Health Science Foundations
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Health Science Foundations introduces students to the core concepts and principles underlying the field of health science. This course explores the historical development, roles, and responsibilities in the healthcare system, covering topics such as health promotion, disease prevention, medical terminology, ethics, and the legal aspects of healthcare. Students will also gain foundational knowledge in human anatomy and physiology, healthcare communication, safety practices, and emerging technologies in health services. Emphasizing interdisciplinary collaboration and critical thinking, the course prepares students for further study or entry-level employment in various healthcare professions.
Recommended Textbook
Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice 2nd Canadian Edition by Linda Lane Lilley
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59 Chapters
683 Verified Questions
683 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1825 Page 2
Chapter 1: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36263
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a judgement about a particular patient's potential need or problem?
A)A goal
B)An assessment
C)Subjective data
D)A nursing diagnosis
Answer: D
Q2) Which of the following statements correctly lists the five traditional rights of medication administration?
A)The right drug,the right route,the right dose,the right time,and the right patient
B)The right drug,the right effect,the right route,the right time,and the right patient
C)The right patient, the right strength, the right diagnosis, the right drug, and the right route
D)The right patient,the right diagnosis,the right drug,the right route,and the right time
Answer: A
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3
Chapter 2: Pharmacological Principles
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36264
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient is receiving two different drugs,which,at their current dose forms and dosages,are both absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts.Which of the following terms best describes that the drugs have the same absorption rates?
A)Equivalent
B)Synergistic
C)Compatible
D)Bioequivalent
Answer: D
Q2) A patient is receiving medication via intravenous injection.Which of the following statements should the nurse provide for patient education?
A)The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously.
B)The medication will be absorbed slowly into the tissues over time.
C)The medication's action will begin faster when given intravenously.
D)Most of the drug is inactivated by the liver before it reaches the target area.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 3: Considerations for Special Populations
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36265
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the reason drug toxicity is more likely to occur in the neonate?
A)The lungs are immature.
B)The kidneys are smaller.
C)The liver is not fully developed.
D)Renal excretion of the drug is faster.
Answer: C
Q2) While assessing an 82-year-old woman,the nurse determines that she is experiencing polypharmacy.What is this experience most likely to indicate?
A)She has a lower risk of drug interactions.
B)She takes medications for one illness several times a day.
C)She risks problems only if she also takes over-the-counter medications.
D)She takes multiple medications for several different illnesses.
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Ethnocultural, legal, and Ethical Considerations
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36266
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following factors contributes to drug polymorphism?
A)The number of drugs ordered by the physician
B)The patient's drug history
C)The patient's diet and nutritional status
D)Different dosage forms of the same drug
Q2) A patient has been chosen to be a recipient of an experimental drug for heart failure and has given informed consent.Which of the following is indicated by the patient's informed consent?
A)The patient has been informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy.
B)The patient will be informed of the details of the study as the research continues.
C)The patient will not be assured of receiving the actual drug during the experiment.
D)The patient has received an explanation of the study's purpose,procedures,and the risks involved.
Q3) Which of the following best describes drug polymorphism?
A)Cultural and genetic effects on drug metabolism and excretion
B)Gender and cultural effects on drug absorption and distribution
C)Age or body composition effects on drug absorption or metabolism
D)Multi-drug use resulting in impaired excretion
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Chapter 5: Medication Errors
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6 Verified Questions
6 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36267
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the proper notation of the dose of the drug ordered?
A)digoxin .125 mg
B)digoxin .1250 mg
C)digoxin 0.125 mg
D)digoxin 0.1250 mg
Q2) Which of the following statements is true regarding an adverse drug reaction (ADR)?
Select all that apply.
A)Adverse effects are ADRs that are usually predictable.
B)ADRs always result in harm to patients.
C)All ADRs are preventable if proper precautions are taken.
D)ADRs can be unexpected and unintended responses to medications.
Q3) The physician has written admission orders,and the nurse is transcribing them.The nurse is having difficulty transcribing one order because of the physician's handwriting.Which of the following is the best action for the nurse to take?
A)Ask a colleague what the order says
B)Contact the physician to clarify the order
C)Contact the pharmacy to clarify the order
D)Ask the patient what medications he takes at home
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7
Chapter 6: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36268
Sample Questions
Q1) A 60-year-old patient is on several new medications and expresses worry that she will forget to take her pills.Which of the following responses from the nurse is most helpful for a patient in this situation?
A)Teaching effective coping strategies
B)Reducing the number of drugs prescribed
C)Assuring her that she won't forget once she is accustomed to the routine
D)Assisting her with obtaining and learning to use a calendar or pill container
Q2) Which of the following are appropriate considerations when the nurse is assessing the learning needs of a patient? Select all that apply.
A)Cultural background
B)Social support
C)Level of education
D)Readiness to learn
E)Health beliefs
Q3) Which of the following statements reflects a measurable goal?
A)The patient will know about insulin injections.
B)The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
C)The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
D)The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
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Page 8
Chapter 7: Over-The-Counter Drugs and Natural Health Products
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8 Verified Questions
8 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36269
Sample Questions
Q1) Patients from which of the following cultures will not complain of gastrointestinal symptoms caused by over-the-counter (OTC)drugs or natural health products?
A)Chinese
B)Japanese
C)Hispanic
D)Europeans
Q2) When teaching patients about over-the-counter (OTC)and natural health products,the nurse should teach which of the following?
A)Histamine-blocking agents should be taken with antacids to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
B)Drug interactions are rare with OTC products because OTC drugs are safer than prescription drugs.
C)Manufacturers of natural health products are required to provide evidence of safety and effectiveness; therefore, check the labels carefully.
D)Natural health products and OTC drugs cannot be safely administered to infants,children,and pregnant or lactating women without first checking with the health care provider.
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9
Chapter 8: Vitamins and Minerals
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36270
Sample Questions
Q1) Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient undergoing therapy with vitamin A?
A)Risk for impaired skin integrity related to vitamin deficiency
B)Disturbed sensory perception (visual)related to night blindness
C)Impaired physical mobility (muscle weakness) related to vitamin deficiency
D)Disturbed thought processes (confusion and psychosis)related to vitamin deficiency
Q2) Which preparation is given to newborns within 1 hour of delivery?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Calciferol (vitamin D)
C)Aquasol A (vitamin A)
D)AquaMEPHYTON (vitamin K)
Q3) A patient with a history of alcohol abuse has been admitted to hospital for severe weakness and malnutrition.Which preparation will he receive to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy?
A)Niacin (vitamin B )
B)Thiamine (vitamin B )
C)Riboflavin (vitamin B )
D)Pyridoxine (vitamin B )
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Chapter 9: Problematic Substance Use
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36271
Sample Questions
Q1) If an individual drinks alcohol while on disulfiram (Antabuse)therapy,which of the following will most likely occur?
A)Euphoria
B)Vomiting
C)Hypertension
D)Hypoventilation
Q2) A patient in a rehabilitation centre is beginning to experience opioid withdrawal symptoms.What would you expect to be ordered for her treatment?
A)diazepam (Valium)
B)methadone
C)disulfiram (Antabuse) protocol
D)Antidepressant therapy
Q3) During a substance abuse lecture for teenage girls,the nurse is asked about "roofies." This slang term refers to what substance?
A)Cocaine
B)flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)
C)hydromorphone
D)Methamphetamine
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Chapter 10: Photo Atlas of Drug Administration
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36272
Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following situations should the nurse administer an intramuscular medication (IM)with the Z-track method?
A)When the medication is known to be irritating to tissues
B)When the patient is emaciated and has very little muscle mass
C)When the medication must be absorbed quickly into the tissues
D)When the patient is obese and has a deep fat layer below the muscle mass
Q2) Which of the following actions is considered a standard precaution for medication administration?
A)Bending the syringe to prevent re-use
B)Recapping needles to prevent needlestick injury
C)Discarding all syringes and needles into the wastebasket
D)Discarding all syringes and needles in a puncture-resistant container
Q3) When the nurse is administering medication by intravenous (IV)bolus (push),which is the correct procedure?
A)Occluding the IV line by folding the tubing just above the injection port
B)Clamping the tubing just above the insertion site
C)Pinching the tubing just above the injection port
D)Pinching the tubing at least 5 cm above the injection port
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Chapter 11: Analgesic Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36273
Sample Questions
Q1) A 57-year-old patient has been on a transdermal narcotic analgesic as part of the management of pain for end-stage breast cancer.Lately,she has experienced "breakthrough" pain.How should this pain be addressed?
A)She should be given nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
B)Her current therapy should not be changed.
C)The baseline dose of the narcotic may need to be increased in increments.
D)The narcotic route should be changed to the rectal route to increase absorption.
Q2) A patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer last month,and she has complained of a dull ache in her abdomen for the last 2 months.This pain has been gradually increasing,and the pain relievers she has taken at home are no longer effective.What type of pain is she experiencing?
A)Acute pain
B)Persistent pain
C)Somatic pain
D)Superficial pain
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13
Chapter 12: General and Local Anaesthetics
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36274
Sample Questions
Q1) During the postoperative recovery period,what should be the nurse's immediate main concern?
A)Pupil responses
B)Return to sensation
C)Level of consciousness
D)Airway,breathing,and circulation
Q2) Which of the following symptoms may occur if a patient is taking ginger and requires an anaesthetic?
A)Decreased blood pressure
B)Increased risk of bleeding
C)Increased risk of stroke
D)Migraine headaches
Q3) Occurs last
A)Cessation of respirations due to paralysis of diaphragm and intercostal muscles
B)Total flaccid paralysis
C)Weakness
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Chapter 13: Central Nervous System Depressants and Muscle Relaxants
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36275
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a true statement about sedatives and hypnotics?
A)The two terms mean the same thing.
B)A hypnotic causes sleep.
C)Low doses of sedatives will cause sleep.
D)Compare with sedatives,hypnotics have a less potent effect on the central nervous system.
Q2) One of the potential disadvantages of chloral hydrate (Chlorinum)is that tachyphylaxis may develop.Which of the following describes tachyphylaxis?
A)Rapid heart rate
B)Rapid respiration rate
C)A rapid decrease in response to the drug after repeated doses
D)A drug's ability to reach the therapeutic index level more rapidly than other drugs
Q3) Which of the following is the best treatment of an acute overdose of secobarbital (Seconal)?
A)Infusion with diluted bicarbonate solution
B)Giving medications to decrease blood pressure
C)Maintaining the airway and supporting respirations
D)Administration of nalbuphine (Nubain)as an antagonist
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Chapter 14: Antiepileptic Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36276
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of status epilepticus?
A)diazepam (Valium)
B)midazolam
C)valproic acid (Epival)
D)carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Q2) When administering phenytoin (Dilantin)intravenously,which of the following must the nurse remember?
A)Normal saline is the only solution to be used with phenytoin.
B)Intravenous (IV)doses must be given rapidly to raise blood levels quickly.
C)The patient should be monitored closely for tachycardia and increased blood pressure.
D)Phenytoin can be combined with other solutions without fear of precipitate formation.
Q3) Phenytoin (Dilantin)has a narrow therapeutic index.Which of the following statements defines this characteristic?
A)The safe and toxic plasma levels are very close.
B)Phenytoin has a narrow chance of being effective.
C)No difference exists between safe and toxic plasma levels.
D)A very small dosage can result in the desired therapeutic effect.
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Chapter 15: Antiparkinsonian Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36277
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true of amantadine (Symmetrel)therapy?
A)It increases the production of dopamine in the basal ganglia.
B)It works by eliciting the release of dopamine from nerve endings.
C)It is most effective in the later stages of Parkinson's disease.
D)It is considered a long-term therapy for Parkinson's disease.
Q2) A patient has been newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and given a prescription for levodopa-carbidopa (Sinemet).She comments,however,that her friend was given a prescription for "plain levodopa." What should the nurse explain to this patient about her prescription?
A)Levodopa alone cannot cross the blood-brain barrier.
B)Really no difference exists in the two prescriptions.
C)The combination drug is more efficient in increasing the dopamine level in the brain.
D)Concerns about drug-food interactions with levodopa therapy do not exist with the combination therapy.
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17
Chapter 16: Psychotherapeutic Drugs
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36278
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following breakfast choices by a patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)indicates the need for additional teaching?
A)Orange juice
B)Fried eggs
C)Cheddar cheese omelette
D)French toast
Q2) A patient has been taking haloperidol for 3 months for a psychotic disorder.Because the nurse is concerned about the development of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS),the patient will be monitored for which of the following?
A)Cogwheel rigidity and blurred vision
B)Drowsiness and dizziness
C)Tremors and muscle twitching
D)Dry mouth and constipation
Q3) When the nurse is teaching the patient about tricyclic antidepressants,which of the following is important to emphasize?
A)Serum blood levels should be drawn every 2 weeks.
B)If drowsiness occurs,stop the medication immediately.
C)Drowsiness should decrease after the first few weeks of therapy.
D)Foods high in tyramine,such as cheese,beer,and wine,must be avoided.
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Page 18
Chapter 17: Central Nervous System Stimulant Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36279
Sample Questions
Q1) A 6-year-old boy has been started on methylphenidate hydrochloride (Ritalin)for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).His mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning.Which of the following is the nurse's best response to the patient's mother?
A)She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.
B)The medication should not be taken until the boy is at school.
C)The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.
D)The medication should be given at least 6 hours before bedtime to diminish the insomnia it causes.
Q2) Before administering sumatriptan (Imitrex)to a patient for the treatment of a migraine headache,the nurse should assess for the presence of which of the following?
A)Hypotension
B)Renal disease
C)Liver damage
D)Coronary artery disease
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19
Chapter 18: Adrenergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36280
Sample Questions
Q1) Inhaled salmeterol (Serevent)is indicated for which of the following conditions?
A)Relief of acute asthma attacks
B)Nasal decongestion
C)Long-term maintenance treatment of asthma
D)Treatment of anaphylaxis
Q2) A mother has given her 6-year-old son pseudoephedrine (Afrin)nose drops four times a day for 2 weeks.She says at first her son's congestion seemed to get better,but since she stopped giving him the drops,"his cold is worse than ever." Which of the following statements is the nurse's best explanation to the patient's mother?
A)Nose drops lose their effectiveness over time.
B)The nose drops are no match for the virulent cold viruses that are prevalent this season.
C)Her son developed an addiction to the nose drops, which caused excessive drainage when the medication was stopped.
D)Excessive use of nasal decongestants can lead to greater congestion because of a "rebound effect" that occurs when the product is stopped.
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Chapter 19: Adrenergic-Blocking Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36281
Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about self-monitoring while taking a -blocker at home.The nurse should teach the patient to take his apical pulse daily for 1 minute;if the pulse rate decreases to less than 60 beats per minute,the nurse instructs the patient to do which of the following?
A)Contact his physician for instructions
B)Reduce the dose of his -blocker by half
C)Continue the medication because this is an expected effect
D)Skip the medication dose that day and check his pulse again the next day
Q2) Which of the following drugs is used to help establish the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?
A)prazosin (Minipress)
B)phentolamine (Rogitine)
C)carvedilol
D)ergotamine tartrate (Ergostat)
Q3) Which -blocker is indicated for the treatment of heart failure?
A)atenolol (Tenormin)
B)carvedilol
C)acebutolol (Rhotral)
D)esmolol (Brevibloc)
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Page 21
Chapter 20: Cholinergic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36282
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is the main use of most direct-acting cholinergic drugs?
A)They are the antidotes for anticholinergic poisoning.
B)They are used topically to reduce intraocular pressure.
C)They are used orally in preparation for ocular surgery.
D)They are used for the diagnosis and treatment of myasthenia gravis.
Q2) A patient has been newly diagnosed with myasthenia gravis.What important information should the nurse teach this patient regarding the administration of cholinergic drugs?
A)The medication should be taken with meals to avoid gastrointestinal distress.
B)Daytime dosages should be given close together for maximal therapeutic effect.
C)The medication should be taken 30 minutes before eating to improve swallowing and chewing.
D)Expected adverse effects are increased muscle weakness,abdominal cramping,and diarrhea,which should subside in a few days.
Q3) The desired effects of cholinergic drugs come from stimulation of which receptors?
A)Muscarinic
B)Nicotinic
C)Cholinergic
D)Ganglionic
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Cholinergic-Blocking Drugs
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36283
Sample Questions
Q1) A 72-year-old male has a new prescription for an anticholinergic.He is an active man and enjoys outdoor activities such as hiking,golfing,and doing yard work.Which of the following statements should the nurse emphasize during a teaching session about his drug therapy?
A)Drowsiness may interfere with his outdoor activities.
B)Increased salivation may occur during exercise and outdoor activities.
C)Fluid volume deficits may occur as a result of an increased incidence of diarrhea.
D)He should take measures to reduce the occurrence of heat stroke during his activities.
Q2) Which of the following conditions is appropriate for treatment with a cholinergic-blocking drug?
A)Glaucoma
B)Myasthenia gravis
C)Irritable bowel disease
D)Genitourinary obstruction
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Chapter 22: Positive Inotropic Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving intravenous (IV)digitalis and recognizes that the drug has a negative chronotropic effect.How is this drug effect made evident in the patient?
A)Increased heart rate
B)Decreased heart rate
C)Decreased conduction
D)Increased ectopic beats
Q2) The nurse is assessing a patient before administration of a cardiac glycoside.Which lab result can increase the toxicity of the drug?
A)Potassium level 2.8 mEq/L
B)Potassium level 4.9 mEq/L
C)Sodium level 140 mEq/L
D)Calcium level 10 mg/dL
Q3) A patient is beginning digoxin (Lanoxin)therapy.Which of the following foods should the nurse tell this patient to avoid when taking the digoxin dose?
A)Cooked vegetables
B)Canned fruits
C)Fried foods
D)Bran muffins
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Page 24
Chapter 23: Antidysrhythmic Drugs
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10 Verified Questions
10 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for a patient receiving antidysrhythmics?
A)Risk for infection
B)Risk for injury to self
C)Excess fluid volume
D)Impaired skin integrity
Q2) A 62-year-old male is to receive lidocaine (Xylocaine)as treatment for symptomatic episodes of ventricular tachycardia.He has been taking propranolol (Inderal)and digoxin (Lanoxin)at home,and his blood pressure (BP)is 100/56.Which of the following is considered a risk factor that may cause a toxic reaction to lidocaine?
A)Hypotension
B)Digoxin therapy
C)Age and diagnosis
D)Concurrent administration of propranolol
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Chapter 24: Antianginal Drugs
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golf games.He says the pain usually goes away after 1 or 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest.What type of angina does he have?
A)Classic
B)Variant
C)Unstable
D)Prinzmetal's
Q2) A female patient arrives in the emergency department with severe chest pain.She has had pain off and on for a week.Which assessment finding indicates a need for cautious use of nitrates and nitrites?
A)Blood pressure of 110/78 mmHg
B)History of liver disease
C)History of heart failure
D)Anemia
Q3) Women are more likely than men to have unstable angina.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 25: Antihypertensive Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
13 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A persistent cough is an adverse effect of which of the following classes of antihypertensive drugs?
A) -blockers
B)Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)inhibitors
C)Angiotensin receptor blockers
D)Calcium channel blockers
Q2) A patient who has diabetes has been started on antihypertensive drug therapy.The health care provider evaluates that this treatment is effective if the blood pressure is _________________________.Fill in the blank.
Q3) Which of the following parameters determine the regulation of arterial blood pressure?
A)Cardiac output and vascular resistance
B)Heart rate and peripheral resistance
C)Blood volume and renal blood flow
D)Myocardial contractility and arteriolar constriction
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Chapter 26: Diuretic Drugs
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient in the neurologic critical care unit is being treated for cerebral edema.Which of the following drugs is the patient likely to be given to reduce intracranial pressure?
A)Loop diuretics
B)Osmotic diuretics
C)Thiazide diuretics
D)Vasodilators
Q2) The nurse is teaching a patient about use of hydrochlorothiazide.The nurse should ensure the patient knows to be cautious when taking which of the following medications with hydrochlorothiazide?
A)digitalis
B)Antacids
C)Potassium supplements
D)Over-the-counter aspirin preparations
Q3) The manifestations of potassium deficiency include which of the following?
A)Dyspnea
B)Diarrhea
C)Weakness
D)Hypertension
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Page 28
Chapter 27: Fluids and Electrolytes
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/36289
Sample Questions
Q1) A patient requires transfusion with fresh frozen plasma (FFP).Which of the following conditions is noted on the patient's medical record?
A)Hypovolemic shock
B)Anemia
C)Coagulation disorder
D)Previous transfusion reaction
Q2) Stomach cramps
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
Q3) The nurse is planning to transfuse a patient with a unit of packed red blood cells (PRBCs).Which of the following is the only solution that PRBC can be administered with?
A)5% dextrose in water
B)0.9% sodium chloride
C)5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
D)5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's
Q4) Lethargy
A)HYPO
B)HYPER
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Chapter 28: Coagulation Modifier Drugs
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13 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which of the following laboratory studies is used to monitor the therapeutic effects of heparin?
A)Prothrombin time (PT)
B)aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)
C)Vitamin K
D)Hematocrit
Q2) What is the most frequent undesirable adverse effect of thrombolytic therapy?
A)Dysrhythmias
B)Nausea and vomiting
C)Anaphylactic reactions
D)Internal and superficial bleeding
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about dipyridamole (Persantine)?
A)It has anti-inflammatory and antipyretic properties.
B)It has analgesic properties and antithrombotic effects.
C)It is useful for reducing the risk of fatal and nonfatal thrombotic stroke.
D)It is used as an adjunct to warfarin in the prevention of postoperative thromboembolic complications.
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Chapter 29: Antilipemic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following can be used to minimize the undesirable adverse effects of nicotinic acid?
A)Taking the drug on an empty stomach
B)Starting off on a high initial dosage
C)Taking small doses of aspirin with the drug
D)Taking the drug with large amounts of fibre
Q2) A patient is taking a statin drug.What important information should the nurse tell this patient?
A)Have a hearing assessment done.
B)Have an ophthalmic assessment done.
C)See a physiotherapist.
D)Take the medication with breakfast.
Q3) The nurse should monitor for myopathy (muscle pain)when a patient is taking which class of antilipemic drugs?
A)Bile acid sequestrants
B)HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
C)Fibric acid derivatives
D)Niacin
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Chapter 30: Pituitary Drugs
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Q1) An 8-year-old girl has been diagnosed with true pituitary dwarfism.She is being treated with somatropin (Humatrope).Which of the following is an expected outcome of using somatropin?
A)An increase in growth
B)Decreased urinary output
C)Increased muscle strength
D)An increase in height when she reaches puberty
Q2) A patient is receiving vasopressin (Pressyn).Which of the following therapeutic responses should the nurse expect to see?
A)Improved appetite
B)Increased serum albumin levels
C)Increased serum potassium levels
D)Decreased urinary output
Q3) Which of the following drugs is contraindicated with desmopressin (DDAVP)?
A)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
B)digoxin (Lanoxin)
C)lithium
D)penicillin
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Chapter 31: Thyroid and Antithyroid Drugs
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Q1) A 19-year-old university student has been diagnosed with hypothyroidism and has started thyroid replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Synthroid).After 1 week,she tells the nurse that she feels no better.What is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)She will probably require surgery for a cure.
B)Levothyroxine does not reach peak effect for several months.
C)She probably did not take her medication as instructed.
D)Her diet may be causing absorption problems.
Q2) A patient is taking propylthiouracil for hyperthyroidism and asks the nurse how this medication works.What is the nurse's best explanation to the patient?
A)It blocks the action of thyroid hormone.
B)It impedes the formation of thyroid hormone.
C)It destroys overactive cells in the thyroid gland.
D)It inactivates already existing thyroid hormone in the bloodstream.
Q3) The nurse is giving morning medications.The medication administration record has an order for "levothyroxine,75 mcg." The drug dispensing cabinet contains levothyroxine tablets in milligram strengths,not in micrograms.Calculate the mg equivalent dose of 75 mcg.
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Chapter 32: Antidiabetic Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following is a true statement regarding diazoxide,a glucose-elevating drug?
A)It is also naturally synthesized by the pancreas.
B)It is used for the treatment of hypotensive emergencies.
C)It inhibits the release of insulin from the pancreas.
D)It stimulates insulin release from the pancreas.
Q2) What early signs of hypoglycemia should the nurse should tell the patient about?
A)Urticaria and rash
B)Nausea and diarrhea
C)Irritability and confusion
D)Fruity,acetone odour to the breath
Q3) Regular insulin
A)Rapid-acting: RA
B)Short-acting: SA
C)Intermediate-acting: IA
D)Long-acting: LA
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Chapter 33: Adrenal Drugs
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Q1) A patient is taking fludrocortisone (Florinef)for Addison's disease.His wife is concerned about all the problems that may occur with this therapy.Which of the following is a true statement about fludrocortisone therapy?
A)It may cause severe postural hypotension.
B)It should be taken with food or milk to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
C)The medication should be stopped immediately if nausea or vomiting occurs.
D)Weight gain of 2.25 kg or more in 1 week is an expected adverse effect.
Q2) What important information is appropriate for the nurse to tell a patient about taking adrenal drugs?
A)Oral drugs should be taken before meals to maximize absorption.
B)Rinse the oral cavity after using the steroid inhalers.
C)Take the corticosteroids before bedtime to minimize adrenal suppression.
D)Discontinue the medication immediately if a weight gain of more than 2.25 kg is experienced in 1 week.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about prednisone (Winpred)?
A)It is a short-acting glucocorticoid.
B)It has potent mineralocorticoid activity.
C)It is the preferred oral glucocorticoid for anti-inflammatory purposes.
D)It may be administered by inhalation for the treatment of bronchial asthma.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Womens Health Drugs
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Q1) Which type of contraceptive drug most closely duplicates the normal hormonal levels of the female menstrual cycle?
A)Monophasic
B)Biphasic
C)Triphasic
D)Long-acting
Q2) A 51-year-old female will be starting raloxifene (Evista)as part of the treatment for postmenopausal osteoporosis.The nurse should inform this patient about which of the following possible occurrences?
A)Pregnancy
B)Breast cancer
C)Stress fractures
D)Venous thromboembolism
Q3) Which of the following drugs is used to treat primary or secondary amenorrhea and to alleviate the symptoms of endometriosis?
A)oxytocin (Pitocin)
B)estradiol transdermal (Estraderm)
C)raloxifene (Evista)
D)medroxyprogesterone (Depo-Provera)
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Mens Health Drugs
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Q1) A patient is receiving finasteride (Proscar)for treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).Which of the following is a possible adverse effect of this medication?
A)Alopecia
B)Urinary retention
C)Increased hair growth
D)Increased prostate size
Q2) Which ethnocultural group has the highest rate of prostate cancer in North America?
A)Aboriginal men
B)Asian men
C)White men
D)Black men
Q3) Danazol (Cyclomen)therapy is indicated for the treatment of which of the following?
A)Porphyria
B)Endometriosis
C)Decreased sexual libido
D)Problems with lactation
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Q1) Which of the following instructions is correct for a patient taking an antihistamine?
A)Eat chocolate bars to ease the discomfort of dry mouth.
B)Antihistamines are generally safe to take with over-the-counter (OTC)medications.
C)Take the medication on an empty stomach to maximize absorption of the drug.
D)Take the medication with food,even though doing so may slightly reduce the absorption of the drug.
Q2) A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems.Which of the following is one of the benefits of orally administered decongestants?
A)Onset is immediate.
B)The effect is more potent.
C)Rebound congestion is almost nonexistent.
D)The adverse effects of restlessness and nervousness are reduced.
Q3) Which antihistamine is commonly used in the treatment of motion sickness?
A)azatadine
B)diphenhydramine (Allerdryl)
C)hydroxyzine
D)promethazine
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Bronchodilators and Other Respiratory Drugs
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Q1) A patient is taking aminophylline (Phyllocontin)intravenously for a severe exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).Which of the following assessments does the nurse expect when evaluating for a therapeutic response to the medication?
A)Drowsiness
B)Increased heart rate
C)Increased respiratory rate
D)Increased ease of breathing
Q2) A patient has been prescribed an inhaled respiratory medication.What should the nurse tell this patient about the proper method for taking this medication?
A)Rinsing of the mouth after using the inhaler or nebulizer is recommended.
B)Nebulizer tubings and mouthpieces should be cleaned only with hot water.
C)Inhale the medication deeply, with the head tipped forward to maximize opening of the airway.
D)After administering an inhaler medication,patients should remove the inhaler and hold their breath for at least 20 seconds.
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Chapter 38: Antibiotics, part 1: Sulfonamides, Penicillins,
Cephalosporins, Macrolides, and Tetracyclines
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Q1) How are the four generations of cephalosporins differentiated?
A)By varying levels of toxicity
B)By adverse-effect profiles
C)By -lactam resistance
D)By antimicrobial activity
Q2) Which of the following drugs may result in an interaction if taken with penicillin?
A)Antacids
B)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C)digoxin (Lanoxin)
D)Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Q3) A patient has been prescribed a tetracycline.What important information should the nurse tell the patient about taking this medication?
A)Acidic foods,such as citrus fruit juices,help to enhance absorption.
B)Milk and cheese products result in decreased levels of tetracycline.
C)Antacids taken with the medication help to reduce gastrointestinal distress.
D)The medication should be taken with high-fibre foods to prevent constipation.
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Fluoroquinolones, and Other Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed to treat recurrent pulmonary infections associated with cystic fibrosis?
A)gentamicin
B)tobramycin
C)amikacin
D)norfloxacin (Apo-Norflox)
Q2) When administering vancomycin (Vancocin),what important information should the nurse keep in mind?
A)It is ineffective in the treatment of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).
B)It should be infused over at least 30 minutes.
C)Fluids should be restricted during vancomycin therapy.
D)Infuse the drug over 1 hour to reduce red man syndrome.
Q3) Metronidazole (Flagyl)is widely used for which type of infection?
A)Skin
B)Gynecological
C)Aerobic
D)Respiratory
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Antiviral Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following drugs belongs to the newer class of antiviral drugs called fusion inhibitors?
A)enfuvirtide (Fuzeon)
B)tenofovir (Viread)
C)nevirapine (Viramune)
D)indinavir (Crixivan)
Q2) A patient is taking a combination of antiretroviral drugs as treatment for early stages of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)infection.He asks the nurse whether the drugs will kill the virus.Which of the following statements is the nurse's best response to this patient?
A)Antiretroviral drugs are rarely beneficial and are given for palliative reasons only.
B)Antiretroviral drugs will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again.
C)Antiretroviral drugs can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells.
D)Antiretroviral drugs are effective only while the virus is replicating,and replication is often finished by the time symptoms appear.
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Page 42
Chapter 41: Antituberculosis Drugs
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Q1) A patient has started drug therapy for tuberculosis and asks the nurse how long he will be on the medications.Which of the following statements is the nurse's best response to the patient?
A)Drug therapy will last until the symptoms have stopped.
B)Drug therapy will continue until the tuberculosis develops resistance.
C)He should expect to take these drugs for up to 24 months.
D)He will be on tuberculosis drug therapy for the rest of his life.
Q2) Women taking oral contraceptives need to be concerned when beginning rifampin (Rifadin)therapy because of which of the following?
A)The increased risk of thrombophlebitis
B)A higher dose of rifampin will be necessary.
C)Oral contraceptives are ineffective while the patient is taking rifampin.
D)The incidence of adverse effects is greater when the two drugs are taken together.
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Chapter 42: Antifungal Drugs
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Q1) A patient has been prescribed a vaginal antifungal drug.What important information should the nurse teach the patient about this drug?
A)Continue the medication until the treatment is completed even if symptoms are relieved earlier.
B)Discontinue this medication if menstruation begins.
C)Daily douching is part of the treatment for vaginal fungal infections.
D)Avoid consumption of alcohol.
Q2) Which of the following are contraindications to the use of griseofulvin?
A)Lupus
B)Renal disease
C)Cardiac disease
D)Meningitis
Q3) Which of the following drugs may be used for invasive aspergillosis in patients who cannot tolerate other antifungal drugs?
A)fluconazole (Diflucan)
B)flucytosine (5-FC)
C)caspofungin (Cancidas)
D)nystatin (Dom-Nystatin)
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Q1) A patient is prescribed anthelmintic therapy.Which of the following adverse reactions should the nurse tell this patient about?
A)Nervousness
B)Insomnia
C)Decreased appetite
D)Constipation
Q2) Certain antimalarial drugs work only during specific phases of the parasite's life cycle.Drugs that work in the "tissue" phase are known as ____________ ____________ drugs.
Q3) Which of the following is a true statement about anthelmintic therapy?
A)Anthelmintics may cause severe drowsiness.
B)Anthelmintics are very specific in their actions.
C)Anthelmintics are effective against broad classes of infestations.
D)Anthelmintics are used to treat protozoal infections,such as intestinal amoebiasis.
Q4) Which of the following drugs is used to kill flukes?
A)praziquantel (Biltricide)
B)pyrantel (Combantrin)
C)mebendazole (Vermox)
D)diethylcarbamazine
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Chapter 44: Antiseptic and Disinfectant Drugs
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Q1) 1% acetic acid solution
A)Antiseptics
B)Disinfectants
C)Both antiseptics and disinfectants
Q2) Which of the following is used only for disinfectant purposes?
A)cresol
B)isopropanol
C)hexachlorophene
D)sodium hypochlorite
Q3) When using antiseptics,a patient's therapeutic response may be manifested by which of the following?
A)Increased symptoms of inflammation
B)Improved healing of the affected area
C)Total elimination of all bacteria from the area
D)No adverse reactions reported
Q4) Sodium hypochlorite 5% solution
A)Antiseptics
B)Disinfectants
C)Both antiseptics and disinfectants
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Chapter 45: Anti-Inflammatory, Anti-arthritic, and Related Drugs
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Q1) An older adult patient tells the nurse that he uses acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)for "anything that ails me." What are the most common signs of chronic salicylate intoxication in adults?
A)Photosensitivity and nervousness
B)Tinnitus and hearing loss
C)Acute gastrointestinal bleeding and anorexia
D)Hyperventilation and central nervous system (CNS)effects
Q2) Which of the following natural health products is sometimes used to treat the pain of osteoarthritis?
A)St.John's wort
B)Ginger
C)Glucosamine
D)Dandelion root
Q3) Which of the following are possible therapeutic effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?
A)Anxiolytic effects
B)Diuretic effects
C)Antipyretic effects
D)Antimicrobial effects
Page 47
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Chapter 46: Immunosuppressant Drugs
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Q1) Which of the following drugs may increase the action of azathioprine (Imuran)?
A)nafcillin (Nafcil)
B)rifampin (Rifadin)
C)allopurinol (Alloprim)
D)phenobarbital (Luminal)
Q2) How is cyclosporine (Neoral)usually given intravenously?
A)In a single intravenous (IV)injectable form to minimize adverse effects
B)Initiated by an oral test dose;then,after 2 hours,an IV infusion is begun
C)Diluted with normal saline or 5% dextrose in water and infused over 2 to 6 hours
D)Given as an IV bolus for the first dose,then with an infusion pump for following doses
Q3) Which immunosuppressant is the only one currently indicated for the treatment of multiple sclerosis?
A)azathioprine (Imuran)
B)glatiramer acetate (Copaxone)
C)daclizumab (Zenapax)
D)sirolimus (Rapamune)
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Chapter 47: Immunizing Drugs and Pandemic
Preparedness
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Q1) At what age is the first dose of diphtheria,tetanus,and acellular pertussis,and inactivated polio vaccine (DTaP-IPV)given?
A)Age 1 month
B)Age 2 months
C)Age 4 months
D)Age 6 months
Q2) A 45-year-old male has had a series of equine-made immunizing drugs in preparation for a trip to a Third World country.His wife brings him to the emergency room because he has developed edema of the face,tongue,and throat and is having trouble breathing.What is he experiencing?
A)Serum sickness
B)Cross-sensitivity
C)An adverse effect
D)An anaphylactic reaction
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Q1) If extravasation of an antineoplastic drug occurs during intravenous (IV)administration,what is the nurse's best immediate response?
A)Reduction of the infusion rate
B)Discontinuation of the IV and application of warm compresses
C)Changing the infusion to normal saline and injecting the area with hydrocortisone
D)Stopping the infusion immediately but leaving the IV tube in place for administration of an antidote
Q2) A patient has had her first course of antineoplastic therapy and is experiencing gastrointestinal adverse effects,including anorexia and nausea.Which of the following is an appropriate goal for the patient dealing with this problem?
A)To eat three balanced meals a day within 4 days
B)To return to her normal eating pattern within 1 month
C)To maintain her normal weight by consuming healthy snacks as tolerated
D)To maintain a diet of six frequent feedings with a nutritional supplement as a snack within 2 weeks
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Q1) Patients receiving antineoplastic drugs should be advised to take which of the following medications for minor aches and pains?
A)ibuprofen (Motrin)
B)acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
C)acetaminophen (Tylenol)
D)naproxen
Q2) Imatinib (Gleevec)is indicated as treatment for which of the following types of cancer?
A)Chronic myeloid leukemia
B)Acute lymphocytic leukemia
C)Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D)Acute myeloid leukemia
Q3) Estrogen antagonists can cause hypercalcemia.Which of the following are symptoms of hypercalcemia?
A)Constipation and urinary changes
B)Confusion and tachycardia
C)Lethargy and diarrhea
D)Weakness and hypoventilation
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Chapter 50: Biological Responsemodifying Drugs
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Q1) A patient is receiving therapy with interferons.What expected adverse effect should the nurse tell this patient about?
A)Anemia
B)Increased appetite
C)Constipation
D)Flu-like effects
Q2) Capillary leak syndrome during interleukin therapy may result in which of the following problems?
A)Renal failure
B)Asthma
C)Ecchymosis
D)Heart failure
Q3) Which of the following is recommended for the administration of sargramostim (Leukine)?
A)Roll the vial between the hands to mix.
B)Reconstitute with 1 mL of sterile saline with preservatives.
C)Shake the vial after reconstitution to ensure proper mixing.
D)For intravenous (IV)solutions,dilute the medication in 5% dextrose solutions.
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Chapter 51: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
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Q1) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
A)To study genetic diseases
B)To study genetic traits in humans
C)To discover new genetic diseases
D)To describe the entire genome of a human being
Q2) Genotyping for presence of cytochrome P-450 2D6 (CYP2D6)enzymes and alleles will be helpful in which area of medicine?
A)Cardiology
B)Psychiatry
C)Respirology
D)Oncology
Q3) Which of the following is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?
A)Vitamin K
B)epoetin (Eprex)
C)Human insulin
D)Heparin
Q4) Name one clinical application of pharmacogenomics.
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Chapter 52: Acid-Controlling Drugs
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Q1) Antacids that contain aluminum salts may result in which adverse effect?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Intestinal flatulence
D)Abdominal cramping
Q2) A patient is taking several medications,including twice-daily dosages of antacids.What important information should the nurse tell this patient about taking the antacids?
A)The medications can be taken with the antacids.
B)The antacids should be taken at least 2 hours before or after the other medications.
C)The antacids should be taken at least 4 hours apart from the other medications.
D)The patient will not be able to take the antacid therapy at this time.
Q3) Which classification of medications is considered first-line therapy for treatment of erosive esophagitis?
A)H antagonists
B)Proton pump inhibitors
C)General antacids
D)Prostaglandin inhibitors
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Chapter 53: Antidiarrheal Drugs and Laxatives
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Q1) Which drug is commonly used before diagnostic or surgical bowel procedures to induce total cleansing of the bowel?
A)polyethylene glycol (Klean-Prep)
B)lactulose
C)mineral oil (Lansoÿl)
D)Milk of magnesia
Q2) A patient is taking an adsorbent,such as bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol).What possible adverse effects should the nurse warn this patient about?
A)Darkened stools
B)Urinary hesitancy
C)Drowsiness
D)Blurred vision
Q3) What classification is the laxative glycerin (Glycerin Suppositories)?
A)A saline laxative
B)An emollient laxative
C)A hyperosmotic laxative
D)A stimulant/irritant laxative
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Chapter 54: Antiemetic and Antinausea Drugs
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Q1) A patient who has been newly diagnosed with vertigo will be taking an antihistamine antiemetic drug.What is important for the nurse to emphasize when teaching the patient about this drug?
A)Doses may be skipped if she is feeling well.
B)The patient should avoid driving because of possible drowsiness.
C)The patient may experience transient taste problems.
D)It is safe to take the dose with a glass of wine in the evening to help settle her stomach.
Q2) Which antiemetic drug works by blocking dopamine in the chemoreceptor trigger zone,causing the zone to be desensitized to impulses received from the gastrointestinal tract?
A)ondansetron (Zofran)
B)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
C)meclizine (Bonamine)
D)prochlorperazine (Nu-Prochlor)
Q3) Which drug is administered via a transdermal patch to prevent motion sickness?
A)meclizine (Bonamine)
B)prochlorperazine (Stemetil)
C)scopolamine (Transderm-V)
D)metoclopramide (Apo-Metoclop)
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Chapter 55: Pharmaconutrition
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Q1) What is a possible complication of long-term administration of peripheral total parenteral nutrition (TPN)?
A)Diarrhea
B)Phlebitis
C)Hypokalemia
D)Hypoglycemia
Q2) Which of the following is the most common adverse effect from nutritional supplements?
A)Diarrhea
B)Constipation
C)Fluid overload
D)Peptic ulcer disease
Q3) To ensure patient safety,how often should the nurse assess the total parenteral nutrition (TPN)infusion?
A)Every 15 minutes
B)Every 30 minutes
C)Every 60 minutes
D)Every 2 hours
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Chapter 56: Blood-Forming Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is teaching a patient about the oral administration of iron preparations.Which of the following will increase the absorption of iron?
A)Milk
B)Yogourt
C)Antacids
D)Ascorbic acid
Q2) The nurse is administering medications to a patient with a new diagnosis of anemia.Which of the following is a true statement about treatment with folic acid?
A)Folic acid is used to treat any type of anemia.
B)The cause of the anemia should be determined before treatment with folic acid.
C)Folic acid is used to treat pernicious anemia.
D)Folic acid is used to treat iron-deficient anemia.
Q3) When ferrous fumarate (Palafer CF)is given to infants,what should also be administered to prevent the possible occurrence of hemolytic anemia?
A)Zinc
B)Potassium
C)Vitamin E
D)Vitamin B
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Chapter 57: Dermatological Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the nursing implications are correct regarding topical dermatological drugs for acne? Select all that apply.
A)Apply lotion liberally to affected sites.
B)Apply sparingly to affected areas.
C)Cover affected areas with occlusive dressings.
D)Avoid weather extremes and ultraviolet (UV)radiation.
E)Exposure to sunlight helps the skin by drying the affected areas.
F)Avoid abrasive cleansers.
G)Discontinue treatment when skin condition improves.
Q2) A father calls the clinic because his son has head lice.He reports to the nurse that he has used "that special,medicated shampoo three times now but nothing is happening." What should be the nurse's first recommendation?
A)Get a prescription for a second product,malathion.
B)Add a lotion product that remains on the scalp for 8 hours.
C)Use a nit comb to remove nits from the hair shafts.
D)Comb through the hair with mineral oil to loosen the lice from the hair shafts.
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Chapter 58: Ophthalmic Drugs
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with an eye injury requires an ocular examination to detect the presence of a foreign body.Which of the following drugs is used for this examination?
A)dapiprazole
B)fluorescein sodium (AK-Fluor)
C)atropine sulfate
D)cromolyn sodium
Q2) A patient has been taking the corticosteroid dexamethasone (AK Dex)but has developed bacterial conjunctivitis.He is given a prescription for gentamicin (Alcomicin)ointment.What interaction is possible if the two drugs are used concurrently?
A)The infection may become systemic.
B)The gentamicin effects may become more potent.
C)The corticosteroid may cause overgrowth of nonsusceptible organisms.
D)Immunosuppression may make elimination of the eye infection more difficult.
Q3) In preparation for ocular surgery,which drug is used for local anaesthesia?
A)Glycerin
B)tetracaine (Minims)
C)Acetazolamide
D)apraclonidine 1% (Iopidine)
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Chapter 59: Otic Drugs
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Q1) A patient is prescribed ear drops.What important information should the nurse teach the patient about the proper use of ear drops?
A)Remove cerumen with a cotton-tipped swab before instilling drops.
B)The drops should be instilled while still cool from refrigeration.
C)Warm the eardrops to room temperature before instillation.
D)Massage the ear lobe after instillation.
Q2) For what reason is hydrocortisone commonly used in combination with otic antibiotics?
A)To soften and eliminate cerumen
B)To reduce pain associated with ear infections
C)To act as an antifungal agent in certain types of ear infections
D)To reduce inflammation and itching associated with ear infections
Q3) Which of the following describes the use of urea hydrogen peroxide (Earoxide)?
A)To reduce inflammation
B)To reduce production of cerumen
C)To loosen the cerumen for easier removal
D)To inhibit growth of microorganisms in the external canal
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