Health Science
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Science is an interdisciplinary field that explores the application of scientific principles to the promotion and improvement of human health. This course examines the biological, psychological, and social determinants of health, providing students with a comprehensive understanding of how health and wellness are achieved and maintained across populations. Through a combination of theoretical study and practical application, students will learn about healthcare systems, disease prevention, health policy, epidemiology, and the role of emerging technologies in healthcare. The course aims to equip learners with the foundational knowledge and skills necessary for careers in healthcare, research, public health, or further specialized study in health-related fields.
Recommended Textbook
Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is once-daily-dosing preferred for Australian Indigenous peoples?
A) Because Indigenous people generally have a poor memory.
B) Indigenous people have a culturally different concept of time, therefore minimising the number of doses is aimed at promoting compliance.
C) Because once-daily dosing is less likely to cause side effects such as renal disease.
D) All of the above.
Answer: B
Q2) The Macusi Indians of Guyana have a place in the history of pharmacology as the first users of which type of drug?
A) A hallucinogenic agent related to LSD.
B) A narcotic analgesic.
C) A skeletal muscle relaxant.
D) A central nervous system stimulant.
Answer: C
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Paternalism occurs when:
A) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to document this treatment in the client medical history.
B) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to inform the client about this treatment.
C) health care professionals do not carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client.
D) health care professionals carry out a particular treatment deemed to be of benefit to the client and then neglect to inform the chief executive officer of the institution.
Answer: B
Q2) After giving a verbal order the doctor must:
A) confirm the verbal order in writing within 48 hours.
B) confirm the verbal order in writing within 24 hours.
C) ensure that the medication is administered by the nurse.
D) ensure that a doctor has co-signed the verbal order.
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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Sample Questions
Q1) For best results when administering nystatin oral drops, you should do all of the following except:
A) place it under the tongue.
B) hold it in the mouth for as long as possible.
C) swallow it straight away.
D) place it in the buccal cavity.
Answer: C
Q2) Drugs of biological origin such as vaccine preparations need to be stored
A) between 25°C and 37°C.
B) at room temperature.
C) between 10°C and 20°C.
D) between 0°C and 4°C.
Answer: D
Q3) Following use of a nebuliser unit:
A) dismantle the unit, rinse and shake to allow to dry.
B) pack it away in the client's bedside drawer.
C) dismantle the unit, rinse and towel dry.
D) leave it hanging by the client's bedside.
Answer: A
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) In neonates and infants, drug absorption through the skin is:
A) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
B) enhanced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
C) reduced because the surface area to body weight is less than that of adults.
D) reduced because the surface area to body weight is greater than that of adults.
Q2) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q3) Determining the kind or dosage of drug therapy on the basis of an individual's genetic status:
A) is an example of genetic polymorphism.
B) may increase the cost of health insurance for the whole community.
C) is called drug striation.
D) may decrease the incidence of serious drug adverse reactions for some clients.
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The principle of management of clinical drug overdose that takes precedence over all others is:
A) life support.
B) client assessment.
C) drug detoxification.
D) drug elimination.
Q2) A chelating agent that can be used in the management of magnesium poisoning is:
A) calcium gluconate.
B) dicobalt edetate.
C) calcium disodium edetate.
D) desferrioxamine mesylate.
Q3) One challenge for health professionals administering naloxone for acute narcotic overdose is that:
A) patients can become addicted to naloxone.
B) the half-life of naloxone is longer than many narcotics, which frustrates patients.
C) the half-life of naloxone is shorter than many narcotics so symptoms of overdose can reoccur.
D) it can only be administered intravenously.
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Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The 'fight or flight' responses are initiated by which system?
A) Somatic nervous system.
B) Parasympathetic nervous system.
C) Central nervous system.
D) Sympathetic nervous system.
Q2) Muscarinic antagonists are useful in the management of:
A) myasthenia gravis.
B) glaucoma.
C) tachycardia.
D) urinary incontinence.
Q3) In response to stressful ('fight or flight') situations, sympathetic nervous stimulation causes dilation of bronchioles (to allow rapid air movement) and of coronary blood vessels, and increases heart rate and contractile force.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Receptors that respond to noradrenaline are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) noradrenergic.
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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Sample Questions
Q1) Adrenaline can prevent further histamine release in allergic and anaphylactic reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The key difference between autocrine and paracrine secretions is that:
A) autocrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and paracrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally.
B) paracrine secretions enter the blood and act on neighbouring cells and autocrine secretions remain in the tissues and act locally.
C) autocrine secretions have a more rapid action.
D) paracrine secretions are more potent.
Q3) Generally when used as drugs, amino acid-based chemical mediators:
A) tend to be a fixed size of about 10-15 residues long.
B) can be administered orally.
C) only influence vascular function.
D) have short half-lives.
Q4) Topical use of antihistamines is safe.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following antiseizure drugs may cause gingivitis and gingival hyperplasia, therefore necessitating the need for meticulous dental care?
A) Phenytoin.
B) Carbamazepine.
C) Ethosuximide.
D) Vigabatrin.
Q2) What is the rationale for giving levodopa and carbidopa as combination therapy for Parkinson's disease?
A) Levodopa increases the therapeutic effect of carbidopa.
B) Carbidopa inhibits the breakdown of levodopa increasing distribution to the central nervous system.
C) Both preparations are required to increase the availability of dopamine in the peripheries.
D) Levodopa increases the half-life of carbidopa.
Q3) The major inhibitory neurotransmitter is:
A) Dopamine.
B) Glutamate.
C) Serotonin.
D) GABA
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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Sample Questions
Q1) NSAIDs may not be suitable for use in individuals with renal impairment because:
A) they increase sodium excretion.
B) they increase body temperature.
C) they reduce glomerular filtration rate.
D) they reduce pepsin levels in the stomach.
Q2) In treating an acute migraine attack, sumatriptan should not be given with ergotamine because:
A) the combination may lead to excessive bronchoconstriction.
B) the combination may lead to excessive vasoconstriction.
C) the combination may lead to gastrointestinal bleeding.
D) the combination may lead to excessive diuresis.
Q3) Which of the following narcotics has a prolonged duration of action?
A) Pethidine.
B) Methadone.
C) Codeine.
D) Fentanyl.
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Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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Sample Questions
Q1) When timing the dose for the fibrate gemfibrozil, the client should be advised to take it:
A) at bedtime.
B) upon arising in the morning.
C) with food.
D) half an hour before food.
Q2) The cardiac glycoside digoxin is also known as A) digitalis.
B) ACE.
C) carvedilol.
D) captopril.
Q3) Which one of the following chemical mediators can alter blood pressure via vasoconstriction?
A) Prostacyclin.
B) Endothelin-1.
C) Nitric oxide.
D) Prostaglandin E<sub>2</sub><sub>.</sub>
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Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Docusate is a:
A) faecal softener.
B) lubricant.
C) stimulant.
D) bulk laxative.
Q2) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
Q3) Treatment with the anti-inflammatory bowel drug sulfasalazine can cause:
A) insomnia.
B) dizziness.
C) male infertility.
D) vitamin A deficiency.
Q4) Treatment of diarrhoea with diphenoxylate may cause:
A) constipation.
B) dysphagia.
C) gastric reflux.
D) increased bowel sounds.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about oxytocin is correct?
A) There are no clinical uses for oxytocin.
B) Oxytocin is believed to have strong serotonergic and -adrenergic activity.
C) The anterior pituitary lobe secretes oxytocin.
D) Oxytocin promotes breast milk let-down and facilitates placental delivery.
Q2) Prior to commencing probenecid for gout, it is important to inform the person that:
A) probenecid is inactivated by pigments in red food colouring, so they must abstain from foods containing red dye three days prior to commencement of therapy and throughout the course of therapy.
B) probenecid is likely to cause constipation.
C) ceasing oral analgesics is the best way to gauge the effect of a course of probenecid.
D) probenecid is a preventative treatment so should not be commenced while they have acute symptoms of gout.
Q3) Which if the following is an example of a long-acting corticosteroid?
A) Dexamethasone.
B) Cortisone.
C) Prednisone.
D) Budesonide.
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiamine deficiency may occur in any of the following conditions except:
A) infants under the age of two.
B) alcoholism.
C) cirrhosis.
D) gastrointestinal disease.
Q2) The use of garlic as a herbal medication should be avoided in all of the following conditions except in:
A) the person with atherosclerosis.
B) the woman who is pregnant.
C) the person on anticoagulant therapy.
D) the person on hypoglycaemic therapy.
Q3) If a woman is using evening primrose oil for premenstrual syndrome, it should be consumed:
A) a few days before menstruation.
B) during menstruation.
C) all throughout the menstrual cycle.
D) the first four days following the onset of menstruation.
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following are adverse effects of the influenza drug zanamivir?
A) Nausea.
B) Bronchospasm.
C) Dyspnoea.
D) All of the above.
Q2) An antimicrobial drug mechanism of action generally regarded as bacteriostatic is one that:
A) interferes with metabolic processes.
B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.
C) promotes protein synthesis.
D) disrupts cell membranes.
Q3) What is the key difference between the common cold and influenza?
A) Influenza is a respiratory tract infection.
B) There is a vaccine for influenza.
C) The symptom of a headache is typical of influenza only.
D) The common cold can be treated with antiviral medications.
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Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors that can affect the rate of topical drug absorption into the eyeball include all of the following except:
A) the pH of the environment.
B) corneal integrity.
C) the age of the person.
D) blinking.
Q2) SPF 15 sunscreens block about:
A) 94 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 6 per cent penetration.
B) 95 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 5 per cent penetration.
C) 96 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 4 per cent penetration.
D) 97 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 3 per cent penetration.
Q3) Children with eczema are more likely to develop:
A) skin cancer.
B) asthma.
C) verrucae.
D) alopecia.
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