Health Science Anatomy and Physiology
Test Preparation
Course Introduction
Health Science Anatomy and Physiology explores the structure and function of the human body, providing a foundational understanding essential for students pursuing careers in health-related fields. The course covers major body systems including skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular, respiratory, digestive, and more emphasizing the physiological processes that enable growth, maintenance, and adaptation. Students will examine the interrelationship between structure and function, the mechanisms maintaining homeostasis, and common health conditions affecting body systems. Interactive lectures, laboratory activities, and case studies help learners apply theoretical concepts to real-world scenarios and build practical skills for further study in health sciences.
Recommended Textbook
Essentials of Human Diseases and Conditions 6th Edition by Margaret Schell Frazier
Available Study Resources on Quizplus 15 Chapters
681 Verified Questions
681 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/1272
Page 2
Chapter 1: Mechanisms of Disease, Diagnosis, and Treatment
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25093
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning chemotherapy treatment for cancer?
A) Chemotherapy is most effective against the rapidly developing cells of cancer.
B) Many of the side effects of chemotherapy are due to destruction of some normal cells in the body.
C) Both a and b
D) Neither a or b
Answer: C
Q2) Systemic manifestation(s) of severe allergic responses include A) arthralgia.
B) status asthmaticus.
C) anaphylaxis.
D) all of the above.
Answer: D
Q3) In the process of deciding or confirming the identification of a disease, the results of diagnostic studies are integrated with the medical history and physical examination findings.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 2: Developmental, Congenital, and Childhood
Diseases and Disorders
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85 Verified Questions
85 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25094
Sample Questions
Q1) Conjoined twins may be joined
A) head to head (cranial).
B) posteriorly at the sacrum and coccyx.
C) chest to chest.
D) at all of the above points.
Answer: D
Q2) A systemic disease with superficial cutaneous lesions that begin as red macules that progress to papules then to vesicles that form crusts is
A) rubeola.
B) rubella.
C) chickenpox.
D) diphtheria.
Answer: C
Q3) It is necessary to monitor urinary output of children with diarrhea.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Immunologic Diseases and Conditions
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25095
Sample Questions
Q1) There are no cures for connective tissue diseases, and treatment is only palliative.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) The risk of transmission of HIV to and from health care workers and patients is minimized by strict adherence to the universal precautions for infection control.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Opportunistic infections can emerge as a result of deficiencies of the immune system.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) Tolerance to self-antigens is believed to commence during fetal life.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Diseases and Conditions of the Endocrine System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25096
Sample Questions
Q1) Hyperparathyroidism or overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH) causes A) increased breakdown of bone.
B) hypercalcemia, or increased circulating calcium.
C) cardiac arrhythmias and renal calculi.
D) all of the above.
Q2) A deficiency in the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone [ADH]) by the posterior pituitary gland causes
A) hypoglycemia.
B) dwarfism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) none of the above.
Q3) Polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, weight loss, and fatigue are the principal signs and symptoms of A) hypoglycemia.
B) diabetes insipidus.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Addison's disease is partial or complete failure of adrenocortical function.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 5: Diseases and Disorders of the Eye and Ear
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25097
Sample Questions
Q1) Ankylosing of the stapes is called
A) Ménière's disease.
B) otomycosis.
C) otosclerosis.
D) exotropia.
Q2) The most common tumor of the eye is cancer that has metastasized to the eye.
A)True B)False
Q3) Benign tumors of the ears include acoustic neuromas.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cochlear implants restore normal hearing.
A)True B)False
Q5) Chronic open-end glaucoma results from a malfunction of the drainage system, which causes IOP to be raised.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 6: Diseases and Conditions of the Integumentary System
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25098
Sample Questions
Q1) Itch mites and lice spread easily from one person to another by close physical contact.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Disorders that can produce nail deformities include psoriasis, lichen planus, and chronic paronychia causing the end of the nail to separate from the underlying skin. Bacteria can enter this space and make the nail turn a blackish green.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Keloids occur secondary to trauma or surgery.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Causes of alopecia (baldness) include
A) chemotherapy and other medications.
B) aging and heredity factors.
C) certain systemic diseases.
D) all of the above.
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Chapter 7: Diseases and Conditions of the Musculoskeletal System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25099
Sample Questions
Q1) A lateral curvature of the spine is known as A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) lumbago.
D) scoliosis.
Q2) An inflammatory response at the heel bone, which is a common problem in individuals active in sports and especially in runners, is A) hallux valgus.
B) plantar fasciitis.
C) spur.
D) both b and c.
Q3) Fractures, or broken bones, are classified by the nature of the fracture, which is the result of the mechanism of injury.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A bunion is also called hallux valgus.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Diseases and Conditions of the Digestive System
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52 Verified Questions
52 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25100
Sample Questions
Q1) Cancer of the liver is
A) usually a primary cancer.
B) usually a secondary cancer.
C) likely to have a good prognosis.
D) likely to be discovered early.
Q2) The diagnostic test for esophagitis that is considered a superior method and includes biopsy is called
A) liver function study.
B) esophagoscopy.
C) a chest film.
D) a barium study.
Q3) Agents that may damage the gastric lining and cause gastritis include
A) medications (for example, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs [NSAIDs]), poisons, alcohol, and infectious diseases.
B) mechanical injury.
C) allergic reaction or irritation from foods.
D) all of the above.
Q4) Barrett's esophagus is a severe consequence of GERD.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 9: Diseases and Conditions of the Respiratory System
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25101
Sample Questions
Q1) Some points to stress in patient teaching regarding cessation of smoking include A) reducing one's exposure to secondhand smoke is recommended.
B) there are no benefits to cessation of smoking to patients who already have lung cancer.
C) there is less danger of relapse in patients who survive lung cancer and continue to smoke.
D) the prognosis for patients with lung cancer is generally good.
Q2) The treatment of sinusitis may include
A) antibiotics, decongestants, and antihistamines.
B) allergy testing, immunotherapy, and corticosteroids.
C) sinusotomy.
D) all of the above.
Q3) A history of smoking is listed as an etiologic factor in bronchitis, bronchiectasis, emphysema, and lung cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The cause of pneumoconiosis is Legionnaires' disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 10: Diseases and Conditions of the Circulatory System
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54 Verified Questions
54 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25102
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who experiences gradually increasing dyspnea, anxiety, and edema of the feet and ankles may be suffering from A) CHF.
B) MI.
C) malignant hypertension.
D) angina pectoris.
Q2) Treatment of cardiac tamponade includes A) drainage of the blood in the pericardium.
B) drug therapy.
C) watchful waiting.
D) cardiac catheterization.
Q3) A systemic inflammatory disease of the joints and cardiac tissue that follows a sore throat caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is A) endocarditis.
B) myocarditis.
C) pericarditis.
D) rheumatic fever.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Diseases and Conditions of the Urinary System
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25103
Sample Questions
Q1) The patient who has CRF is evaluated for dialysis or kidney transplantation to prolong life.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Some nephrotoxic agents known to cause renal damage include
A) solvents and heavy metals.
B) antibiotics and pesticides.
C) mushrooms.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Pyelonephritis is the most common type of kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Proper function of the urinary system is frequently evaluated by A) physical examination alone.
B) the patient's history alone.
C) urinalysis (UA) and blood tests.
D) how much liquid the patient is drinking daily.
Q5) Symptoms of renal calculi are the same regardless of the size of the stone.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 12: Diseases and Conditions of the Reproductive System
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25104
Sample Questions
Q1) HG is usually self-limiting and transient.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Fibroadenoma is a nontender malignant tumor of the breast.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The first sign of testicular cancer is
A) a painful lump discovered in the testicle.
B) a painless lump discovered in the testicle.
C) urinary incontinence.
D) sexual dysfunction.
Q4) The anterior pituitary gland produces hormones that regulate the menstrual cycle.
A)True
B)False
Q5) One of the major risk factors for ectopic pregnancy is
A) contraception.
B) poor diet.
C) history of PID.
D) exercise.
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Chapter 13: Neurologic Diseases and Conditions
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48 Verified Questions
48 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25105
Sample Questions
Q1) TIA and transient global amnesia are the same thing.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Periodic severe headaches that may be completely incapacitating are called A) cephalalgia.
B) peripheral neuritis.
C) neuralgia.
D) migraines.
Q3) Blood, penetrating trauma, and infection in adjoining structures such as the ear or sinuses are all routes in which infectious organisms may reach the brain and cause A) infection.
B) a stroke.
C) a subdural hematoma.
D) restless legs syndrome (RLS).
Q4) The CNS's function is to process and store sensory and motor information and to govern the state of consciousness.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 14: Mental Disorders
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25106
Sample Questions
Q1) Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is the most common referral complaint.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Identifiable causes of mental retardation include
A) genetic disorders, infection, trauma, or poisoning.
B) early alterations in embryonic development and general medical conditions.
C) prematurity or hypoxia.
D) all of the above.
Q3) Somatoform disorders include a group of mental disorders in which physical symptoms have an organic cause.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A child who experiences extreme withdrawal and obsessive behavior along with lack of social interaction suffers from
A) attention-deficit disorder (ADD).
B) Tourette's disorder.
C) autism.
D) a learning disorder.
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Chapter 15: Disorders and Conditions Resulting From Trauma
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/25107
Sample Questions
Q1) Physical trauma is a leading cause of death in the United States for persons age 1 year old to approximately age 44.
A)True
B)False
Q2) FBs in the ear may include
A) bugs and insects.
B) cereal, peas, beans, grapes, and pebbles.
C) cotton.
D) all of the above.
Q3) An easy way to remove a FB from the nose of a child is to A) grasp it with tweezers.
B) irrigate
C) have child blow his/her nose.
D) shine a light in nares.
Q4) Treatment of a puncture wound includes A) brisk scrubbing of the area with a brush.
B) copious irrigation of the wound.
C) approximation of the wound edges for suturing.
D) all of the above.
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