Health Psychology Pre-Test Questions - 2012 Verified Questions by Quizplus

Health Psychology

Pre-Test Questions

Course Introduction

Health Psychology explores the psychological factors that influence physical health, illness, and healthcare practices. This course examines how behaviors, emotions, and social environments impact the onset, progression, and management of medical conditions. Topics include the biopsychosocial model of health, stress and coping mechanisms, health behavior change, chronic illness adaptation, the patient-provider relationship, and health promotion. Students will gain insight into the interventions used to prevent illness and foster healthy lifestyles, as well as the role of psychological assessment and research in improving healthcare outcomes.

Recommended Textbook Fundamentals of Human Neuropsychology 7th Edition by Bryan Kolb

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Page 2

Chapter 1: Extension: A - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Although all of the individuals listed made contributions to our knowledge of the lateralization of language functions in the brain, _____ is generally credited with the MOST important findings.

A) Dax

B) Bouillaud

C) Marie

D) Broca

Answer: D

Q2) If a person believes that brain function is only the source of some behaviors, it is accurate to refer to that person as a:

A) mentalist.

B) behaviorist.

C) materialist.

D) dualist.

Answer: D

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Page 3

Chapter 1: Extension: B - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) Wernicke ___

A)apraxia

B)hierarchical organization

C)fluent aphasia

D)alexia

Answer: C

Q2) Galvani ___

A)chemical neurotransmission

B)electrical stimulation of muscle contractions

C)ionic conduction of nerve impulse

D)synapse

Answer: B

Q3) What does it mean for the cortex to be organized topographically?

Answer: It means that a mapping of specific areas of the cortex is possible for information from or being sent to a particular body region. Such a mapping on the cortex represents a specific spatial transformation of the topography of the body surface.

Q4) Distinguish between sulci and gyri in the cerebral cortex.

Answer: Gyri are folds or bumps in the cortex, while sulci are creases or indentations in the cortex.

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Chapter 1: Extension: C - The Development of Neuropsychology

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Q1) So - called fluent aphasia, associated with damage to the left temporal lobe, was first accurately described and located by _____.

A) Marc Dax

B) Paul Broca

C) Carl Wernicke

D) Pierre Marie

Answer: C

Q2) From studying several cases of brain damage, who proposed that speech was located in the third convolution of the left frontal lobe?

A) Carl Wernicke

B) Paul Broca

C) Jean Baptiste Bouillaud

D) Santiago Ramón y Cajal

Answer: B

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Chapter 2: Extension: A - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) The larger frontal lobes in primates have come to be associated with:

A) emotional processing.

B) visual functions.

C) balance and coordination.

D) complex social behaviors.

Q2) Falk has suggested that the opportunity for brain expansion in the hominids is directly related to:

A) bipedalism.

B) development of more dispersed blood flow.

C) tool making.

D) language development.

Q3) A common epigenetic mechanism that suppresses gene expression is:

A) gene mutation.

B) chromosomal trisomy.

C) latent allele dominance.

D) DNA methylation.

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Chapter 2: Extension: B - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) both alleles' traits are expressed completely ___

A)dominant allele

B)recessive allele

C)codominance

D)X chromosome

Q2) What are the main differences between H. erectus and Australopithecus?

Q3) agriculture ___

A)30,000 years ago

B)15,000 years ago

C)7000 years ago

D)2 million years ago

Q4) H. habilis ___

A)toolmakers

B)appeared in the past 200,000 years

C)larger brain and migrated to Europe and Asia

D)smaller brain but probably used tools

Q5) How does the field of human neuropsychology benefit from the study of nonhuman animals?

Q6) What is meant by the term "encephalization quotient"? How is it calculated? What is the approximate value for humans? Page 7

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Page 8

Chapter 2: Extension: C - Research on the Origins of the

Human Brain and Behavior

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Q1) According to research by Hodos and Campbell, humans have inherited a complex striate cortex from which mammalian ancestor?

A) the bush baby

B) the opossum

C) the tree shrew

D) the rhesus monkey

Q2) The ancestor of all hominids is thought to be an animal somewhat like _____.

A) the chimpanzee

B) Homo habilis

C) Australopithecus

D) Homo afarensis

Q3) The MOST appropriate alternative for Homo habilis is _____.

A) chimpanzees

B) Louis Leakey

C) human adults, young chimps

D) southern ape

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Chapter 3: Extension: A - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into the ventricles by the _____.

A) pineal body

B) ependymal cells

C) epithalamus

D) cerebral aqueduct

Q2) Maps of the cortex based on the appearance of different cell types are termed _____ maps.

A) projection

B) cytoarchitectonic

C) functional

D) anatomical

Q3) Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?

A) hippocampus

B) septum

C) amygdala

D) putamen

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Chapter 3: Extension: B - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) efferent ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q2) What are some of the difficulties in trying to get a severed human spinal cord to reestablish its original connections?

Q3) nuclei ___

A)axon bundle in the CNS

B)groups of cell bodies in the CNS

C)netlike

D)cerebellum

Q4) Identify the five anatomical divisions of the mammalian brain, listing them in order from anterior to posterior.

Q5) contralateral ___

A)carries messages toward a given structure

B)on the same side

C)carries messages from a given structure

D)on the opposite side

Q6) Compare and contrast the functions of the spinal nerves and cranial nerves.

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Chapter 3: Extension: C - Nervous System Organization

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Q1) Which is NOT a part of the adult brain of fish, amphibians, and reptiles?

A) the rhombencephalon

B) the myelencephalon

C) the prosencephalon

D) the mesencephalon

Q2) Clefts in the neocortex are called _____.

A) sulci

B) gyri

C) aqueducts

D) ventricles

Answer Key

Q3) The _____ is usually considered to have six layers of cells and makes up over 80 percent of the total brain.

A) hippocampus

B) frontal lobe

C) cerebellum

D) neocortex

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Chapter 4: Extension: A - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The movement of the action potential from axon hillock to axon terminal is known as:

A) the graded potential.

B) the refractory period.

C) the nerve impulse.

D) anterograde transport.

Q2) Newly synthesized proteins are integrated into a membrane and "addressed" by the: A) Nissl substance.

B) Golgi apparatus.

C) lipofuscin granules.

D) mitochondria.

Q3) The movement of which of the following ions is MOST likely to produce a hyperpolarization following an action potential?

A) potassium

B) calcium

C) sodium

D) organic anion

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Chapter 4: Extension: B - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) axon ___

A)carries information to terminal buttons

B)collects information

C)integrates information

D)sends information to another neuron

Q2) Identify the main function for each of the following: mitochondria, tubules, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, and lysosomes.

Q3) Draw a representative neuron and identify the following components: dendrites, cell body, nucleus, axon hillock, axon, axon collateral, teleodendria, terminals, nodes of Ranvier, and myelin sheath.

Q4) ClS1U1P1-S1S1P0 influx ___

A)depolarization

B)protein anions (molecules)

C)hyperpolarization

D)maintains resting potential

Q5) Since ions are so small, why do they need special pores or channels to get through the neuronal membrane?

Page 14

Q6) Distinguish between transcription and translation in protein synthesis.

Q7) Distinguish between concentration gradient and voltage gradients.

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Chapter 4: Extension: C - the Structure and Electrical

Activity of Neurons

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Q1) The flow of information through a neuron _____.

A) starts with the dendrites and ends with the terminal button

B) starts with the axon and ends with the dendrites

C) starts with the terminal button and ends with the dendrites

D) starts with the dendrites and ends with the axon

Q2) The _____ carries the message across the synapse.

A) axon

B) dendrite

C) neurotransmitter

D) mRNA

Q3) The resting charge in neurons is about _____.

A) +60 mV relative to the outside

B) -70 mV relative to the inside

C) +30 mV relative to the inside

D) -70 mV relative to the outside

Q4) Which ion form is the most appropriate match for depolarization?

A) Cl-

B) A-

C) Na+

D) K+

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Chapter 5: Extension: A - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Blockage of voltage - gated Ca2+ channels would be expected to:

A) stimulate neurotransmitter release.

B) inhibit neurotransmitter release.

C) inhibit the generation of nerve impulses.

D) stimulate the generation of nerve impulses.

Q2) Which of the following is NOT a class of neurotransmitter?

A) gases

B) peptides

C) small molecules

D) lipids

Q3) The excitatory effect of a neurotransmitter is caused by:

A) the chemical structure of the neurotransmitter.

B) the nature of the receptor with which it interacts.

C) the part of the brain where it is released.

D) the amount of neurotransmitter that is released.

Q4) The substance that Otto Loewi found slowed the heart is now called _____.

A) epinephrine

B) acetylcholine

C) glutamate

D) norepinephrine

Page 16

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Chapter 5: Extension: B - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) dopamine ___

A)Viagra

B)Alzheimer's disease

C)Parkinson's disease

D)opium

Q2) Diagram the process by which the activation of a metabotropic receptor by a neurotransmitter molecule results in the modification of postsynaptic function.

Q3) substantia nigra ___

A)norepinephrine

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

Q4) Discuss the differences between classical neurotransmitters and neuropeptides. Give two examples of each.

Q5) locus coeruleus ___

A)norepinephrine

B)serotonin

C)dopamine

Q6) Identify the four dominant neurotransmitters in the four major activating systems.

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Chapter 5: Extension: C - Communication Between Neurons

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Q1) Which ion is mainly responsible for transmitter release?

A) Ca2+

B) Na+

C) K+

D) Cl-

Q2) Dopamine is synthesized from _____.

A) tryptophan

B) tyrosine

C) glutamate

D) choline

Q3) The number of substances now known to be peptide neurotransmitters is about _____.

A) 15

B) 24

C) 50

D) 375

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Chapter 6: Extension: A - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is an agonist of which endogenous neurotransmitter?

A) GABA

B) glutamate

C) dopamine

D) anandamide

Q2) The study of the effects of drugs on the function of the nervous system is:

A) psychopharmacology.

B) neuroendocrinology.

C) pharmacokinetics.

D) biopsychology.

Q3) A typical function of homeostatic hormones is:

A) activating sexual behaviors.

B) dealing with stressful psychological events.

C) controlling blood-sugar levels.

D) instructing the body to develop as a male or female.

Q4) A drug that increases the effectiveness of neurotransmission is called a(n):

A) antagonist.

B) agonist.

C) neuromodulator.

D) stimulant.

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Chapter 6: Extension: B - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) naloxone ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q2) cocaine ___

A)adenosine agonist

B)opioid agonist

C)opioid antagonist

D)dopamine agonist

Q3) What are the mechanisms by which excessive glutamate release is thought to injure neurons?

Q4) physostigmine ___

A)GABA

B)serotonin

C)acetylcholine

D)dopamine

Q5) Why must certain chemicals be transported to neurons within the brain? How is this accomplished?

Page 20

Q6) What is the blood-brain barrier?

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Chapter 6: Extension: C - The Influence of Drugs and Hormones on Behavior

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Q1) Cannabis seems to act on receptors for the neurotransmitter _____.

A) psilocybin

B) serotonin

C) anandamide

D) glycine

Q2) The drug that Sigmund Freud used to fight depression was _____.

A) alcohol

B) heroin

C) Prozac

D) cocaine

Q3) Most of the drugs used to treat schizophrenia block a receptor for _____.

A) dopamine

B) glutamate

C) serotonin

D) acetylcholine

Q4) Which statement is NOT true of antidepressant drugs?

A) They have selective and very specific actions on the brain.

B) They improve chemical transmission in noradrenaline and histamine synapses.

C) It takes several weeks for their users to exhibit antidepressant effects.

D) Their use can result in increased anxiety and memory impairment.

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Chapter 7: Extension: A - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Dynamic imaging technology can record changes in:

A) intelligence.

B) cell structure.

C) skull integrity.

D) brain activity.

Q2) A decrease in the firing rate of a visual cortex neuron in response to a change in stimulus color can be viewed as:

A) a neural code for the new color.

B) always indicating a lack of neural processing of that new color.

C) a da Vinci code for color.

D) a typical code for impending sleep.

Q3) Which of the following techniques provides the MOST specific spatial and temporal information about the relationship between neural function and behavior?

A) positron emission tomography

B) functional magnetic resonance imaging

C) computed tomography

D) single-cell recording

Answer Key

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Chapter 7: Extension: B - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Toga ___

A)Human Connectome Project

B)developed CT scan

C)proposed coherence theory

D)developer of EEG technique

Q2) MRI ___

A)detects neurotransmitter molecules

B)detects subatomic particle annihilation events

C)detects induced magnetic fields from neural activity

D)detects energy emitted by spinning hydrogen ions

Q3) What are some of the experimental uses to which ERP technology can be put?

Q4) beta rhythm ___

A)aroused state

B)relaxed state

C)drowsy state

D)deep sleep

Q5) What distinguishes the ERP technique from standard EEG techniques?

Q6) Describe one static and one dynamic imaging method.

Q7) What are the most desired characteristics of a dynamic imaging system? Which existing technology comes closest to meeting these characteristics?

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Chapter 7: Extension: C - Imaging the Brains Activity

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Q1) Which is NOT an advantage of the PET scan over other imaging methods?

A) The PET scan can detect the decay of a wide range of radiochemicals.

B) The PET scan can detect the density of neurotransmitter receptors or the metabolic activities associated with degenerative processes that might be related to aging.

C) The PET scan can detect the degeneration of myelin that occurs in multiple sclerosis or the degeneration of neurons that occurs in Alzheimer's disease.

D) The PET scan is widely used for the study of cognitive function.

Answer Key

Q2) The _____ method of brain imaging involves spinning hydrogen protons.

A) MEG

B) MRS

C) MRI

D) ERP

Q3) Which method would be MOST practical in evaluating the depth of anesthesia?

A) MRI

B) MEG

C) EEG

D) EKG

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Chapter 8: Extension: A - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Where would an investigator most likely find neurons that are most capable of dealing with information from the whole binocular visual field?

A) the superior colliculus

B) the visual cortex

C) the lateral geniculate nucleus

D) the pulvinar nucleus

Q2) The eardrum marks the boundary between the:

A) outer and middle ear.

B) middle and inner ear.

C) semicircular canals and cochlea.

D) outer ear and the stirrup.

Q3) The area of the somatosensory cortex devoted to an area of the body surface is proportional to the:

A) density of sensory receptors on the area.

B) size of the area relative to the rest of the body.

C) number of somatotopic maps for that region of the body.

D) the number of relay nuclei between the body surface and cortex.

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Chapter 8: Extension: B - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Identify, in correct order, the major connections of the olfactory system from nose to cortex.

Q2) Differentiate between the geniculostriate and tectopulvinar visual systems, functionally and anatomically.

Q3) Compare stimulus frequency and intensity as used by the visual and auditory systems to create perceptions.

Q4) Identify, in correct order, the major connections of the pathway underlying fine touch, pressure, and proprioception from the spinal cord to the cortex.

Q5) superior colliculus ___

A)orientation of head

B)voluntary eye movements

C)pupil size

D)pattern perception

Q6) Why are sensory receptors also termed "transducers"?

Q7) What role does context play in sensory perception?

Q8) Identify, in correct order, the major neural connections of the auditory system from the inner ear to the cortex.

Q9) How might synesthesia occur? (Hint: there is no definitive answer to this one.) Page 27

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Chapter 8: Extension: C - Organization of the Sensory Systems

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Q1) Brodmann's area 41 is associated with which sense?

A) taste

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) audition

Q2) The retina is to seeing as the _____ is to hearing.

A) round window

B) ear drum

C) organ of Corti

D) cochlea

Q3) The axons of ganglion cells form the _____ nerve.

A) auditory

B) olfactory

C) optic

D) sciatic

Q4) Pacinian corpuscles are receptors in the _____ sensory system.

A) balance

B) touch

C) pain

D) kinesthesis

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Chapter 9: Extension: A - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Neurons that respond both when the subject performs an action and when the subject observes the action being performed are called _____ neurons.

A) Renshaw

B) bipolar

C) mirror

D) copycat

Q2) A patient who has difficulty with balance, posture, and coordination would MOST likely have a lesion in the:

A) brainstem motor areas.

B) orbitofrontal cortex.

C) posterior parietal cortex.

D) primary motor areas.

Q3) Corticobulbar fibers project from the motor cortex to the:

A) temporal lobe.

B) olfactory bulb.

C) parietal lobule.

D) brainstem.

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Chapter 9: Extension: B - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Differentiate between the "direct" and "indirect" pathways in the basal ganglia.

Q2) Describe the homunculus as mapped by Penfield. What changes have been made subsequently?

Q3) posterior cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q4) From medial to lateral locations in the cerebellar hemispheres, how do cerebellar neurons encode movements for different body regions?

Q5) premotor cortex ___

A)generation of specific movements

B)planning of movement

C)source of sensory information

D)sequencing of movement

Q6) corticobulbar tract ___

A)synapse directly on muscles

B)control of body midline muscles

C)control of facial muscles

D)control of limbs and digits

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Chapter 9: Extension: C - Organization of the Motor System

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Q1) Damage to neural circuits in the _____ is responsible for the symptoms of Huntington's disease.

A) substantia nigra

B) caudate putamen

C) motor cortex

D) cerebellum

Q2) Which of the following appears to be a part of the role of the cerebellum?

A) planning movements

B) timing movements

C) stopping movements

D) controlling the force of movements

Q3) The technique used by Roland to investigate how the neocortex produces movements was _____.

A) fMRI

B) EEG

C) selective lesions

D) cerebral blood flow

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Chapter 10: Extension: A - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Stepping behavior is coordinated by circuits at the level of the:

A) prefrontal cortex.

B) basal ganglia.

C) cerebellum.

D) spinal cord.

Q2) In contemporary models of cortical function, complex cognitive operations involve:

A) only hierarchical processing from primary to secondary to tertiary cortex.

B) just junctions of adjacent independent cortical processors of specific information.

C) cortical areas acting conjointly through large-scale neural networks.

D) discrete specialized functional units in the prefrontal cortex.

Q3) Maintenance of cortical arousal is one of the putative functions of:

A) nonspecific afferents.

B) nonspecific efferents.

C) specific afferents.

D) specific efferents.

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Chapter 10: Extension: B - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) Name the functional characteristics of the inputs to each of the six neocortical layers.

Q2) What is the anatomical basis for the observation that "spinal" animals are alert but decerebrate animals are not?

Q3) Gamper ___

A)decerebrate animals

B)sensory and motor unit theory

C)distributed hierarchy theory

D)behavior of the mesencephalic child

Q4) Brodmann ___

A)cortical stimulation

B)hierarchical model

C)cortical maps

D)cortical modules

Q5) Name the general anatomical targets of the outputs from each of the six neocortical layers.

Q6) What is meant by the binding problem? What is a proposed solution?

Q7) Distinguish between specific and nonspecific cortical afferents.

Page 34

Q8) What evidence suggests that the basic neural circuitry for walking includes spinal cord reflexes?

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Chapter 10: Extension: C - Principles of Neurocortical Function

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Q1) _____ bring information to an area of the cortex and terminate in relatively discrete cortical regions.

A) Specific afferents

B) Nonspecific afferents

C) Cortical efferents

D) Cortical layers

Q2) Comparing Felleman and van Essen's distributed hierarchical model to Luria's simple serial hierarchical model of cortical processing, Luria's model suggests:

A) areas at each level are interconnected with one another.

B) the pattern of forward and backward connections determines hierarchical position.

C) some connections skip levels.

D) connectivity in sensory cortex is only from primary to secondary to tertiary.

Q3) In Luria's theory of cortical function, the frontal lobe is viewed as the _____.

A) reentry point

B) motor unit

C) sensory register

D) movement lexicon

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Page 36

Chapter 11: Extension: A - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Specialization models of hemispheric function posit:

A) overlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere.

B) identical information-processing roles for each hemisphere.

C) nonoverlapping information-processing roles for each hemisphere.

D) shifting information-processing roles for the two hemispheres.

Q2) When neuropsychologists refer to a function as being lateralized, they mean that the function:

A) is performed most efficiently by a lateral region of the brain.

B) is performed most efficiently by one hemisphere of the brain.

C) can be performed equally well by either hemisphere of the brain.

D) is performed most efficiently in a lateral motion.

Q3) The most pronounced anatomical asymmetries are found in the areas associated with:

A) vision.

B) hearing.

C) language.

D) emotion.

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Chapter 11: Extension: B - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Wilder Penfield and George Ojemann ___

A)planum temporale asymmetry

B)behavior of commissurotomy patients

C)brain stimulation of conscious patients

D)auditory system asymmetry

Q2) What is the basis for Robert Efron's skepticism on the usefulness of laterality research?

Q3) Morse code perception ___

A) if there is typically a right-ear advantage

B) if there is typically a left-ear advantage

C) if there is no ear advantage.

Q4) Kinsbourne and Moscovitch ___

A)interaction model

B)preferred cognitive mode model

C)specialization model

Q5) Discuss how damage to Broca's area in a normal, right - handed individual could differentially affect reading aloud and singing "Happy Birthday."

Q6) gentler slope of Sylvian fissure ___

A) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the left hemisphere

Page 38

B) if the concept refers to an asymmetry characteristic of the right hemisphere.

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Chapter 11: Extension: C - Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Electrical stimulation of the right _____ lobe has produced déjà vu experiences and dreaming states in patients.

A) occipital

B) frontal

C) temporal

D) parietal

Q2) Kimura found evidence for a relationship between speech and hand movements when she observed that right - handed individuals:

A) gestured more with their right hands while speaking.

B) rubbed their noses more with their right hands while speaking.

C) gestured more with their left hands while speaking.

D) rubbed their noses more with their left hands while speaking.

Q3) The tachistoscope is often used to test subjects with respect to _____.

A) motor skills

B) vision

C) memory for nonsense syllables

D) speech production

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Chapter 12: Extension: A - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) Older men and women may benefit cognitively from the administration of:

A) glutamate receptor antagonists.

B) gonadal hormones.

C) stress hormones.

D) placebos

Q2) Annett's genetic theory of handedness proposes _____ among individuals homozygous for the recessive form of the rs gene.

A) a left hemisphere bias

B) a right hemisphere bias

C) no bias for either hemisphere

D) ambidexterity

Q3) Sarah would be expected to have a higher score than Steve on which of the following neuropsychological tests?

A) Chicago Word Fluency

B) Rey Complex Figure

C) Draw-a-Bicycle

D) Rotor Pursuit

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Chapter 12: Extension: B - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) susceptibility to apraxia following left frontal lesions ___

A) if it is truer for males than for females

B) if it is truer for females than for males

C) if there is no reliable sex difference.

Q2) Describe the proposed developmental progression of cerebral asymmetry from the embryonic state through adulthood.

Q3) Describe the laterality of nonhearing people.

Q4) better computational ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q5) What is the relationship between anatomical asymmetry, handedness, and language lateralization?

Q6) greater verbal fluency ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Q7) better target - throwing and catching ability ___

A) if the item is truer for males than for females

B) if the item is truer for females than for males.

Page 41

Q8) Briefly describe some behavioral tests that reliably distinguish between males and females.

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Chapter 12: Extension: C - Variations in Cerebral Asymmetry

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Q1) According to Collins and Kimura, men outperform women at _____.

A) visual recognition memory

B) computation

C) mental rotation

D) fine motor skills

Q2) Which is true for men when compared with women?

A) larger lateral frontal areas

B) greater relative amounts of gray matter

C) more densely packed neurons in the temporal lobe

D) a larger cingulate cortex area

Q3) Environmental deprivation:

A) is not likely to have a long-lasting negative impact on the brain because of brain plasticity.

B) only negatively impacts brain size.

C) only negatively impacts cerebral organization.

D) can negatively impact both cerebral organization and brain size.

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Chapter 13: Extension: A - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Patients with a left homonymous hemianopia often show sparing of left field vision from the _____ in both eyes.

A) superior parafovea

B) inferior parafovea

C) fovea

D) periphery

Q2) As seen in subject B.K., preceding his stroke and development of a lasting scotoma, he had a history of _____ in which the aura was usually a(n) _____ .

A) epilepsy; olfactory hallucination

B) classic migraine; auditory hallucination

C) epilepsy; lightheadedness

D) classic migraine; left visual field defect

Q3) Alexia can be considered to be due to:

A) object agnosia for living things.

B) object agnosia for human faces.

C) object agnosia for letters and words.

D) synesthesia for letters and words.

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Chapter 13: Extension: B - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) prosopagnosia ___

A)inability to recognize faces

B)inability to recognize objects

C)inability to see more than one object at a time

D)inability to see due to naturally occurring lack of photoreceptors

Q2) What is meant by the term "blindsight"? Give an example from one or more of the case studies given.

Q3) monocular blindness ___

A)one optic nerve

B)medial visual cortex

C)one optic tract

D)optic chiasm

Q4) Characterize the dorsal stream and the ventral stream in the Milner-Goodale model of cortical organization.

Q5) Why are small scotomas often unnoticed by persons with them?

Q6) What brain pathways may underlie blindsight?

Q7) Distinguish between "vision for action" and "action for vision."

Q8) What is a scotoma? What do such phenomena tell us about the organization of the visual system?

Q9) Distinguish between allocentric space and egocentric space. Page 44

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Chapter 13: Extension: C - The Occipital Lobes

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Q1) Which visual function is a function of the dorsal stream regions?

A) body analysis

B) object-directed grasping

C) analysis of landmarks

D) analysis of biological motion

Q2) Neurons devoted to the perception of _____ are widespread, and their function is believed to be integral to the analysis of other features such as shape and motion.

A) position

B) size

C) depth

D) color

Q3) Apperceptive agnosia is usually related to damage in the _____.

A) lateral occipital lobes

B) bilateral calcarine fissure

C) lateral geniculate nucleus

D) anterior temporal lobe

Answer Key

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Chapter 14: Extension: A - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Which of the following is more likely to be seen in subjects with left parietal lobe lesions?

A) paper cutting disability

B) more mistakes in Weigl's sorting test

C) unilateral neglect

D) cube counting errors

Q2) Activity within the human medial parietal region is important for:

A) spatial navigation ability.

B) discriminative touch.

C) object recognition.

D) guided reaching.

Q3) The supramarginal gyrus and angular gyrus make up the:

A) superior parietal lobe.

B) inferior parietal lobe.

C) primary somatosensory cortex.

D) postcentral gyrus.

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Chapter 14: Extension: B - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) blind touch ___

A)indifference to illness

B)ability to point to touched area despite lack of conscious perception of the touch

C)finger clumsiness due to lost sensory feedback

D)failure to perceive one of two similar stimuli presented simultaneously

Q2) What are the symptoms that constitute Gerstmann syndrome? Why, do you suppose, these symptoms appear together following parietal damage?

Q3) increased somatosensory thresholds ___

A)areas PF and PG of the left hemisphere

B)area PG of the right hemisphere

C)area PE

D)contralateral areas 1, 2, and 3

Q4) Describe two important characteristics that all posterior parietal lobe neurons have in common with one another based upon studies of monkeys noted by Stein in 1992.

Q5) Describe the proposed hemispheric asymmetry of function in the performance of spatial cognition tasks.

Q6) Describe the two stages of recovery of contralateral neglect.

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Chapter 14: Extension: C - The Parietal Lobes

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Q1) Which is NOT one of the symptoms associated with Balint's syndrome?

A) the inability to fixate on specific visual stimuli

B) the field of attention being limited to one object at a time

C) the inability to name colors

D) the inability to make visually guided movements

Q2) Which is NOT one of the classic symptoms of Gerstmann syndrome?

A) finger agnosia

B) apraxia

C) agraphia

D) acalculia

Q3) The task to test for simultaneous extinction presents:

A) visual stimuli to the right visual field.

B) tactile stimuli one at a time to the right hand.

C) two tactile stimuli simultaneously, one to each hand.

D) two visual stimuli simultaneously, both in the right visual field.

Q4) Contralateral neglect is commonly found after damage to _____.

A) areas PE and PG in the left hemisphere

B) area PG in the right hemisphere

C) area PE

D) areas PE and PF

Page 49

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Chapter 15: Extension: A - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) The ability to understand the intentions of others from their movements and expressions is known as:

A) theory of personality.

B) intuition

C) extrasensory perception.

D) theory of mind.

Q2) Neurons in the middle temporal gyrus project to neurons in the opposite hemisphere by way of the:

A) corpus callosum.

B) anterior commissure.

C) perforant pathway.

D) inferior temporal gyrus.

Q3) To perform well on the McGill Picture - Anomalies Test, the subject must make use of: A) visual discrimination.

B) stimulus categorization.

C) contextual cues.

D) cross-modal matching.

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Chapter 15: Extension: B - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) List five of the principal symptoms associated with temporal - lobe dysfunction and the hemisphere with which the symptom is specifically associated.

Q2) amygdala ___

A)fearful states

B)visual input

C)social cognition

D)taste perception

Q3) Consider a group of friends gathered together to watch a movie. Which cortical regions would you expect to show the most similar patterns of activity across the different individuals, and which regions show the most divergent patterns of activity? What might be the implications of these activity patterns for perceptual experiences?

Q4) Your patient has a lesion of the left temporal lobe and complains that people "talk too fast." Explain.

Q5) What is the relationship between the stimuli that most strongly activate neurons in the STS and the construct of social cognition?

Q6) What evidence is there that the response of inferotemporal lobe neurons in the monkey brain can be modified by experience?

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Page 51

Chapter 15: Extension: C - The Temporal Lobes

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Q1) Projections from the temporal lobe to the _____ are thought to be primarily involved in movement control, short - term memory, and affect.

A) frontal lobe

B) amygdala

C) occipital lobe

D) hypothalamus

Q2) Which area in the temporal lobe is responsible for cross - modal matching, the ability to associate stimuli from two or more sensory modalities as emanating from the same source (e.g., the physical appearance of a dog and the sound of its bark)?

A) TE

B) area 41

C) Wernicke's area

D) the superior temporal sulcus

Q3) Difficulty in understanding words is a common symptom of damage to _____. A) the hippocampus

B) areas 41 and 42

C) area 22 on the left side

D) the insula on the left side

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Chapter 16: Extension: A - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Impairments in the ability to understand proverbs are MOST pronounced in subjects with:

A) right unilateral prefrontal cortex lesions.

B) bilateral lesions of the medial temporal cortex.

C) bilateral lesions of the prefrontal cortex.

D) left unilateral prefrontal cortex lesions.

Q2) Abnormalities in the dopamine - containing projection from the brain stem to the frontal cortex are believed by many scientists to be involved in:

A) epilepsy.

B) major depressive disorder.

C) anterograde amnesia.

D) schizophrenia.

Answer Key

Q3) Regions of the orbitofrontal cortex that are active in response to unpleasant environmental stimuli are MOST strongly connected to the:

A) amygdala and thalamus.

B) amygdala and hypothalamus.

C) hippocampus and thalamus.

D) hippocampus and insula.

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Page 53

Chapter 16: Extension: B - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) Relate the effects of frontal - lobe lesions on the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test (WCST) to the effects of such lesions on social behavior.

Q2) poor voluntary control of gaze ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q3) convergent thinking ___

A)Wisconsin Card-Sorting test

B)standard IQ test

C)Word-Fluency test

D)delayed nonmatching to sample

Q4) loss of fine movements ___

A)Broca's area

B)the orbital cortex

C)the primary motor cortex

D)frontal eye fields

Q5) Describe the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test and the Stroop test. What aspect of cognition appears to be responsible for performance on these tasks?

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Chapter 16: Extension: C - The Frontal Lobes

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Q1) The dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus projects to the region of the frontal lobe called the _____.

A) Broca's area

B) frontal eye field

C) prefrontal cortex

D) premotor cortex

Q2) Poor working memory as a result of frontal - lobe damage is usually because of damage in _____.

A) the orbital cortex

B) the frontal eye fields

C) left area 44

D) the dorsolateral cortex

Q3) Damage to _____ is associated with altered sexual behavior.

A) areas 8 and 9

B) the dorsolateral prefrontal area

C) the orbital prefrontal area

D) area 44

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Chapter 17: Extension: A - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Mishkin and his colleagues have extended the study of cortical disconnection to:

A) animal models using monkeys.

B) human split-brain subjects.

C) animal models using rats and mice.

D) computer simulations of behavior.

Q2) Imaging studies of subject M.C. have shown that, following callosotomy, there is _____ to the site of sensory stimulation.

A) increased neural activity ipsilateral

B) increased neural activity contralateral

C) decreased neural activity ipsilateral

D) decreased neural activity contralateral

Q3) Damage to the body (middle region) of the corpus callosum would MOST likely impair a subject's ability to:

A) match left and right limb position with eyes closed.

B) use external cues to control impulsive behavior.

C) read aloud words presented selectively to the right hemisphere.

D) name an odor presented to the right nostril.

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Page 56

Chapter 17: Extension: B - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) Discuss the ability of a blindfolded commissurotomy patient to verbally identify three - dimensional objects placed into either the left or right hand.

Q2) Mishkin ___

A)constructed animal models of disconnection syndromes

B)hypothetized conduction aphasia

C)studied "split-brain" patients

D)defined disconnection syndromes

Q3) acopia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q4) anosmia ___

A)lack of sense of smell

B)inability to make coordinated voluntary movements

C)difficulty copying geometric designs

D)inability to read

Q5) Describe the three general classes of projections of corpus callosal fibers.

Q7) Explain the effects of early musical training on brain connectivity. Page 57

Q6) What is meant by the term topographic with respect to callosal organization?

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Chapter 17: Extension: C - Cortical Networks and Disconnection Syndromes

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Q1) _____ is the name of the aphasic syndrome that is the result of a disconnection between the anterior and posterior speech zones.

A) Conduction aphasia

B) Broca's aphasia

C) Wernicke's aphasia

D) Production aphasia

Q2) The anterior portion of the corpus callosum is called the _____.

A) splenium

B) uncinate

C) rostrum

D) genu

Q3) Geschwind hypothesized that individuals who show right - hand apraxia have damage to which region or regions of the brain?

A) the corpus callosum and the anterior commissure

B) the basal ganglia, especially the globus pallidus

C) the area that connects language areas and the motor cortex in the left hemisphere

D) the arcuate fasciculus and Broca's area

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Page 59

Chapter 18: Extension: A - Learning and Memory

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Q1) The anatomical model of implicit memory proposed by the authors supports a central role for the:

A) premotor cortex.

B) ventral thalamus.

C) substantia nigra.

D) basal ganglia.

Q2) H.M. would have the greatest difficulty answering questions about:

A) his name and childhood home address.

B) what he ate for breakfast this morning.

C) the number of days in the month of June.

D) the name of his first grade teacher.

Q3) Memory impairments observed in amnesic individuals are MOST commonly observed in the domain of:

A) classical conditioning.

B) perceptual priming.

C) skills memory.

D) declarative memory.

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Chapter 18: Extension: B - Learning and Memory

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Q1) What is system consolidation? What is its relation to memory reconsolidation?

Q2) recurring nonsense syllables ___

A) if it is more disrupted by left hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more disrupted by right hemisphere lesions

C) if there is no discernible difference between left and right hemisphere lesions on performance of the task.

Q3) Describe the general course of Alzheimer's disease in terms of memory difficulties and related affected brain regions.

Q4) What is the evidence to support the concept of short - term memory as distinct from other forms of memory?

Q5) perirhinal cortex ___

A)episodic memory

B)confabulation

C)emotional coloring

D)recognition memory

Q6) Discuss the relationship of emotional memories with explicit and implicit memories.

Q7) Characterize the differences between left and right temporal lobe damage with respect to amnesic symptoms.

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Chapter 18: Extension: C - Learning and Memory

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Q1) Which question would be most difficult for H.M. to answer correctly?

A) What was your mother's maiden name?

B) How many days are there in 3 weeks?

C) Did you have any visitors the day before yesterday?

D) What is the sum of 6 plus 12?

Q2) The patient known as H.M. shows memory performance equal to that of normal control subjects in memory studies that include which manipulation?

A) visual search

B) spatial learning

C) mood congruence

D) priming

Q3) The first evidence that the temporal lobes had a role in memory was provided by _____.

A) Ebbinghaus

B) Lashley

C) Bekhterev

D) Scoville

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Chapter 19: Extension: A - Language

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Q1) Several lines of evidence suggest that humans developed spoken language in the last:

A) 20 million years.

B) 200,000 years.

C) 2 million years.

D) 30,000 years.

Q2) Results of imaging studies have led to the conclusion that verb generation is:

A) solely a function of Broca's area.

B) solely a function of the temporal cortex.

C) associated with activity in both the frontal and temporal cortex.

D) mediated by networks in the right hemisphere.

Q3) A patient who has difficulty finding words and has laborious, slow, and halting speech is showing signs of:

A) nonfluent aphasia.

B) fluent aphasia.

C) transcortical syndrome.

D) word deafness.

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Chapter 19: Extension: B - Language

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Q1) With regards to the dual language model, compare and contrast the roles of the dorsal and ventral language pathways

Q2) Your patient has undergone a right hemispherectomy to remove cancerous tissue. What symptoms should the patient and the family expect?

Q3) Distinguish, on the basis of the type of language errors produced, among fluent aphasia, nonfluent aphasia, and word deafness.

Q4) noun recognition - naming ___

A)left inferofrontal cortex

B)left inferotemporal cortex

C)Broca's area

D)left visual cortex

Q5) How does the dual - route theory account for deep and surface dyslexia subtypes? Answer Key

Q6) How would you answer a beginning psychology student who asks, "Where in the brain is language localized?"

Q7) About how long ago did human language develop? Gather the evidence for your answer.

Q8) What is "Yerkish"? Is it really a language? If so, why? If not, why not?

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Chapter 19: Extension: C - Language

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Q1) The smallest meaningful units of a word are called _____.

A) morphemes

B) lexicals

C) vowels

D) phonemes

Q2) _____ may refer to a disorder of language apparent in speech, in writing (in this case also called _____), or in reading (also called _____), produced by injury to brain areas specialized for these functions.

A) Dysthymia; dyslexia; Wernicke's syndrome

B) Aphasia; agraphia; alexia

C) Agnosia; prosopagnosia; global aphasia

D) Akinetopsia; achromatopsia; dyslexia

Q3) The language disorder known as "word deafness" falls under which of the headings of aphasic syndromes listed in the text?

A) fluent aphasias

B) pure aphasias

C) dyslexic aphasias

D) afluent aphasias

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Chapter 20: Extension: A - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) The observation that laboratory - bred and - reared rats show fear responses when exposed to the odor of fox urine is evidence for:

A) the high emotionality of laboratory rats.

B) a heritable genetic component to emotional behavior.

C) the ability of rats to rapidly learn stimulus-response associations.

D) the need to keep foxes out of research laboratories.

Q2) Which of the following symptoms was observed in the person suffering from KlüverBucy syndrome who was studied by Marlowe and colleagues?

A) flat affect

B) hyperexcitability

C) aphasia

D) alexia

Q3) Results from the earliest experiments studying the neural bases of emotion supported an important role for the:

A) thalamus and hypothalamus in the expression of emotion.

B) idea that emotional expression is subject to evolution just like other traits.

C) existence of a limbic lobe where emotion is experienced.

D) idea that the frontal lobes participate in emotional control.

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Chapter 20: Extension: B - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) "catastrophic" reaction ___

A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.

Q2) frequency of aprosodia ___

A) if the behavior listed is more likely to be impaired by left-hemisphere lesions

B) if it is more likely to be impaired by right-hemisphere lesions.

Q3) Klüver and Bucy ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q4) Goltz ___

A)emotions relation to logical thinking

B)rage responses in decorticate dogs

C)behavioral effects of hypothalamic stimulation in cats

D)behavioral effects of temporal lobe lesions in monkeys

Q5) Identify the major contribution to the study of emotion for the following individuals: Papez, Klüver and Bucy, and Gainotti.

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Chapter 20: Extension: C - Emotion and the Social Brain

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Q1) Which is more characteristic of right - hemisphere damage than of left - hemisphere damage?

A) judgment of propositional affect

B) comprehension of verbal humor

C) matching emotional expressions

D) judgment of emotional expressions

Q2) Damasio's somatic marker hypothesis of emotion is strongly influenced by the early psychologist _____.

A) William James

B) Wilhelm Wundt

C) Sigmund Freud

D) Hermann Ebbinghaus

Q3) In nonhuman primates who have had frontal lobe lesions, which is NOT an identified behavioral change?

A) loss of social dominance

B) increased vocalization

C) altered social preference

D) reduced affect

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Chapter 21: Extension: A - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) A patient who experiences no difficulties finding her way around the home where she lived for most of her adult life but becomes spatially disoriented in her most recent home can be said to be suffering from _____ disorientation.

A) retrograde

B) egocentric

C) anterograde

D) allocentric

Q2) The mental representation of the parts of the environment beyond one's outstretched fingers is referred to as a:

A) cognitive map of body space.

B) cognitive map of grasping space.

C) cognitive map of distal space.

D) cognitive map of time space.

Q3) The ability to use self - movement cues to judge speed, time, and travel direction is essential for the form of navigation known as:

A) route following.

B) place learning.

C) piloting.

D) dead reckoning.

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Chapter 21: Extension: B - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) What are the main symptoms of Bálint's syndrome?

Q2) egocentric disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

Q3) Discuss the role of the parietal lobe in spatial discriminations.

Q4) What are the four ways in which animals may represent space relative to themselves?

Q5) What is the relationship between hippocampal size and food storing in birds?

Q6) O'Keefe ___

A)head-direction cells

B)parietal lobe role in spatial memory

C)frontal lobe role in spatial memory

D)hippocampal place cells

Q7) heading disorientation ___

A)inability to determine a direction of movement

B)inability to use prominent environmental features for orientation

C)difficulty perceiving the relative location of objects with respect to self

D)inability to remember topographic relations among landmarks

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Chapter 21: Extension: C - Spatial Behavior

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Q1) The form of topographic disorientation in which individuals cannot use prominent environmental features for orientation is called _____.

A) topographic amnesia

B) landmark agnosia

C) egocentric disorientation

D) geographic amnesia

Q2) Which is NOT a type of cell discovered in the hippocampus and thought to play a role in spatial behavior?

A) complex

B) grid

C) head direction

D) place

Q3) A relative inability to shift visual attention is characteristic of _____ syndrome and usually involves damage to the _____ lobe.

A) Zangwill's; parietal

B) Bálint's; temporal

C) Bálint's; parietal

D) Holmes's; frontal

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Chapter 22: Extension: A - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) It appears that complex brains need "organizing" processes to help govern behavior. The authors suggest that, in the human brain, the most evolved organizer is:

A) language.

B) consciousness.

C) memory.

D) auditory.

Q2) Kolb and Whishaw suggest that when we multitask, we recruit additional resources from which brain region?

A) the parietal cortex

B) the prefrontal cortex

C) the hippocampus

D) the occipital lobe

Q3) If a monkey is required to pay attention to the color and form of a stimulus in particular, Corbetta and colleagues found that _____ cortex(ices) is(are) activated.

A) the parietal

B) the occipitotemporal

C) both the parietal and occipitotemporal

D) neither the parietal nor the occipitotemporal

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Chapter 22: Extension: B - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) attention to location

A)area V4

B)anterior cingulate

C)areas V3 and TE

D)parietal cortex

Q2) attention in area TE ___

A)Treisman

B)Moran and Desimone

C)Kahneman

D)Posner and Petersen

Q3) What is "attentional blink"?

Q4) Why does finding a target with an extra feature take less time than finding one that lacks a common feature?

Q5) Cite evidence that attention is not a "thing in a place" in the brain.

Q6) Define "bottom - up" processing and "top - down" processing. Give an example of each.

Q7) Which processes are critical for consciousness?

Q8) What evidence did Jeannerod and colleagues find regarding the dissociation between behavior and awareness?

Q9) What constitutes a feature? Page 73

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Chapter 22: Extension: C - Attention and Consciousness

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Q1) In Moran and Desimone's experiment, attentional effects were observed _____.

A) only if the monkey had to reach for an object

B) in all visual areas studied

C) in area V1

D) in area TE

Q2) All of the following are processes believed to be prerequisites for consciousness

EXCEPT:

A) arousal.

B) attention.

C) working memory.

D) language.

Q3) There are several diffuse regions associated with consciousness. Koubeissi and colleagues, using deep brain stimulation methodology, identified which structure as being critical to coordinating the activity among these regions?

A) the claustrum

B) the insula

C) the posterior cingulate

D) the anterior cingulate

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Chapter 23: Extension: A - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Dendrite growth differs from axonal growth in that:

A) axons grow much faster than dendrites in order to play a role in shaping dendritic growth.

B) axons grow much faster than dendrites in order to reach a larger maximum size.

C) dendrites grow much faster than axons in order to play a role in shaping axonal growth.

D) dendrites grow much faster than axons in order to reach a larger maximum size.

Q2) Hubel and Wiesel sewed a kitten's eye shut for a time. After the eye was allowed to open again it:

A) was essentially blind.

B) had improved visual acuity.

C) showed no change.

D) led to abnormal cell activation.

Q3) In humans, synaptic density is greatest at about age:

A) 2 months.

B) 12 months.

C) 6 years.

D) 16 years.

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Chapter 23: Extension: B - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) Hubel and Wiesel ___

A)speech lateralization

B)ocular dominance columns

C)myelination index

D)cognitive development

Q2) What evidence from rats indicates that pregnant mothers should have access to stimulating environments?

Q3) What are the effects on language of early - onset lesions (prior to age 15 years of age) to the left hemisphere, compared with similar lesions in adults (20 years of age and over)?

Q4) What brain abnormalities have been found in children with ADHD?

Q5) Identify the five phases of synapse formation in the cerebral cortex of primates as proposed by Bourgeois.

Q6) What are the effects on visual cortical neurons of monocular deprivation during the early life of kittens?

Q7) Why is cell death such an important part of the development of the brain?

Q8) What are Piaget's four stages of cognitive development? Briefly characterize each stage.

Q9) What is the role of radial glial cells in neuron cell migration?

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Chapter 23: Extension: C - Brain Development and Plasticity

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Q1) The Piaget stage of cognitive development, characterized by the ability to reason abstractly, is called the _____ stage and occurs around the age(s) of _____.

A) formal operational; 12

B) concrete operational; 12

C) formal operational; 7 to 11

D) concrete operational; 7 to 11

Q2) In primates, puberty is marked by a _____.

A) stabilization of existing synapses

B) rapid increase in the number of synapses

C) rapid loss of synapses

D) change in the location of many synapses

Q3) Which is the last to occur in the development of the brain?

A) cell maturation

B) cell migration

C) synaptogenesis

D) myelogenesis

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Chapter 24: Extension: A - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) Although controversial, the stimulant Ritalin is widely used in the treatment of:

A) dyslexia.

B) autism.

C) cerebral palsy.

D) hyperactivity.

Q2) Which is NOT considered to be a primary cause of reading disabilities?

A) auditory deficiency

B) phonological deficiency

C) attentional deficiency

D) sensory deficiency

Q3) Impairments seen in children with autism in learning various motor skills and conditioned responses may be related MOST closely to abnormalities in the _____ of these individuals.

A) cerebellum

B) hippocampus

C) frontal lobe

D) temporal cortex

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Chapter 24: Extension: B - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) savant ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q2) What are some early signs that a child may have an autism spectrum disorder?

Q3) How is attention - deficit/hyperactivity disorder distinguished from other types of learning disabilities?

Q4) hyperlexia ___

A)precocious reading

B)ACID

C)isolated cognitive skills

D)extreme social withdrawal

Q5) What does the research of Tallal suggest is a leading cause of learning disabilities?

Q6) What is the ACID profile? What does it show regarding learning - disabled children?

Q7) Distinguish between graphemic and phonological reading. Give an example of each.

Q8) What is the birthday effect?

Q9) According to DSM - 5, what are the main diagnostic criteria of ADHD?

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Chapter 24: Extension: C - Neurodevelopmental Disorders

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Q1) _____ is the most common behavioral disturbance in children; it is characterized in part by impulsive behavior.

A) Hyperactivity

B) Autism

C) Fetal alcohol syndrome

D) Cerebral palsy

Q2) _____ is a term describing unusual reading ability in otherwise cognitively impaired persons, such as children with autism.

A) Hypsography

B) Hyperlexia

C) Hypergraphia

D) Hypolexia

Q3) Normal readers can discriminate between two auditory stimuli separated by intervals as brief as _____ milliseconds.

A) 100

B) 60

C) 10

D) 250

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Chapter 25: Extension: A - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) The variable NOT influencing recovery from brain damage is:

A) handedness.

B) intelligence.

C) attitude.

D) stress.

Q2) Research suggests that for rehabilitation of brain - damaged patients, practice in the use of the affected body parts should be:

A) gentle and in small amounts.

B) extensive.

C) avoided, with emphasis on using nonaffected limbs.

D) supervised by trained professionals.

Q3) Teuber found, in his study of brain - damaged vets, that the poorest recovery rates were in those soldiers who suffered:

A) motor deficits.

B) visual field deficits.

C) dysphasia.

D) somatosensory deficits.

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Chapter 25: Extension: B - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) The authors list four major therapeutic approaches to brain damage. What are they?

Q2) Why do the authors of the textbook call compensation the "problem of the threelegged cat"?

Q3) Pantev et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q4) What is the relationship between the complexity of behavioral function and the complexity of dendritic arborization associated with that function? Give an example.

Q5) What evidence is there that the response to adapting prisms causes actual synaptic changes in the brain?

Q6) Jacobs et al. ___

A)musical scale in musicians

B)grasp techniques

C)human synapse

D)focal hand dystonia

Q7) What is LTP?

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Chapter 25: Extension: C - Plasticity, Recovery, and Rehabilitation of the Adult Brain

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Q1) Among the changes that take place following a stroke, which is the last to appear?

A) inflammation

B) mRNA stimulation

C) ionic changes

D) protein production

Q2) The type of therapeutic intervention that is directed toward improving a patient's daily difficulty in finding their way home would be?

A) cognitive rehabilitation

B) behavioral remediation

C) movement therapy

D) social interaction

Q3) _____ is the loss of motor control of one or more digits because of increased muscle tone.

A) Focal hand dystonia

B) Long-term potentiation

C) Metaplasticity

D) Kindling

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Chapter 26: Extension: A - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) A feeling or sensation that a seizure is about to take place is called a(n):

A) symptomatic seizure.

B) idiopathic seizure.

C) aura.

D) automatism.

Q2) Multiple sclerosis has its MOST devastating effects on:

A) cholinergic synapses.

B) myelin.

C) immature neurons.

D) the substantia nigra.

Q3) Myasthenia gravis is due to an insufficiency of:

A) acetylcholine receptors.

B) cholinesterase.

C) immune system cells.

D) dopamine.

Q4) Contrecoup damage is the result of:

A) closed-head injuries.

B) open-head injuries.

C) infections.

D) aneurysms.

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Chapter 26: Extension: B - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Babinski sign ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q2) Identify the types of secondary - brain injury that can occur with closed - head injuries.

Q3) cataplexy ___

A)unilateral section of spinal cord

B)not breathing during sleep

C)extensor plantar response

D)emotional excitement

Q4) tardive dyskinesia ___

A)slow, persistent movements

B)involuntary jerky movements

C)muscle tone absent

D)muscular rigidity

Q5) Describe the normal and abnormal Babinski sign. What does an abnormal adult sign indicate?

Q6) What is the difference between an angioma and an aneurysm?

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Chapter 26: Extension: C - Neurological Disorders

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Q1) Identify the sleep disorder that is characterized by various unpleasant sensations in the legs, including pain, crawling, tingling, and pulling.

A) central sleep apnea

B) Willis-Ekbom disease

C) cataplexy

D) sleep paralysis

Q2) A clot or other plug that is brought through the blood to a point where it blocks a smaller blood vessel is called an _____.

A) embolism

B) aneurysm

C) infarct

D) ischemia

Q3) Brain tumors referred to as "encapsulated" are characterized by which of the following?

A) The tumor has not infiltrated the healthy brain tissue.

B) The tumor has produced displacement of brain structures due to compression.

C) The tumor was the result of a metastasis.

D) The tumor resulted from glial cells that infiltrated the brain substance.

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Chapter 27: Extension: A - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Parkinson's patients are sometimes referred to as having a "disease of the will."

Which of the following symptoms is MOST closely related to this idea?

A) tremor at rest

B) involuntary movements

C) festination

D) muscular rigidity

Q2) ACTH is released from the:

A) hypothalamus.

B) pituitary gland.

C) adrenal cortex.

D) adrenal medulla.

Q3) Evidence regarding disorganization of the brain in schizophrenics lends support to the concept of schizophrenia as a(n) _____ disorder.

A) incurable

B) childhood

C) mental

D) developmental

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Chapter 27: Extension: B - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) Moorhead ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q2) Since both schizophrenia and Tourette's syndrome respond to dopamine blockers to some degree, how would you, as a neuropsychologist, make the differential diagnosis on a 14 - year - old child showing bizarre behavioral symptoms?

Q3) Distinguish between type I and type II schizophrenia, according to the text.

Q4) Moniz ___

A)modern psychosurgery

B)cognitive behavioral therapy

C)Parkinson's disease

D)bipolar disorder

Q5) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Parkinson's disease?

Q6) According to the textbook, what three factors make the sensitization model of bipolar disorder intriguing for understanding bipolar disorder?

Q7) What are the five putative causes of Alzheimer's disease, based on the text?

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Q8) What are the symptoms and underlying brain changes in Huntington's chorea?

Chapter 27: Extension: C - Psychiatric and Related Disorders

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Q1) The positive symptoms of Parkinson's disease include all of the following EXCEPT _____.

A) tremor at rest

B) disorders of posture

C) muscular rigidity

D) involuntary movements

Q2) Examination of the Wisconsin Card - Sorting Test with schizophrenics suggests abnormalities in _____.

A) motor programming

B) prefrontal cortex structure and function

C) visual processing

D) dopamine metabolism

Q3) Which symptom of Parkinson's disease can manifest as a lack of blinking, blank facial expression, difficulty making repetitive movements, or the absence of rigidity?

A) akinesia

B) disorder of locomotion

C) disorder of righting

D) disturbance of speech

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Chapter 28: Extension: A - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The mean IQ score on the FSIQ is:

A)50.

B)80.

C)100.

D)120.

Q2) Which is NOT a goal of assessment in clinical neuropsychology?

A) diagnosing the presence or absence of brain damage

B) facilitating patient care

C) identifying unusual brain organization

D) classifying disorders.

Q3) Undermanaged health care clinicians are often pressured to:

A) perform many unnecessary tests.

B) eliminate imaging techniques.

C) reduce the number of tests given.

D) reduce comorbidity of disorders.

Q4) The Halstead-Reitan Battery was designed primarily for the purpose of:

A) identifying psychiatric disorders.

B) assessing brain damage.

C) testing for specific cognitive disabilities.

D) finding a definitive test of mental retardation.

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Chapter 28: Extension: B - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) Discuss how right - versus left - hemisphere damage would likely affect performance and verbal scores on the Weschler Scales.

Q2) Identify four of the tests for language functions in the Boston Process Approach.

Q3) What are Groth - Marnat's four suggestions for psychologists dealing with managed health care?

Q4) self - control ___

A)finger tapping

B)consonant trigrams test

C)Wide Range Achievement Test

D)cow-and-circle test

Q5) Identify four of the tests for memory functions in the Boston Process Approach.

Q6) conceptual functions ___

A)Proteus Maze Test

B)Rey Complex-Figure Test

C)automobile puzzle

D)Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q7) Why is postinjury intelligence testing not necessarily useful?

Q8) What are some of the difficulties in creating "norms" for any test of brain damage?

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Chapter 28: Extension: C - Neuropsychological Assessment

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Q1) The authors suggest that the biggest change in neuropsychology since the 1980s has been the development of _____.

A) better psychiatric drugs

B) functional imaging

C) better paper-and-pencil tests

D) increased treatment of those suffering from psychological disorders.

Q2) Which is NOT a composite - type test?

A) Benton's neuropsychological investigation

B) Oxford neuropsychological procedures

C) Western Ontario procedures

D) the Luria-Nebraska Battery

Q3) The MOST sensitive measure of malingering is the _____.

A) Forced Choice Digit Memory Test

B) Wechsler Memory Scale III

C) Stroop Test

D) Wisconsin Card-Sorting Test

Q4) Warrington and her colleagues found that lesions of the _____ hemisphere depress verbal IQs.

A) left

B) right

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