarthrosis
Q4) Which pair of sutures meet at the sphenoidal fontanel?
A) coronal and squamous
B) coronal and sagittal
C) lambdoid and sagittal
D) lambdoid and squamous
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Chapter 10: Introduction to Skeletal Muscle
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Q1) Which of the following is both a protein and a structural component of thin filaments?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) myofibrils
D) T-tubules
Q2) What is the "group name" for a motor nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers it stimulates?
A) motor end plate
B) myasthenia gravis
C) synaptic terminal
D) motor unit
Q3) What is the anatomical name for the tube-like structures that are open to the surface of the sarcolemma and form a portion of a triad?
A) cisternae
B) myofibril
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) T-tubules
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12
Chapter 11: Muscles of the Head, Neck, and Trunk
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Q1) Upon arriving in your anatomy lab,you drop your pencil.Identify the muscle that allows for flexion of the vertebral column,allowing you to bend at the waist to retrieve the pencil.
A) transversus abdominis
B) external oblique
C) internal oblique
D) rectus abdominis
Q2) An antagonist ________.
A) opposes a specific action
B) serves as the fixed attachment of a muscle
C) promotes or facilitates a specific action
D) is also known a prime mover. Contraction results in a specific action
Q3) The muscles of the head,neck,and trunk are referred to as the ________ muscles.
A) smooth
B) appendicular
C) axial
D) skeletal
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Chapter 12: Muscles of the Upper and Lower Limbs
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Q1) The common action of the pectoralis minor,subclavius,and serratus anterior muscles is to ________.
A) rotate the scapula
B) stabilize the pectoral girdle when the shoulder moves
C) elevate the ribs
D) protract the shoulder
Q2) The gastrocnemius and soleus muscles act as an agonist for ________.
A) dorsiflexion at the ankle
B) flexion of the toe joints
C) eversion of the foot
D) plantar flexion at the ankle
Q3) Which muscle acts as an antagonist for plantar flexion?
A) gastrocnemius
B) soleus
C) fibularis longus
D) tibialis anterior
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14
Chapter 13: Physiology of the Muscular System
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Q1) Which of the following must occur for muscles to recover from fatigue?
A) ATP is produced via aerobic respiration.
B) Lactic acid builds up in the sarcolemma of muscle cells.
C) Muscle cells start to make ATP in anaerobic conditions.
D) Lactic acid is metabolized to pyruvate or glucose and ATP reserves are restored.
Q2) How do dynamic and static flexibility differ?
A) Dynamic flexibility considers resistance to a motion as well as the difficulty of a movement.
B) Dynamic flexibility only measures range of motion.
C) Static flexibility considers resistance to a motion as well as the difficulty of a movement.
D) There is no difference between the two.
Q3) Static flexibility is measured with a ________.
A) yard stick
B) protractor
C) ruler
D) goniometer
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15
Chapter 14: Nervous Tissue
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Q1) Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The gray matter of the cerebellum is referred to as the arbor vitae or the "tree of life."
B) The white matter of the cerebrum consists of neuron cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia. Myelinated axons and neuroglia can be found in the gray matter.
C) The white matter of the spinal cord has a characteristic butterfly shape.
D) The gray matter of the cerebrum consists of neuron cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia. Myelinated axons and neuroglia appear white and are insulated.
Q2) The three layers of the cerebellar cortex are the ________.
A) molecular layer, Purkinje cell layer, and the cerebellar nuclei
B) cerebrum, Purkinje cell layer, and the molecular layer
C) molecular layer, granular layer, and the arbor vitae
D) molecular layer, Purkinje cell layer, and the granular layer
Q3) Cranial and spinal nerve fascicles are covered by the ________.
A) telodendrion
B) epineurium
C) microglia
D) perineurium
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Page 16
Chapter 15: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid produced in the lateral ventricles flows next to the ________.
A) third ventricle
B) choroid plexus
C) fourth ventricle
D) cerebral aqueduct of the midbrain
Q2) Which of the following correctly lists the meninges in order from deep to superficial?
A) pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater
B) arachnoid mater, dura mater, and pia mater
C) dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid mater
D) dura mater, subarachnoid space, and pia mater
Q3) Which of the following is a correct listing of the cranial nerves that originate from the medulla oblongata?
A) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and olfactory
B) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory, and hypoglossal
C) glossopharyngeal, vagus, trochlear, and oculomotor
D) glossopharyngeal, trigeminal, accessory, and abducens
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Chapter 16: The Spinal Cord and Spinal Nerves
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Q1) First-order neurons ________.
A) travel to the thalamus and synapse on third-order neurons
B) transmit motor information from a receptor to the central nervous system
C) carry sensory information from a receptor to the central nervous system
D) travel from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex
Q2) The ________ connect(s)the pia mater to the dura mater of the spinal cord.
A) denticulate ligaments
B) conus medullaris
C) spinal nerves
D) filum terminale
Q3) Your lab partner does not feel the stick of a needle in the sural region of the leg.Which spinal nerve may be damaged?
A) S
B) L
C) L
D) C
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Chapter 17: Human Reflex Physiology
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Q1) After consuming several servings of a beverage containing alcohol,your roommate is unable to maintain the balance required to walk in a straight line.What can this behavior be attributed to?
A) Beverages containing alcohol affect the nervous system but do not impair balance.
B) Beverages containing alcohol have no effect on the nervous system.
C) Alcohol temporarily alters proper functioning of the cerebellum.
D) Alcohol temporarily alters proper functioning of the cerebrum.
Q2) Which of the following is a normal response to the patellar reflex test?
A) contraction of the quadriceps femoris muscles and slight extension of the leg
B) contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus coupled with slight plantar flexion
C) spreading of the toes
D) plantar flexion
Q3) Reflexes help clinicians assess the functional integrity of the ________.
A) PNS and CNS
B) PNS
C) muscular system
D) CNS
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Chapter 18: Special Senses
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Q1) Diminished sensitivity to a sense over a period of continuous stimulation is known as
A) adaptation
B) olfaction
C) tonicity
D) audition
Q2) ________ deafness results from damage along the neural pathway for hearing,whereas ________ deafness involves altered transmission of sound waves.
A) Conductive; sensorineural
B) Rinne; conductive
C) Weber; sensorineural
D) Sensorineural; conductive
Q3) Olfactory receptor cells,sensory receptors for olfaction,are located ________.
A) in the olfactory epithelium
B) in the semicircular canals
C) in the cochlear duct
D) in structures called papillae
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20
Chapter 19: The Endocrine System
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Q1) Where in the adrenal gland is cortisol produced?
A) zona glomerulosa (of adrenal cortex)
B) zona fasciculata (of adrenal cortex)
C) zona reticularis (of adrenal cortex)
D) adrenal medulla
Q2) Which cells of the thyroid produce calcitonin?
A) oxyphil cells
B) parafollicular cells
C) chief cells
D) follicle cells
Q3) A morbidly obese man has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.Which of the following hormones is not being utilized effectively?
A) calcitriol
B) pancreatic polypeptide
C) insulin
D) glucagon
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Chapter 20: Blood Cells
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Q1) Which of the following leukocytes are responsible for producing antibodies?
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) lymphocytes
D) monocytes
Q2) A patient's bloodwork shows abnormal granulocytes.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) hematocrit
B) myeloid leukemia
C) anemia
D) lymphoid leukemia
Q3) The movement of leukocytes through the blood vessel wall is known as ________.
A) hematocrit
B) diapedesis
C) leukemia
D) agglutination
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Chapter 21: Gross Anatomy of the Heart
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Q1) What structure connects the free margins of the AV valve cusps to the papillary muscles?
A) trabeculae carneae
B) endocardium
C) chordae tendineae
D) myocardium
Q2) A failure of which of the following heart valves would most likely lead to right atrial hypertrophy?
A) pulmonary semilunar valve
B) tricuspid valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) bicuspid valve
Q3) Which of the following structures is the opening that connects the atria in the fetal heart?
A) trabeculae carneae
B) conus arteriosus
C) foramen ovale
D) aortic vestibule
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Chapter 22: Anatomy of Blood Vessels
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Q1) Which portion of the brain receives its blood supply from the anterior cerebral artery?
A) medial sides of the cerebral hemispheres
B) lateral side of the temporal and parietal lobes
C) pons and cerebellum
D) occipital lobe
Q2) Which veins drain blood from the face,scalp,and neck?
A) external jugular
B) vertebral
C) brachiocephalic
D) internal jugular
Q3) Which of the following arteries is the first to arise from the aortic arch?
A) left subclavian artery
B) brachiocephalic trunk
C) bronchial artery
D) left common carotid
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24
Chapter 23: Cardiovascular Physiology
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Q1) The term ________ means "relaxation," and the term ________ means "contraction."
A) diastole; systole
B) systole; diastole
C) systole; conduction
D) diastole; conduction
Q2) Systolic blood pressure represents ________.
A) the expansion and recoil of the artery walls
B) the highest blood pressure generated in arteries during ventricular systole when the artery is maximally stretched
C) the resistance to blood flow in the arteries
D) the electrical activity in the heart
Q3) The ________ is generated by the expansion and recoil of the arteries.
A) blood pressure
B) heartbeat
C) mean arterial pressure
D) pulse
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25
Chapter 24: The Lymphatic System
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Q1) You notice that your roommate has swollen lymph nodes.Based on your knowledge of the lymphatic system,what might the clinical significance of this observation be?
A) Swollen lymph nodes may indicate the presence of an infection.
B) Swollen lymph nodes cannot be observed by a physical exam.
C) Swollen lymph nodes may signal the end of an illness.
D) Swollen lymph nodes are not clinically significant.
Q2) A patient visits her doctor for a routine checkup.The doctor observes lymphadenopathy,or swollen lymph nodes in the side of the patient's neck.The patient says,"Those have been swollen for a few months,but I have felt fine that whole time." Indeed there are no other symptoms.What is a likely cause of this problem?
A) The patient is developing a bacterial infection.
B) The patient needs a tonsillectomy.
C) The patient is HIV positive.
D) The patient is recovering from the flu.
Q3) The role of the tonsils is to ________.
A) protect the upper respiratory and digestive tracts from infections
B) produce new lymphocytes
C) secrete thymosins
D) filter lymph before it is returned to the venous circulation
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Anatomy of the Respiratory System
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Q1) Identify the airway type based on this description:The airway type is lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium,cartilage is present,goblet cells are present,and ciliated cells are present.
A) bronchiole
B) primary bronchus
C) terminal bronchiole
D) alveolar duct
Q2) Which of the pharyngeal regions is most closely associated with the oral cavity?
A) nasopharynx
B) oropharynx
C) trachea
D) laryngopharynx
Q3) The epiglottis covers the laryngeal opening when you swallow.What is the significance of this action?
A) The epiglottis prevents food and beverages from "going down the wrong pipe" by blocking the entrance to the larynx.
B) The epiglottis prevents backflow of food and beverage into the pharynx.
C) The epiglottis has no known function.
D) The epiglottis allows food and beverages to enter the larynx.
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Chapter 26: Respiratory Physiology
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Q1) Boyle's law states that the gas pressure inside a closed container at constant temperature is ________.
A) not related to the volume of gas
B) inversely proportional to the volume of gas
C) equal to the volume of gas
D) directly proportional to the volume of gas
Q2) Your predicted vital capacity is 3603 mL.During an anatomy and physiology lab,your actual vital capacity was measured and recorded as 2482 mL.What is the clinical interpretation of this information?
A) Your pulmonary function is above normal, indicative of a consistent exercise program.
B) Your pulmonary function is below normal, indicative of pulmonary disease or a history of smoking.
C) Your pulmonary function is normal.
D) There is not enough information provided to assess pulmonary function.
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28
Chapter 27: Anatomy of the Digestive System
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Q1) A patient has been identified to have a "leaky" ileum,which is causing inflammation and irritation of one of his mesenteries.Which of the following mesenteries is most likely to become inflamed?
A) mesocolon
B) mesentery proper
C) lesser omentum
D) greater omentum
Q2) Which is the most superior region of the stomach?
A) fundic region (or fundus)
B) cardiac region
C) body
D) pyloric region
Q3) What is the name of the juncture between the ascending and transverse colons?
A) hepatic flexure
B) sigmoid flexure
C) cecum
D) left colic flexure
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Chapter 28: Actions of a Digestive Enzyme
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Q1) When starch is digested by amylase what is the first breakdown product?
A) dextrin
B) glucose
C) amylose
D) sucrose
Q2) Which of the following compounds will result from the breakdown of starch in the presence of both amylase and maltase?
A) fructose
B) glucose
C) lactose
D) galactose
Q3) ________ is a reactant substance that is acted upon by a specific enzyme.
A) Amylase
B) A substrate
C) Maltase
D) A catalyst
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Chapter 29: Anatomy of the Urinary System
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Q1) Which artery or arteriole exits the glomerulus?
A) vasa recta
B) efferent arteriole
C) cortical radiate artery
D) afferent arteriole
Q2) What is the innermost tissue layer of a ureter?
A) connective tissue layer
B) mucous membrane
C) lamina propria
D) smooth muscle layer
Q3) Which arteries provide a good landmark for identifying the corticomedullary boundary?
A) cortical radiate arteries (interlobular arteries)
B) interlobar arteries
C) segmental arteries
D) arcuate arteries
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Chapter 30: Urinary Physiology
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Q1) In which part of the nephron are excess ions removed from the blood?
A) glomerulus
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) loop of Henle
D) distal convoluted tubule
Q2) Where does the most reabsorption occur in the nephron?
A) distal convoluted tubule
B) proximal convoluted tubule
C) collecting duct
D) glomerulus
Q3) Where does filtration occur in the kidney?
A) loop of Henle
B) distal convoluted tubule
C) proximal convoluted tubule
D) renal corpuscle
Q4) Why does urine have a yellow color?
A) urochrome
B) glucose
C) erythrocytes
D) ketone bodies
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Chapter 31: The Male Reproductive System
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Q1) The regions of the penis are ________.
A) the body and the glans
B) the root and the glans
C) the root and the body
D) the root, the body, and the glans
Q2) What are the three regions of the urethra?
A) the penile urethra, the membranous urethra, and the prostatic urethra
B) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
C) the ejaculatory urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the deferens urethra
D) the penile urethra, the epididymal urethra, and the prostatic urethra
Q3) Secretions of the bulbourethral (Cowper's)gland ________.
A) contain fluid and enzymes
B) promote the growth of bacteria near the prepuce
C) lubricate the tip of the penis
D) contribute to the volume of semen
Q4) In their most primitive state,spermatogenic cells are referred to as ________.
A) spermatozoa
B) spermatogonia
C) secondary spermatocytes
D) spermatids
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Chapter 32: The Female Reproductive System
Available Study Resources on Quizplus for this Chatper
20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following pairings represents homologous structures?
A) labia majora : labia minora
B) ovary : testis
C) clitoris : testis
D) ovary : scrotum
Q2) Which of the following structures serves as the site of fetal development?
A) uterine (fallopian) tubes
B) vagina
C) ovaries
D) uterus
Q3) The ________ produces estrogen and progesterone,which facilitate maintenance of the uterine wall in the early stages of pregnancy.
A) corpus albicans
B) oocyte
C) corona radiata
D) corpus luteum
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