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Health Science is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the study, research, and application of knowledge to maintain and improve the health of individuals and communities. The course explores topics such as human anatomy and physiology, disease prevention, nutrition, public health, healthcare systems, and health promotion strategies. Students will gain an understanding of how biological, behavioral, environmental, and social factors influence health outcomes. Through a combination of theoretical learning and practical experiences, the course prepares students for a variety of roles within the health sector and provides a foundation for further study in medicine, nursing, public health, or allied health professions.
Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Pharmacology 7th Australian Edition by Shane Bullock
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15 Chapters
666 Verified Questions
666 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Pharmacology Within the Social Context
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/21573
Sample Questions
Q1) It is best to learn about pharmacology with reference to what particular type of medication names?
A) Chemical names.
B) Brand names.
C) Generic names.
D) Proprietary names.
Answer: C
Q2) The production of therapeutic agents by the manipulation of genetic material characterises which drug development era?
A) The Age of Natural Substances.
B) The Age of Synthetic Substances.
C) The Age of Biotechnology.
D) The Age of Aquarius.
Answer: C
Q3) A key feature of polypharmacy is:
A) self-diagnosing and medicating.
B) using many different pharmacies to purchase medicines.
C) the excessive or unnecessary use of medicines.
D) a reluctance to use complementary therapies.
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Pharmacology Within the Profesional Context
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The educational preparation for a nurse practitioner is:
A) a Master's degree.
B) a Bachelor's degree.
C) extensive training in the clinical setting.
D) a professional doctorate.
Answer: A
Q2) Australian regulations require nursing staff to maintain a ward register for administration of controlled drugs and periodically check the balance of ampoules, tablets and volumes of liquid.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Which of the following healthcare workers have some prescribing rights, are able to order context specific pathology and radiology tests, and are able to make limited referrals?
A) Assistant in Nursing
B) Registered Nurse
C) Nurse Practitioner
D) Nurse Researcher
Answer: C
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Chapter 3: Medicine Administration and Professional
Responsibilities
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) After administering ear drops, to allow the medication to disperse and absorb, the client should:
A) not talk for 5 minutes.
B) lie down with the affected ear facing up for about 10 minutes.
C) lie down flat for 10 minutes.
D) sit for 5 minutes.
Answer: B
Q2) Intrathecal injection is a mode of drug delivery into
A) blood.
B) lymph.
C) cerebrospinal fluid.
D) synovial fluid.
Answer: C
Q3) Suppositories, in general, when inserted into the lower third of the rectum:
A) always have a fast onset of action.
B) avoid the hepatic first pass.
C) are useful for ulcerative colitis.
D) are for laxative use only.
Answer: B
Page 5
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Chapter 4: General Aspects of Pharmacology
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In disrupting the synthesis of folic acid in bacteria, sulfonamides act:
A) as competitive inhibitors.
B) as non-competitive inhibitors.
C) by physical action.
D) by none of the above.
Q2) Individual drugs can be classified according to the following except:
A) therapeutic use.
B) mode of action.
C) molecular structure.
D) adverse drug reaction.
Q3) When a drug acts through non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme it:
A) can be overcome by giving more of the enzyme substrate.
B) is usually reversible.
C) binds to a distinct site away from the active site.
D) is lethal to the person receiving treatment.
Q4) Which one of the following statements about pharmacodynamics is true?
A) A partial agonist can be as effective as an antagonist.
B) Ion channels do not have receptors.
C) Second messenger systems always involve G-proteins.
D) The antiasthma agent theophylline acts via a tyrosine kinase-linked receptor.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: To Xicology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) For treatment of acute narcotic overdose, naloxone works because it is:
A) a partial antagonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
B) a full antagonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
C) a full agonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
D) a partial agonist, which acts on opioid receptors.
Q2) In sedating individuals who have been affected by ecstasy (3-methoxy-4, 5-methylenedioxyamphetamine or MDMA) it is preferable to start with a relatively:
A) high dose of benzodiazepine medication and then titrate downwards.
B) low dose of benzodiazepine medication and then titrate upwards.
C) high dose of antipsychotic medication and then titrate downwards.
D) low dose of antipsychotic medication and then titrate upwards.
Q3) A chelating agent that can be used in the management of magnesium poisoning is:
A) calcium gluconate.
B) dicobalt edetate.
C) calcium disodium edetate.
D) desferrioxamine mesylate.
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Autonomic Pharmacology
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50 Verified Questions
50 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Receptors that respond to acetylcholine (ACh) are called:
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) dopaminergic.
D) acetylergic.
Q2) Which one of the following chemical transmitters is not formed from the amino acid tyrosine?
A) Noradrenaline.
B) Acetylcholine.
C) Dopamine.
D) Adrenaline.
Q3) Muscarinic agonists can be used in the management of:
A) tobacco dependence.
B) glaucoma.
C) bradycardia.
D) peptic ulcer.
Q4) Common adverse reactions of muscarinic antagonists include drowsiness, tachycardia, constipation, blurred vision, dry mouth and facial flushing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 7: Chemical Mediators
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which antihistamine is used in migraine and in stimulating the appetite?
A) Cyproheptadine.
B) Trimprazine.
C) Loratidine.
D) Promethazine.
Q2) Aside from liver function what other physiological parameters should be monitored regularly during bosentan therapy?
A) Cardiac rhythm and potassium levels.
B) Muscle function and calcium levels.
C) Conscious state and creatinine levels.
D) Blood pressure and haemoglobin levels.
Q3) Generally when used as drugs, amino acid-based chemical mediators:
A) tend to be a fixed size of about 10-15 residues long.
B) can be administered orally.
C) only influence vascular function.
D) have short half-lives.
Q4) Adrenaline can prevent further histamine release in allergic and anaphylactic reactions.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: The Modulat Ion of Behaviour, Cognition and Motor Activity
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60 Verified Questions
60 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A seizure that manifests as muscle spasms of body parts in sequence is most likely a:
A) Myoclonic seizure.
B) Absence seizure.
C) Psychomotor seizure.
D) Jacksonian seizure.
Q2) An example of a psychosis is:
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety.
D) panic disorder.
Q3) Modafinil is useful in the treatment of:
A) ADD.
B) ADHD.
C) narcolepsy.
D) amphetamine addiction.
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Chapter 9: Medicines Used to Relieve Pain and Produce
Anaesthesia
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combined use of salicylates and corticosteroids may lead to ________ and should therefore be avoided.
A) tinnitus
B) renal failure
C) peptic ulceration
D) liver failure
Q2) The reason that methadone is used to help wean people off heroin is that:
A) methadone has a longer half-life, which contributes to weaker withdrawal symptoms.
B) methadone is administered orally, reducing syringe use.
C) methadone binds to opioid receptors leaving few receptors available for a heroin 'high'.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The opioid receptors most involved in mediating analgesia are:
A) delta and epsilon.
B) kappa and delta.
C) mu and epsilon.
D) mu and kappa.
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Page 11
Chapter 10: The Modulat Ion of Oxygenat Ion and Perfusion
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66 Verified Questions
66 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following statements about oxygen therapy is true?
A) Prolonged therapy with 100% oxygen can lead to toxicity regardless of underlying pathology.
B) Standard oxygen therapy for clients with long-term chronic obstructive airways disease will lead to hyperventilation.
C) Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is useful in the care of premature infants.
D) Peak flow readings determine the level of oxygen therapy required.
Q2) Intravenous potassium should never be administered:
A) through a peripheral line.
B) through the subclavian vein.
C) as a bolus through the side arm of the intravenous line.
D) through the jugular vein.
Q3) Calcium channel blockers have which of the following effects?
A) Depressed cardiac contractility.
B) Depressed cardiac conduction.
C) Reduced vascular tone.
D) All of the above.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: The Modulation of Gastrointestinal Function
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In order to determine the effectiveness of Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy, which of the following tests is usually performed?
A) Gastroscopy.
B) Barium swallow.
C) Urea breath test.
D) Gastrointestinal biopsy.
Q2) A non-pharmacological treatment for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy (NVP) is:
A) blue vein cheese.
B) iced tea.
C) ginger.
D) eucalyptus.
Q3) Sennosides are best administered:
A) at bedtime.
B) before lying down.
C) with meals.
D) in the recumbent position.
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Chapter 12: The Modulation of Body Growth, Development and Metabolism
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63 Verified Questions
63 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) To ensure maximum efficacy for post-coital contraception, it needs to be administered within 12 hours of sexual intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pathophysiology of type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with:
A) hyperinsulinaemia.
B) an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells.
C) cellular insulin resistance.
D) pregnancy.
Q3) When the oral dose exceeds mg daily of prednisolone or equivalent dose, the person will benefit from receiving gastric acid suppressive therapy.
A) 4
B) 6
C) 10
D) 15
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Chapter 13: Nutritional and Natural Therapies
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prolonged use of zinc may lead to:
A) hepatolenticular degeneration.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) hypertension.
D) copper deficiency and anaemia.
Q2) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub> deficiency is more likely in which population group?
A) Diabetics.
B) Vegans.
C) Vegetarians.
D) School-aged children.
Q3) Excessive consumption of which mineral can lead to calcium deficiency?
A) Phosporus.
B) Magnesium.
C) Iron.
D) Potassium.
Q4) Apart from haemoglobin, iron is needed for the synthesis of:
A) xanthine oxidase.
B) myoglobin.
C) cytochrome oxidase.
D) pancreatin.
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Modulation of Celullar Growth and Proliferation
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) During treatment with selected sulfonamides a client may experience diarrhoea. This usually indicates:
A) a change in the balance of gut flora.
B) gastrointestinal tract bleeding.
C) drug crystallisation.
D) an allergic reaction.
Q2) The actions of streptomycin and amikacin:
A) are considered first-line for tubercolosis.
B) are ineffective for the bactericidal phase.
C) interfere with protein synthesis.
D) are best mediated by the oral route.
Q3) Which one of the following drug groups directly targets the intracellular cascade of reactions leading to proliferation and survival of cancerous cells?
A) S-phase inhibitors.
B) Monoclonal antibodies.
C) Radioactive samarium.
D) Protein kinase inhibitors.
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Medicines Used Topically
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is a part of the vascular tunic?
A) The sclera.
B) The iris.
C) The central fovea.
D) The extrinsic muscles.
Q2) Which drug is absolutely prohibited in pregnancy?
A) Tetracycline.
B) Azelaic acid.
C) Metronidazole.
D) Isotretinoin.
Q3) SPF 15 sunscreens block about:
A) 94 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 6 per cent penetration.
B) 95 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 5 per cent penetration.
C) 96 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 4 per cent penetration.
D) 97 per cent of UVB light, and allow for 3 per cent penetration.
Q4) The site of administration of an intracameral injection would be:
A) directly under the conjunctival membrane.
B) into the posterior cavity.
C) into the anterior chamber.
D) behind the eyeball.
Page 17
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