Course Introduction
Health Psychology Study Guide Questions
Health Psychology explores the psychological factors influencing health, illness, and healthcare. The course examines how behaviors, emotions, personality, and social influences impact physical well-being, the onset and progression of disease, and recovery processes. Topics include stress and coping, health behavior change, patient-provider communication, chronic illness management, and the role of psychological interventions in promoting healthy lifestyles. Students will gain an understanding of theoretical models, research methods, and the practical application of psychological principles to improve health outcomes and quality of life.
Recommended Textbook
Abnormal Psychology Perspectives 5th Edition by David J.A. Dozois
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19 Chapters
1924 Verified Questions
1924 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Concepts of Abnormality Throughout History
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Sample Questions
Q1) The germ theory of disease led to the idea that
A) it was important to wash your hands after being with psychiatric patients.
B) only biological treatments are beneficial for mental illness.
C) heredity plays an important role in the transmission of mental disease.
D) General Paresis of the Insane may be a consequence of syphilis.
E) germs may cause anxiety.
Answer: D
Q2) According to the statistical concept, abnormal behavior is that which occurs relatively infrequently.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) All of the following are valid criticisms of the mental hygiene movement EXCEPT
A) psychosocial treatments were less effective due to the large number of patients.
B) physical treatments were often unpleasant.
C) living conditions in the asylum were unpleasant.
D) the original goals of the movement were less than noble.
E) overcrowding in asylums prevented proper care.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Theoretical Perspectives on Abnormal Behaviour
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, which of the following is NOT a general aim of theories about mental disorders?
A) To identify characteristics that precede and follow episodes of the problem behaviour
B) To predict the course of the disorder
C) To identify the factors that maintain the behaviour
D) To design effective treatments
E) To explain the origins of the problem behaviour
Answer: A
Q2) Joe is often characterized as "chatter box." A Freudian therapist would likely feel that he is fixated at which stage of development?
A) latency stage
B) oral stage
C) phallic stage
D) genital stage
E) anal stage
Answer: B
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Chapter 3: Classification and Diagnosis
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Q1) Personality disorders in the DSM are particularly problematic for women because A) it is more difficult to be a women in society than it is to be a man.
B) women are seen as having more flawed personalities than men.
C) if women have a psychological problem, it is seen as part of their personality.
D) gender stereotypes are associated with many of the personality disorders.
E) more and more women are being diagnosed with traditionally "masculine" personality disorders.
Answer: D
Q2) Validity in diagnosis is best conceptualized as
A) agreement between different clinicians on the diagnosis.
B) a diagnosis that makes sense based on the symptoms.
C) the ability to predict disorders accurately.
D) a discontinuous approach to classification of disorders.
E) a categorical classification of disorders.
Answer: C
Q3) Categorical classification is also called discrete classification.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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Chapter 4: Psychological Assessment and Research
Methods
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Sample Questions
Q1) Experimental results concerning the efficacy of a particular treatment are labelled "statistically significant" when
A) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance and the treatment has been demonstrated to be likely to work in "real life".
B) the treatment results have been compared to non-disturbed samples.
C) the treatment has been demonstrated to work in "real life".
D) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance.
E) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance and the treatment has been demonstrated to work in "real life".
Q2) The resolution of the image produced by (an) __________ can be improved by injecting a substance to enhance contrasts between different sorts of tissue.
A) PAT (positron axial tomography)
B) PET (positron emission tomography)
C) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
D) EEG (electroencephalogram)
E) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
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Page 6
Chapter 5: Anxiety and Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Many of the etiological models of GAD are primarily __________ in nature.
A) neuropsychological
B) genetic
C) biological
D) behavioural
E) cognitive
Q2) Concerning the risk factors for the development of PTSD __________ appear to be the most powerful predictors.
A) childhood factors
B) interpersonal traumas
C) post-event factors
D) psychiatric histories
E) pre-event factors
Q3) Salkovskis proposed that cognitive intrusions develop into obsessions only when intrusions are appraised as posing a threat for which the person is personally responsible.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What does Seligman's biological preparedness theory state? Has the evidence generally supported this theory?
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Chapter 6: Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Research on dissociative identity disorder suggests that over __________ percent of patients report severe childhood physical and/or sexual abuse.
A) 75
B) 90
C) 50
D) 10
E) 25
Q2) Which of the following represents an overconcern about serious disease?
A) malingering
B) hypochondriasis
C) conversion disorder
D) factitious disorder
E) pain disorder
Q3) According to Merskey, cases of dissociative identity disorder
A) represent a legitimate psychiatric disorder.
B) are most frequently found in individuals with criminal inclinations.
C) may be iatrogenic conditions unintentionally caused by practitioners.
D) are frequently cases of individuals faking or malingering their illnesses.
E) are more common outside of North America.
Q4) Describe five patterns of memory loss characteristic of dissociative amnesia.
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Chapter 7: Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The psychosocial vulnerability model suggests that hostile people
A) are innately predisposed to illness.
B) experience a more demanding interpersonal life than others.
C) are more likely to engage in unhealthy behaviours and less likely to have healthy practices, such as exercise.
D) are more at risk for diseases because they experience exaggerated autonomic and neuroendocrine responses during stress.
E) create a social world that is antagonistic and unsupportive.
Q2) Cardiovascular reactivity refers to
A) the relationship between cardiovascular function and arherosclerosis.
B) that relationship between psychosocial stressors and cardiovascular disease.
C) the relationship between hypertension and psychosocial stressors.
D) how much a person's cardiovascular function changes in response to a psychologically significant stimulus.
E) how much hypertension is caused by a psychosocial stressor.
Q3) In 90% of cases of hypertension a specific cause can be identified.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Outline the differences between signs and symptoms.
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Mood Disorders and Suicide
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Sample Questions
Q1) Post-partum depression appears to be a predominantly Western phenomenon.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Up to _________ percent of people who completed suicide suffered from major depression.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 70
Q3) Approximately _________ percent of the 70 percent of new mothers who experience depression and mood swings after childbirth is diagnosed with mood disorder with postpartum onset.
A) 5-10
B) 10-15
C) 15-20
D) 20-25
Q4) Define dysthymia and cyclothymia. Provide one similarity (other than the fact that they are both mood disorders) and one difference between the two.
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Chapter 9: Schizophrenia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compared to the other subtypes of schizophrenia, the paranoid type is the most serious.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Overall, the inconsistent research findings regarding environmental factors in the etiology of schizophrenia support a(n) _______ model, which asserts that__________.
A) high-risk; certain factors almost always produce schizophrenia in vulnerable persons
B) cumulative; various environmental stressors accumulate to increase risk
C) expressed emotion; various negative family interaction patterns play a role
D) biological environmental; pre- and peri-natal factors interact with genetic factors to increase risk
E) neuropsychological; various test scores combine to indicate etiology for schizophrenia
Q3) Schizophrenia is characterized by its complexity.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Describe the five subtypes of schizophrenia in the DSM-IV-TR.
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Chapter 10: Eating Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Susan is 16 years old and she is afraid of gaining weight and getting fat. Susan is very dissatisfied with her body and she often tries to lose weight through fad diets and exercise. It would be difficult to determine her diagnosis because
A) it is hard to determine whether she meets the DSM-IV-TR criteria.
B) Susan could have any one of a number of eating disorders.
C) Susan is still too young to have an eating disorder.
D) Susan's symptoms are not extreme.
E) it is difficult to determine whether she is successful at losing weight.
Q2) Chronic dieters are at significant risk of developing an eating disorder.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Interpersonal therapy for eating disorders differs from cognitive-behaviour therapy in which of the following ways?
A) It does not directly target eating-disordered attitudes and behaviours.
B) It focuses on identifying and modifying dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs.
C) It encourages that patient to use self-monitoring to help patients normalize their eating.
D) It uses psychoeducation about normalized eating.
E) It teaches problem-solving skills.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Substance-Related Disorders
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Q1) The immediate effect of heroin is __________ at higher doses it results in
A) calming; pupil constriction
B) hyperactivity; paranoia
C) pleasurable; respiratory failure
D) nausea; coma
E) anxiety; euphoria
Q2) Research has shown that impairment of control (over substance use) is better understood as a categorical loss of control.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With relatively small doses of cannabis, most users report
A) sexual arousal.
B) feelings of tension and anxiety.
C) paranoia.
D) hallucinations.
E) a feeling of euphoria and sociability.
Q4) Contrast substance abuse with substance dependence.
Q5) Describe the Operant Conditinoing approach to treating alcohol abuse and addiction.
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Chapter 12: The Personality Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the text, clinicians have been shown to be reluctant to diagnose males as having __________ personality disorder, while they are sometimes hesitant to diagnose females as having __________ personality disorder.
A) antisocial; avoidant
B) histrionic; antisocial
C) dependent; paranoid
D) antisocial; histrionic
E) avoidant; antisocial
Q2) Briefly define and distinguish between the terms "comorbidity" and "overlap", and give an example of each in the context of personality disorders.
Q3) Sociologists replaced the term psychopath with sociopath in order to reflect their belief that_______________.
A) the social consequences (i.e., impact on others) are of principal importance
B) the disorder is caused by social forces and factors
C) sociological approaches to studying the disorder are necessary
D) the disorder is usually caused by parental socialization practices
E) sociopaths are simply reacting to childhood trauma
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Chapter 13: Sexual and Gender Identity Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) An extremely important aspect of the feminist theory of rape is the fact that
A) the main function of rape is to humiliate and possess power over the victim.
B) rapists do not know how to express their needs for intimacy.
C) rape is a means of sexually controlling women.
D) rape in an expression of anger toward the self.
E) rape has increased over time because women are becoming more dominant in society.
Q2) All of the following statements regarding the four stages of the sexual response cycle are true EXCEPT
A) the refractory period is the final stage of the sexual response cycle.
B) during the plateau phase, arousal becomes more intense.
C) in men, orgasm comprises two stages.
D) vasocongestion occurs during the excitement phase.
E) rhythmic, muscular contractions are experienced during orgasm.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT a form of paraphilia?
A) zoophilia
B) erotophilia
C) obscene phone calls
D) bestiality
E) klismaphilia
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Chapter 14: Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Karen is taking her son David for an assessment concerning a potential diagnosis of autism. They are most likely to be assessed by a
A) speech and language specialist.
B) psychiatrist.
C) multidisciplinary team.
D) social worker.
E) psychologist.
Q2) Rett syndrome affects
A) males and females equally.
B) younger males, but older females.
C) adult males and both child and adult females.
D) primarily females.
E) primarily males.
Q3) Which of the following is NOT included in the acculturation framework?
A) segregation
B) assimilation
C) integration
D) ostracization
E) marginalization
Q4) What are the three major components found in learning disorders?
Page 16
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Chapter 15: Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of
Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which shows the correct data regarding gender differences in lifetime prevalence for the childhood and adolescent disorders listed?
A) females-greater prevalence of substance abuse, anxiety, and eating disorders ; males-greater prevalence of behavioral or mood disorder
B) females-greater prevalence of mood, anxiety, and eating disorders ; males-greater prevalence of behavioral or substance abuse disorder
C) females-greater prevalence of mood, anxiety, and substance abuse ; males-greater prevalence of behavioral or eating disorder
D) females-greater prevalence of behavioral and eating disorders ; males-greater prevalence of mood, anxiety or substance abuse disorders
E) females-greater prevalence of mood, behavioral and eating disorders ; males-greater prevalence of anxiety or substance abuse disorder
Q2) Externalizing problems are also referred to as disorders of overcontrolled behaviour.
A)True B)False
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Chapter 16: Mental Disorders and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) Briefly describe Socio-Emotional Selectivity Theory (SST).
Q2) In many nursing homes, older individuals play games such as bingo, or get involved in sing-alongs. According to the selective optimization/compensation view, low stress activities such as these are believed to
A) keep older people from becoming upset and withdrawn.
B) keep older people active.
C) ensure that older people with disorders such as Alzheimer's remain active. D) help sharpen memory skills.
E) allow older people to socialize.
Q3) Which of the following statements regarding depressive disorders and older adults is true?
A) Both major depressive disorder and dysthymic disorder are more prevalent among younger than older adults.
B) There is a higher prevalence of depressive disorders among older men.
C) There is a higher prevalence of depressive disorders among older women.
D) Depressive disorders are easier to treat in older adults.
E) Major depressive disorder is one of the less common psychiatric problems among older adults.
Q4) Describe the hypothesized etiology of Alzheimer's disease.
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Chapter 17: Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE), a person suffering from mild depression for the first time and seeking treatment should
A) be prescribed an SSRI.
B) take a test to determine whether antidepressants or cognitive-behaviour therapy would work best.
C) wait six months to determine if the depression warrants professional intervention.
D) be prescribed an SSRI along with CBT.
E) be offered brief CBT.
Q2) Dave is hostile towards everyone. His therapist provides him with feedback indicating that his interpersonal style is perpetuating and provoking conflicts. He teaches Dave to interact with others in a more flexible and positive way. Which type of psychotherapy is Dave's therapist using?
A) ego analysis
B) time limited dynamic psychotherapy
C) interpersonal psychodynamic therapy
D) aversion therapy
E) brief psychodynamic psychotherapy
Q3) Describe the side effects of MAOIs, tricyclics, and SSRIs.
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19
Chapter 18: Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community
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Sample Questions
Q1) Well-being tends to be the focus of mental health
A) primary prevention.
B) intervention.
C) prevention.
D) tertiary prevention.
E) promotion.
Q2) Outcome failures of a prevention program might be due to poor implementation. On the basis of their research, On the basis of Durlak and DuPre's (2008) research, the chapter concludes that ________ and ________ are related to positive outcomes.
A) fidelity ; dosage or intensity
B) dosage ; intensity
C) positivity ; dosage or intensity
D) fidelity with appropriate adaptation ; positivity
E) fidelity with appropriate adaptation ; dosage or intensity
Q3) List five categories of general risk factors for poor mental health and identify some general protective factors.
Q4) Recently, some provinces have begun prevention initiatives.
A)True
B)False
20
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Chapter 19: Mental Disorder and the Law
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Sample Questions
Q1) The case of R. v. F. D. M. is important because
A) it raised doubts about the ability of psychologists to diagnose mental disorders.
B) it raised doubts about the ability of either psychologists or psychiatrists to diagnose mental disorders.
C) it raised doubts about the validity of the psychoses diagnoses.
D) it raised doubts about the ability of psychiatrists to diagnose mental disorders.
E) it raised doubts about the validity of the schizophrenia diagnoses.
Q2) In R. v. Chaulk (1990) the Court decided that
A) the word "wrong" should be interpreted to include morally wrong only if the accused does not suffer from a personality disorder.
B) the word "wrong" should be interpreted to include morally wrong.
C) the word "wrong" means wrong according to law and not morally wrong.
D) changes be made to Bill C-30 relating to who can raise the defence of insanity.
E) Bill C-30 was unconstitutional.
Q3) Describe the evolution of the insanity defence.
Q4) What are the important elements of the legal definition of mental disorder?
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Page 21