Health Promotion and Nutrition
Chapter Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health Promotion and Nutrition examines the principles and practices that foster individual and community health through nutrition and lifestyle choices. This course explores the role of food, nutrients, and dietary patterns in maintaining health and preventing disease. Students will learn about evidence-based health promotion strategies, behavior change theories, and effective communication approaches to support healthy eating and wellness initiatives. Emphasis is placed on understanding the social, cultural, and environmental factors influencing nutrition, and on developing skills to design and evaluate health promotion programs that encourage sustainable, positive health behaviors.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 5th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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1975 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to the USDA Food Patterns, someone who needs 2000 kcal/day should consume _____ cup(s) of milk or the equivalent in milk products each day.
A)one
B)two
C)three
D)four
E)five
Answer: C
Q2) A product featuring a qualified health claim on its label:
A)must have the highest degree of scientific support for that claim.
B)must provide an insert with a detailed explanation of the scientific support backing the claim.
C)cannot be sold.
D)must bear a statement explaining the degree of scientific evidence backing the claim.
Answer: D
Q3) Provide a rationale for the following statement: "Too much meat is just as fattening as too many potatoes."
Answer: not answered
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3
Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the role of the stomach in the process of digestion.
Answer: not answered
Q2) The movement of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine is regulated by the:
A)pancreas.
B)pyloric sphincter.
C)ileocecal valve.
D)duodenum.
Answer: B
Q3) Which nutrients must be broken down in order to be absorbed?
A)vitamins, minerals, water
B)carbohydrate, vitamins, minerals
C)fat, protein, minerals
D)carbohydrate, protein, fat
Answer: D
Q4) Outline and trace the path food follows through the digestive tract from one end to the other.
Answer: not answered
Q5) Explain what determines the rate of digestion of the energy nutrients.
Answer: not answered
4
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Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) Soluble fibers are found in:
A)celery, wheat bran, and corn.
B)kidney beans, apples, and oatmeal.
C)corn, apples, and sunflower seeds.
D)celery, soybeans, and bran flakes.
Answer: B
Q2) Which of the following fibers is a nonpolysaccharide?
A)cellulose
B)lignin
C)pectin
D)gum
Answer: B
Q3) A client consumes 2000 kcalories per day and 200 grams of carbohydrate.This person meets the current dietary recommendations for carbohydrate intake.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) What is blood glucose homeostasis, and how is it achieved within the body?
Answer: not answered
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fatty acids are packaged with _____ to make a triglyceride.
A)glycerol
B)glycogen
C)glucose
D)sucrose
Q2) Which of the following foods does not contain cholesterol?
A)eggs
B)cheese
C)milk
D)peanut butter
Q3) Which of the following contains the softest fat?
A)butter
B)chicken fat
C)beef tallow
D)lard
Q4) Characteristics of olestra include all of the following except:
A)it is made with sucrose.
B)it cannot be absorbed by the body.
C)it is used in some snack foods.
D)it can be toxic.
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) How many grams of protein are in a 6-ounce serving of rib eye steak?
A)18
B)24
C)42
D)60
Q2) The protein RDA for adults is _____ gram(s) per kilogram of body weight.
A)0.4
B)0.5
C)0.8
D)1.0
E)2.0
Q3) Differentiate between severe acute malnutrition and chronic malnutrition.
Q4) Describe the role of protein in maintaining the body's acid-base balance.
Q5) Discuss the factors that determine protein quality.What makes a protein "high quality"?
Q6) The protein requirement of a child as compared to an adult is:
A)approximately the same.
B)higher.
C)much lower.
D)dependent on the activity level of the child.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these popular diets comes closest to meeting dietary standards for health?
A)Cinch!
B)Atkins Diet
C)Zone Diet
D)Dukan Diet
Q2) Which of the following individuals would be classified as being very active?
A)a carpenter
B)a teacher
C)a football player
D)a gardener
Q3) Define the thermic effect of food and explain its effect on energy expenditure.
Q4) Despite claims that each new fad diet is different and offers a new approach to weight loss, most fad diets
A)cut kcalories.
B)eliminate animal foods.
C)encourage skipping meals.
D)are individualized.
Q5) Explain why less fat may be lost during fasting than is lost when at least some food is supplied.
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Chapter 7: Weight Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) Discuss the pros and cons of gastric bypass and gastric banding surgeries for weight loss.
Q2) Lucie is practicing good cognitive skills for weight loss when she tells herself:
A)"I shouldn't have eaten that ice cream yesterday...no wonder I'm fat."
B)"I was able to walk on the treadmill 15 minutes longer today than I could 2 weeks ago...my fitness level is improving."
C)"I really, really want to lose weight; I just can't seem to succeed no matter how hard I try."
D)"I need to remember to stop by the grocery store and pick up some more fresh vegetables for salads, and some light vinaigrette."
Q3) The best form of physical activity for a person who is trying to lose weight is:
A)running 5 miles at least 3 times a week.
B)walking 2 miles in 30 minutes.
C)a daily workout at the gym.
D)something he or she enjoys and will do regularly.
Q4) Ghrelin is a hormone produced in the stomach that acts much like leptin.
A)True
B)False
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Page 9
Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Overconsumption of the water-soluble vitamins will likely result in:
A)a reserve supply, which will aid in the prevention of colds and infections.
B)no apparent change, because they are stored in the adipose tissues.
C)no apparent change, because they are excreted.
D)toxic accumulation in the liver.
Q2) Define the term coenzyme.Name and describe the role of the B vitamins that function as part of the structure of coenzymes.
Q3) Name the antioxidant vitamins and describe how they function in the body.
Q4) Describe the factors that may interfere with vitamin D synthesis.
Q5) Beta-carotene prevents _____ from damaging cells.
A)free radicals
B)antioxidants
C)blood clots
D)vitamin E
Q6) Factors that may limit vitamin D synthesis in the body include all of the following except:
A)geographic location.
B)season of the year.
C)sunscreens.
D)use of tanning beds.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following foods are good sources of bioavailable calcium except: A)milk.
B)sardines.
C)cheddar cheese.
D)spinach.
Q2) Discuss the role of sodium in fluid balance and describe how it affects blood pressure.
Q3) Iodine deficiency is associated with all of the following except: A)weight gain.
B)cretinism.
C)suffocation.
D)goiter.
Q4) A diabetes-like condition may develop when _____ is lacking in the diet. A)iron
B)zinc
C)chromium
D)molybdenum
Q5) Identify four groups of individuals in the U.S.who are at risk for developing zinc deficiency and briefly describe why these groups are more vulnerable than others.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span: Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Low-carbohydrate diets during pregnancy:
A)help to prevent excess weight gain for the mother.
B)may impair brain development in the fetus.
C)may lead to pre-term labor.
D)aid in preventing gestational diabetes.
Q2) Pregnant women who are vegans should get their protein from:
A)protein supplements.
B)high-protein smoothies.
C)legumes, whole grains, nuts, seeds, and tofu.
D)milk, yogurt, and cheese.
Q3) The two nutrients needed early by infants and provided by the introduction of solid foods are:
A)protein and calcium.
B)iron and vitamin C.
C)sodium and fat.
D)vitamin D and fluoride.
Q4) What is meant by a "critical period" during pregnancy? What is the importance of nutrition during a critical period?
Q5) Describe the nutrient needs of a breastfeeding woman.
Q6) Describe the energy, carbohydrate, and protein needs of a pregnant woman. Page 12
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Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span: Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) True hyperactivity:
A)can be cured with dietary changes.
B)can be cured by eliminating sugar.
C)can be cured by eliminating food additives.
D)is not caused by poor nutrition.
Q2) The most important risk factor for type 2 diabetes in children is:
A)food intolerances.
B)high cholesterol.
C)obesity.
D)food allergies.
Q3) Children should not be allowed to eat while running because:
A)this increases the child's risk of choking.
B)they should not be allowed to play until after meals.
C)physical activity in children should be discouraged.
D)this increases the child's risk of food allergies.
Q4) Adolescents who eat at home with family members:
A)tend to gain more weight.
B)are less influenced by their peers.
C)consume a more nutritious diet.
D)watch more television.
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span: Later Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following health behaviors is the strongest predictor of continued mobility in the later years?
A)not smoking
B)low to moderate alcohol consumption
C)maintenance of moderate body weight
D)frequent physical activity
Q2) Which statement is false?
A)Aging is an inevitable, natural process.
B)Aging is programmed into the genes at conception.
C)Aging can be slowed by a healthy lifestyle.
D)Aging can be slowed with the use of appropriate supplements.
Q3) Vision problems in older adults may be due to dietary factors such as:
A)underweight.
B)low intake of vitamins D and E.
C)overweight.
D)low intake of vitamins C and E.
Q4) Studies suggest that a diet providing ample carotenoids, vitamin C, and vitamin E may help to prevent the early onset of cataracts.
A)True
B)False
Page 15
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is not a characteristic of nutrition screening?
A)accurate enough to identify nutrition risk
B)varies according to the health care facility
C)may lead to a referral for nutrition care
D)the first step in the nutrition care process
Q2) Transthyretin is also known as:
A)prealbumin.
B)retinol-binding protein.
C)transferrin.
D)albumin.
Q3) Segments of a DNA strand that can be translated into proteins are called: A)chromosomes.
B)noncoding sequences. C)genomics.
D)genes.
Q4) To ensure that a planned intervention is realistic, the dietitian takes into account the client's food habits, lifestyle, and other personal factors.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Describe how bed rest and immobility compromise nutrition status.
Page 16
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Diet manuals include all of the following except:
A)foods allowed and not allowed on each diet.
B)principles of nutrition education.
C)information on rationale and indications for use.
D)sample menus for each diet.
Q2) It is most helpful to think about modified diets in terms of:
A)the diseases they are used to treat.
B)the organ systems they relate to.
C)the conditions they are used to treat.
D)the symptoms they relieve.
Q3) The physician prescribes a "low-sodium diet" for Mr.Johnson.As a dietitian working with Mr.Johnson you would:
A)send a pre-selected diet to Mr.Johnson.
B)clarify the desired sodium restriction with the physician.
C)ask Mr.Johnson what sodium level he needs.
D)send Mr.Johnson a 2000 mg sodium diet.
Q4) Nurses play a central role in helping hospitalized patients to eat.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Differentiate between regular and modified diets.
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of Mr.Edward's conditions requires that he be kept NPO?
A)history of alcoholism
B)pancreatitis with vomiting
C)malnutrition with wasting
D)end-stage cancer
Q2) Long-term TPN may result in complications such as:
A)gallbladder disease.
B)heart disease.
C)diabetes.
D)cancer.
Q3) In infants, _____ tube placement may be preferred because it aids breathing.
A)nasogastric
B)nasoduodenal
C)orogastric
D)nasojejunal
Q4) Enteral nutrition is more costly than parenteral nutrition.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Identify specific conditions that necessitate the use of TPN by central vein.
Q6) Describe the proper administration of tube feedings.
Page 18
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) Estimate the energy needs of a nonobese patient with sepsis who weighs 180 pounds.
A)2045-2455 kcal
B)2250-2700 kcal
C) 1980-2125 kcal
D)2365-3050 kcal
Q2) John has been hospitalized with a severe infection in his foot.The nurse recognizes that increasing his intake of _____ may help to suppress the inflammation.
A)protein
B)omega-3 fatty acids
C)carbohydrate
D)omega 6-fatty acids
Q3) The high nutrient requirements of acutely stressed patients often require a patient to be fed via the enteral or parenteral route to meet his or her nutritional needs.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Discuss protein requirements in a stressed patient (include specific amino acids).
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19
Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liquids are restricted during meals following a gastrectomy because they:
A)can speed up the emptying rate of the stomach.
B)slow down the emptying rate of the stomach.
C)add unwanted kcalories.
D)are likely to cause aspiration.
Q2) All of the following are appropriate for a patient suffering from mouth dryness except:
A)sauces.
B)potato chips.
C)gravies.
D)sugarless gum.
Q3) All of the following foods may be indicated for individuals with dysphagia except: A)cream of wheat.
B)scrambled eggs.
C)brownies with nuts.
D)pureed chicken.
Q4) Define dysphagia and explain the dietary treatment for this disorder.
Q5) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q6) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
Page 20
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nutrition therapy for steatorrhea is a:
A)fat-restricted diet.
B)high-fiber diet.
C)low-sodium diet.
D)high-protein diet.
Q2) Malabsorption of certain minerals is common in persons with fat malabsorption.This can ultimately result in:
A)fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
B)increased risk of bone loss.
C)loss of taste acuity.
D)insulin resistance.
Q3) To help control diarrhea, people with ostomies should consume:
A)applesauce.
B)caffeine.
C)sugar-free candy.
D)grapes.
Q4) Why are young people with cystic fibrosis short and very lean for their age?
Q5) Acute pancreatitis can result from high blood triglycerides.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common complication of alcohol abuse is:
A)chronic pancreatitis.
B)liver disease.
C)chronic renal failure.
D)heart arrhythmias.
Q2) Examples of common nutrient deficiencies seen as a result of alcohol abuse include all of the following except:
A)folate.
B)thiamin.
C)vitamin A.
D)sodium.
Q3) Most people in hepatic coma experience all of the following except:
A)elevated blood ammonia levels.
B)increased levels of branched-chain amino acids.
C)an accumulation of potentially toxic compounds in the brain.
D)elevated aromatic amino acid concentrations.
Q4) Hepatomegaly refers to a surgical puncture of a body cavity with an aspirator to draw out excess fluid.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) In severe cases of diabetic ketoacidosis, blood glucose levels can exceed 1000 mg/dL.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed in overweight children and teens because:
A)their glucose levels vary with their stage of growth.
B)there are frequently no symptoms.
C)blood glucose tests are not accurate in children and teens.
D)their lifestyles are not conducive to screening for the disease.
Q3) Which food would have the least effect on blood glucose levels?
A)fruit juice
B)whole-grain cereal
C)biscuit
D)vanilla wafer
Q4) Hypoglycemia is frequently caused by:
A)overeating.
B)skipping insulin doses.
C)eating too many carbohydrates.
D)poor management of diabetes.
Q5) Describe the differences between carbohydrate counting and using exchange lists.
Page 23
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) The formation of plaque is:
A)unrelated to high blood pressure.
B)an inflammatory response.
C)an autoimmune disorder.
D)limited to smaller blood vessels.
Q2) Which of the following dietary factors raises triglyceride levels?
A)high refined carbohydrate intake
B)low soluble fiber intake
C)high protein intake
D)low fat intake
Q3) A patient's lab work shows severe hypertriglyceridemia.The nurse understands that the patient's fat intake should be limited to _____% of kcalories per day in order to prevent dangerous complications.
A)5
B)15
C)20
D)35
Q4) Describe characteristics of the DASH diet and results of using the diet in clinical trials.
Q5) Describe the risk factors for the development of hypertension.
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acidosis can worsen:
A)blood pressure.
B)malnutrition.
C)renal osteodystrophy.
D)GFR.
Q2) The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is:
A)diabetes.
B)infectious diseases.
C)genetic disorders.
D)inflammatory diseases.
Q3) Since this is Mr.Bradley's first visit to the center, you, as his primary care nurse, spend hours speaking to him while his dialysis progresses.You explain that within the next week he will be seen by _____, who will counsel him about his nutrition therapy.
A)a dietitian who specializes in chronic kidney disease
B)a physician who oversees all aspects of clients' medical care
C)another client who has been following the diet for years
D)a pharmacist who will address the nutrients administered via the dialysate
E)a phlebotomy nurse who draws blood for and interprets laboratory values
Q4) Discuss techniques to use in increasing clients' compliance with renal diets.
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Chapter 23: Nutrition, Cancer, and Hiv Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mrs.Watson is a 55-year-old female with a family history of breast cancer.To reduce Mrs.Watson's risk of breast cancer, the nurse advises her to:
A)avoid alcohol and maintain a healthy weight.
B)take a calcium supplement daily.
C)eat less red meat.
D)drink a glass of red wine with dinner.
Q2) Which of the following legal documents allows a competent adult to clearly express directions regarding medical treatment in the event that the person is unable to make the necessary decisions at that time?
A)living trust
B)power of attorney
C)living will
D)medical record
Q3) A copy of any advance directive should be part of a client's medical record.
A)True
B)False
Q4) What suggestions would you give a cancer patient concerning ways to control nausea and vomiting?
Q5) Discuss the use of enteral and parenteral nutrition in cancer patients.
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