Health Science Foundations Question Bank - 3257 Verified Questions

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Health Science Foundations

Question Bank

Course Introduction

Health Science Foundations is an introductory course designed to provide students with a comprehensive overview of the healthcare industry and its core concepts. The course covers fundamental topics such as medical terminology, human anatomy and physiology, healthcare systems, infection control, patient care principles, and ethical and legal responsibilities in healthcare settings. Students will also explore career pathways, effective communication techniques, and professional standards expected in health professions. Through a blend of theoretical knowledge and practical skills, this course prepares students for further study and careers in various health science fields.

Recommended Textbook

Anatomy and Physiology 5th Edition by Elaine

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26 Chapters

3257 Verified Questions

3257 Flashcards

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Chapter 1: The Human Body: an Orientation

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131 Verified Questions

131 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

Q2) Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?

A) anterior

B) lateral

C) distal

D) dorsal

Answer: D

Q3) Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ________.

A) the lowest possible energy usage

B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits

C) a static state with no deviation from preset points

D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range, depending on circumstances

Answer: B

Q4) What is the single most abundant chemical substance in the body?

Answer: water

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Chapter 2: Chemistry Comes Alive

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146 Verified Questions

146 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this?

A) solution

B) suspension

C) colloid

D) mixture

Answer: C

Q2) Explain why chemical reactions in the body are often irreversible. Answer: Chemical reactions that release energy cannot be reversed unless energy is put back into the system. Also, some reactions produce molecules in excessive quantities (like CO and NH ) that the body then eliminates, but which are needed to reverse a reaction.

Q3) Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?

A) H O

B) NaCl

C) NaOH

D) CH

Answer: D

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Chapter 3: Cells: the Living Units

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136 Verified Questions

136 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following does not serve as a signal for cell division?

A) repressor genes

B) joining of cyclins and Cdks

C) loss of contact inhibition

D) shrinking surface-to-volume ratio

Answer: A

Q2) Nonpolar region of phospholipid.

Answer: C

Q3) The RNA responsible for bringing the amino acids to the ribosome for protein formation is ________.

A) rRNA

B) mRNA

C) tRNA

D) ssRNA

Answer: C

Q4) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from -50 to about +50 millivolts.

A)True

B)False

Answer: False

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Chapter 5: The Integumentary System

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118 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The white crescent portion of the nail is called the ________.

Q2) Ceruminous glands are modified merocrine glands.

A)True

B)False

Q3) In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?

A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.

C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.

D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.

Q4) Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake

B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist

C) through blood analysis

D) by using the "rule of nines"

Q5) Usually indicates a liver disorder.

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Page 13

Chapter 10: The Muscular System

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118 Verified Questions

118 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?

A) tibialis anterior

B) extensor digitorum longus

C) peroneus tertius

D) peroneus longus

Q2) The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

A) diaphragm alone

B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus

C) external intercostals and diaphragm

D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm

Q4) What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?

A) an antagonist

B) a prime mover

C) a synergist

D) an agonist

Q5) Flexes the wrist.

14

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Chapter 11: Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue

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114 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Receives stimuli.

Q2) Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.

A) the myelin sheath

B) large nerve fibers

C) diphasic impulses

D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses

Q3) Also called a nerve impulse transmitted by axons.

Q4) The neuron cannot respond to a second stimulus, no matter how strong.

Q5) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

A) origin of the stimulus

B) type of stimulus receptor

C) frequency of action potentials

D) size of action potentials

Q6) Which of the following is not True of graded potentials?

A) They are short-lived.

B) They can form on receptor endings.

C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.

D) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.

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Q7) Stimulation of a postsynaptic neuron by many terminals at the same time.

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Chapter 12: The Central Nervous System

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Sample Questions

Q1) The location and arrangement of the arteries supplying the hippocampus make it particularly vulnerable to injury. How would memory be affected if the hippocampus suffered deterioration?

Q2) Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.

A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord

B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord

C) the thalamus

D) sympathetic ganglia

Q3) Thalamus.

Q4) Projection fibers in the brain mainly connect the right and left hemispheres.

A)True

B)False

Q5) If the caudal portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.

A) spinal cord may be affected

B) cranial nerves would not form

C) hindbrain would not be present

D) telencephalon would cease development

Q6) Seat of intelligence, abstract reasoning.

Q7) What is the cauda equina and why is it given this name?

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Chapter 13: The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity

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175 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Select the statement that is most correct.

A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.

B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.

C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.

D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.

Q2) Taste buds are not found ________.

A) in fungiform papillae

B) in filiform papillae

C) in circumvallate papillae

D) lining the buccal cavity

Q3) Fluid blockages cause glaucoma.

Q4) Intermediate relay for incoming and outgoing neurons.

Q5) The ________ nuclei are in the visual pathway and mediate the pupillary light reflexes.

Q6) Area of greatest visual acuity.

Q7) What is the normal response of the plantar reflex? What is Babinski's sign and what does it indicate?

Q8) Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx. Page 17

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Page 18

Chapter 14: The Autonomic Nervous System

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106 Verified Questions

106 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What studies have suggested that the ANS can also be subject to voluntary controls?

Q2) Cell body of ANS postganglionic neuron.

Q3) Rami communicantes are designated white or grey to indicate whether or not the fibers passing through them are myelinated.

A)True

B)False

Q4) Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.

A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow

B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response

C) preganglionic fibers are short

D) preganglionic fibers are long

Q5) Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number

A) V

B) VII

C) X

D) XII

Q6) How are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions anatomically different?

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Chapter 15: The Endocrine System

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134 Verified Questions

134 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Hypersecretion of growth hormone.

Q2) The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.

A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path

B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ

C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

D) nothing-all hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific

Q3) As a result of stress the adenohypophysis releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.

Q4) Hypersecretion of catecholamines can result in hypertension.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Growth hormones act indirectly to make the epiphyseal plate cartilage grow. What then acts directly to make it grow?

Q6) Storehouse for the hormones produced by the hypothalamus of the brain.

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Page 20

Chapter 16: Blood

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125 Verified Questions

125 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) White blood cells are produced through the action of colony-stimulating factors.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Thromboembolic disorders ________.

A) result in uncontrolled bleeding

B) include thrombus formation, a clot in a broken blood vessel

C) include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system

D) are caused by vitamin K deficiency

Q3) Neutrophil.

Q4) Transports CO and oxygen.

Q5) A man of Mediterranean ancestry goes to his doctor with the following symptoms. He is very tired all of the time. He has difficulty catching his breath after even mild exercise. His doctor orders the following tests: CBC, hematocrit, differential WBC count. The tests show immature erythrocytes, fragile erythrocytes, and less than 2 million RBCs per cubic millimeter. What would be a tentative diagnosis and suggested treatment?

Q6) Universal recipient.

Q7) Necessary for coagulation

Q8) Main bacteria killer during acute infections.

Q9) Mounts an immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies.

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Chapter 17: The Cardiovascular System: the Heart

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106 Verified Questions

106 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Heart rate at rest under both autonomic divisions signaling

Q2) Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

A) Ventricles are in diastole.

B) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta.

C) AV valves are closed.

D) Ventricles are in systole.

Q3) As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

A)True

B)False

Q4) An abnormally fast heart rate

Q5) Damage to the ________ is referred to as heart block.

A) SA node

B) AV valves

C) AV bundle

D) AV node

Q6) Total heart relaxation.

Q7) The inner lining of the heart.

Q8) Second-degree heart block.

Q9) Prevents backflow into the left atrium. Page 22

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Page 23

Chapter 18: The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels

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134 Verified Questions

134 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

A) An increase in cardiac output corresponds to a decrease in blood pressure, due to the increased delivery.

B) Systemic vasodilation would increase blood pressure, due to diversion of blood to essential areas.

C) Excess protein production would decrease blood pressure.

D) Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase.

Q2) Which of the following statements regarding the hepatic portal system is False?

A) It carries nutrients, toxins, and microorganisms to the liver for processing.

B) Its major vessels are the superior mesenteric, inferior mesenteric, and splenic veins.

C) It consists of a vein connecting two capillary beds together.

D) It branches off of the inferior vena cava.

Q3) The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________.

A) elastic arteries

B) muscular arteries

C) arterioles

D) capillaries

Q4) Define vasoconstriction and vasodilation. What is the mechanism of regulation?

Q5) Which type of blood vessels contain valves and what is their function?

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Chapter 19: The Lymphatic System and Lymphoid Organs and Tissues

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90 Verified Questions

90 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Describe why the prognosis of cancer is best when there is no detectable spread from the region of the primary tumor to the lymph nodes.

Q2) A woman had a mastectomy that included the removal of axillary lymph nodes on her left side. What does she risk regarding her left arm and why?

Q3) Highly specialized lymph capillaries called ________ are present in the villi of the intestinal mucosa.

Q4) Which of the following statements regarding the thymus is not True?

A) It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation.

B) It does not fight antigens.

C) Its stroma consists of epithelial tissue.

D) It has follicles similar to those in the spleen.

Q5) Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.

A) lymph follicles

B) lymph nodes

C) lacteals

D) lymphatics

Q6) How does the lymphatic system both help and hinder the spread of cancer through the body?

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Q7) Where are the lymph node aggregations most dense?

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Chapter 20: The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body Defenses

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128 Verified Questions

128 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) After receiving penicillin intravenously, a 32-year-old male patient has an anaphylactic reaction. The nurse understands that therapeutic management includes what critical items?

Q2) Area where activated immunocompetent B and T cells recirculate.

Q3) Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response.

A)IgM

B)IgG

C)IgA

D)IgD

E)IgE

Q4) Absence results in no immune response

A)Helper T cell

B)B cell

C)Cytotoxic T cell

D)Regulatory T cell

E)Memory cell

Q5) Light chain.

Q6) Harmful or disease-causing microorganisms are called ________.

Q7) Suppressor factors are ________ that suppress the immune system.

Q8) What are two general mechanisms by which autoimmune diseases could arise?

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Chapter 21: The Respiratory System

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119 Verified Questions

119 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The partial pressure gradient for oxygen (in the body) is much steeper than that for carbon dioxide. Explain how equal amounts of these two gases can be exchanged (in a given time interval) in the lungs and at the tissues.

Q2) Which of the following is not a stimulus for breathing?

A) rising carbon dioxide levels

B) rising blood pressure

C) arterial Po below 60 mm Hg

D) acidosis resulting from CO retention

Q3) The average individual has 500 ml of residual volume in his lungs.

A)True

B)False

Q4) The law that applies to the amount of CO you could dissolve in a Pepsi is called ________ law.

Q5) Oxygenated hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily when the pH is more basic. A)True

B)False

Q6) Tidal volume.

Q7) A patient with tuberculosis is often noncompliant with treatment. Explain why this may happen.

Page 28

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Chapter 22: The Digestive System

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153 Verified Questions

153 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Assume you have been chewing a piece of bread for 5 or 6 minutes. How would you expect its taste to change during this time? Why?

Q2) Another term for swallowing is deglutition.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The mechanical and chemical receptors that control digestive activity are located ________.

A) in the glandular tissue that lines the organ lumen

B) in the walls of the tract organs

C) in the pons and medulla

D) in the oral cavity

Q4) A patient has esophageal cancer and must have a feeding tube inserted. The nurse tells the patient that the tube will be inserted surgically into the duodenum. The patient's wife asks why the tube will not be inserted into the stomach. What should the nurse say?

Q5) A patient is 67 years old and has had a hiatal hernia for three years. In the last year, she has complained of worsening heartburn, especially at night. What are the characteristic symptoms of a hiatal hernia and which of these symptoms did the patient have?

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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation

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Sample Questions

Q1) Fat burning causes an accumulation of acetyl CoA, which the liver converts to

Q2) Ghrelin, produced by the stomach, is a powerful appetite stimulant.

A)True

B)False

Q3) Explain what happens to pyruvic acid if oxygen is not present in sufficient quantities to support the electron transport system.

Q4) Carbohydrate and fat pools are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy, but amino acid pools must first be converted to a carbohydrate intermediate before being sent through cellular respiration pathways.

A)True

B)False

Q5) Which food type is considered to be the most important for athletes to eat to improve performance?

A) simple sugars

B) complex carbohydrates

C) plant proteins

D) animal proteins

Q6) Synthesis of lipids from glucose or amino acids.

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Chapter 24: The Urinary System

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Sample Questions

Q1) An 18 year old patient has a complaint of painful urination, fever, chills, and back pain. This is her second urinary tract infection (UTI) within 5 months. How can the RN instruct the patient on prevention of another UTI?

Q2) Filtrate at the site of these cells is about the same osmolarity as blood plasma.

Q3) Nephron loop.

Q4) Glomerulus.

Q5) Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________.

A) facilitated diffusion

B) passive transport

C) countertransport

D) secondary active transport

Q6) Which of the choices below are the most important hormone regulators of electrolyte reabsorption and secretion?

A) angiotensin II and ADH

B) angiotensin II and aldosterone

C) angiotensin I and epinephrine

D) angiotensin I and atrial natriuretic peptide

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Chapter 25: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance

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115 Verified Questions

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Sample Questions

Q1) Dehydration can be caused by endocrine disturbances such as diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus.

A)True

B)False

Q2) Possibly caused by vomiting, use of diuretics, or use of antacids

Q3) Which of the following is not a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin?

A) sympathetic stimulation

B) decreased filtrate NaCl concentration

C) decreased stretch due to decreased blood pressure

D) increased extracellular fluid water levels

Q4) The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is sodium.

A)True

B)False

Q5) The fluid compartments outside the cell.

Q6) Most acidic substances (hydrogen ions) originate as by-products of cellular metabolism.

A)True

B)False

Q7) Bicarbonate ions are highest in ________.

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Chapter 26: The Reproductive System

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130 Verified Questions

130 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?

A) They move close to the pelvic cavity.

B) They move away from the pelvic cavity.

C) Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum.

D) Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm.

Q2) The testes are innervated by the sympathetic division of the ANS only.

A)True

B)False

Q3) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________.

A) spermatocytes

B) spermatogonia

C) sustentacular cells

D) interstitial endocrine cells

Q4) Describe the composition and functional roles of semen.

Q5) The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle.

A)True

B)False

Q6) The suspensory ligament and mesovarium are part of the ________ ligament.

Page 33

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