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Health Promotion and Aging Final Exam - 312 Verified Questions

Page 1


Health Promotion and Aging Final Exam

Course Introduction

This course explores the principles and practices of promoting health and well-being among older adults. It covers the physiological, psychological, and social aspects of aging, with a focus on strategies for maintaining functional independence, preventing chronic disease, and enhancing quality of life in later years. Students examine evidence-based interventions, public health policies, and educational approaches tailored to the aging population, as well as the challenges and opportunities presented by demographic shifts. Special attention is given to the role of community engagement, interprofessional collaboration, and cultural competence in supporting healthy aging.

Recommended Textbook

Advanced Practice Nursing in the Care of Older Adults 1st Edition by Laurie Kennedy Malone

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19 Chapters

312 Verified Questions

312 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/3891

Page 2

Chapter 1: Changes With Aging

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77498

Sample Questions

Q1) Polypharmacy is best described as taking:

A) More than nine medications per day

B) More than five medications per day

C) Even a single medication if there is not a clear indication for its use

D) When a drug is given to treat the side effect of another drug

Answer: C

Q2) Men have faster and more efficient biotransformation of drugs and this is thought to be due to:

A) Less obesity rates than women

B) Prostate enlargement

C) Testosterone

D) Less estrogen than women

Answer: C

Q3) The cytochrome p system involves enzymes that are generally:

A) Inhibited by drugs

B) Induced by drugs

C) Inhibited or induced by drugs

D) Associated with decreased liver perfusion

Answer: C

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Page 3

Chapter 2: Health Promotion

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) A 72-year-old woman and her husband are on a cross-country driving vacation.After a long day of driving,they stop for dinner.Midway through the meal,the woman becomes very short of breath,with chest pain and a feeling of panic.Which of the following problems is most likely?

A) Pulmonary edema

B) Heart failure

C) Pulmonary embolism

D) Pneumonia

Answer: C

Q2) You are working with an older male adult with a long history of alcohol abuse and a 30-year history of smoking.In recommending an intervention for this client,your responsibility is to:

A) Make the individual abandon his own health practices and follow your recommendations

B) Register the patient for a local intervention program and secure payments

C) Promote positive change in lifestyle choices

D) Identify the barriers that the client will encounter

Answer: C

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4

Chapter 3: Exercise in Older Adults

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5 Verified Questions

5 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Preferred amount of exercise for older adults is:

A) 10 minutes of physical activity each morning

B) 30 minutes per day of aerobic activity five times a week

C) Any increase in physical activity over a sedentary lifestyle

D) 60 minutes per day that includes 30 minutes of aerobic activity and 30 minutes of weight training five times a week

Answer: D

Q2) The best recommendation for a patient who states they have no equipment to exercise would be:

A) Sign a contract for a year's membership to a local gym

B) Borrow free weights from grandchildren

C) Have a personal trainer come to the home three times a week

D) Improvise with recommended objects at home that can be used

Answer: D

Q3) Exercise recommended for older adults should include activities that:

A) Conserve energy

B) Restrict flexibility

C) Strengthen muscles

D) Are anaerobic in nature

Answer: C

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Chapter 4: Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment

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13 Verified Questions

13 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The evidence reflects that comprehensive geriatric assessment should be conducted:

A) On all individuals 65 and older

B) On all individuals 75 and older

C) By an inter-disciplinary team of professionals

D) Targeting the vulnerable and frail elderly

Q2) The best approach to taking the health history is to:

A) Start with an open-ended question

B) Start with the review of systems

C) Focus on the chief complaint

D) Complete the history before conducting the examination

Q3) When interviewing the older adult with a suspected dementia,it is most important that:

A) Mental status be evaluated first in order to determine if the patient is a reliable historian

B) The examiner use short simple questions and recognize non-verbal signs of discomfort

C) Postpone the mental status evaluation for the following visit and establish a rapport first

D) The clinician get in contact with a family member to obtain the history

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Chapter 5: Symptoms and Syndromes

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27 Verified Questions

27 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) The routine testing of tuberculosis should occur in all of the following vulnerable populations except:

A) Nursing home residents

B) Prison inmates

C) Hospitalized elderly

D) Immune-compromised patients

Q2) Medications known to contribute to constipation include all of the following except:

A) Stimulant laxatives

B) Anticholinergic drugs

C) Broad-spectrum antibiotics

D) Iron

Q3) Evidence shows that the most important predictor of a fall is:

A) Prior history of a fall

B) Cognitive impairment

C) Gait and balance disturbance

D) Proximal muscle weakness

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Chapter 6: Skin and Lymphatic Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following descriptions best illustrates assessment findings consistent with tinea capitis?

A) Circular erythematous patches with papular,scaly annular borders and clear centers

B) Inflamed scaly dry patches with broken hairs

C) Web lesions with erythema and scaling borders

D) Scaly pruritic erythematous lesions on inguinal creases

Q2) Patients who have an underlying tinea infection to the cellulitis should also be treated with which one of the following?

A) An anti-fungal medication

B) Topical steroids

C) Oral steroids

D) Zinc oxide

Q3) A nursing home resident with a Stage 4 pressure ulcer that extends to the muscle layer and has significant undermining with heavy exudate should be treated with:

A) Dry gauze dressings

B) Duoderm

C) Chemical debridement

D) Calcium alginate dressings

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8

Chapter 7: Head, neck, and Face Disorders

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Patients that have atopic disorders are mediated by the production of IGE will have histamine stimulated as an immediate phase response.This release of histamine results in which of the following?

A) Sinus pain,increased vascular permeability,and bronchodilation

B) Bronchospasm,vascular permeability,and vasodilatation

C) Contraction of smooth muscle,decreased vascular permeability,and vasoconstriction

D) Vasodilatation,bronchodilation,and increased vascular permeability

Q2) Which of the following conditions is the leading cause of blindness in the United States?

A) Macular degeneration

B) Diabetic retinopathy

C) Glaucoma

D) Cataracts

Q3) Clinical findings in patients with nonproliferation retinopathy include:

A) Cotton wool spots

B) Microaneursyms

C) Deep hemorrhages

D) Neovascularization

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Chapter 8: Chest Disorders

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21 Verified Questions

21 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) What is the most common valvular heart disease in the older adult?

A) Aortic regurgitation

B) Aortic stenosis

C) Mitral regurgitation

D) Mitral stenosis

Q2) Which test is the clinical standard for the assessment of aortic stenosis?

A) Cardiac catheterization

B) Stress test

C) Chest x-ray

D) Echocardiography

Q3) Preceding a stress test,the following lab work might include:

A) CBC and differential to differentiate ischemic heart disease from anemia

B) Liver enzymes to rule out underlying gall bladder disease

C) Thyroid studies to rule out hyperthyroidism

D) A & C only

Q4) On examination,what type of murmur can be auscultated with aortic regurgitation?

A) Austin flint

B) Systolic ejection

C) Soft S1 and a Loud S2

D) Loud S1

Page 10

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Chapter 9: Peripheral Vascular Disorders

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18 Verified Questions

18 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77490

Sample Questions

Q1) Complete decongestive physiotherapy (CDP)works by:

A) Stimulating the lymph vessels

B) Breaking up subcutaneous fibrous tissue

C) Redirecting lymph flow

D) All of the above

Q2) The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms are due to:

A) Trauma

B) Infection

C) Inflammation

D) Atherosclerosis

Q3) The clinician should begin the peripheral vascular exam with:

A) Auscultation of the carotid arteries

B) Checking for peripheral edema

C) Auscultation of the heart

D) Palpation of the upper extremity arteries

Q4) All of the following are classic signs of venous insufficiency except:

A) Pain

B) Dependent edema

C) Hemosiderosis

D) Dermatitis

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Chapter 10: Abdominal Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) Helicobacter pylori is implicated as a causative agent in the development of duodenal or gastric ulcers.What teaching should the nurse practitioner plan for a patient who has a positive Helicobacter pylori test?

A) It is highly contagious and a mask should be worn at home.

B) Treatment regimen is multiple lifetime medications.

C) Treatment regimen is multiple medications taken daily for a few weeks.

D) Treatment regimen is complicated and is not indicated unless the patient is symptomatic.

Q2) In teaching an older adult female client with end-stage renal disease her medication regimen,the nurse practitioner must include which of the following pieces of information in the treatment plan?

A) Report any changes in the color of her stool

B) Take iron supplement and elemental calcium with each meal

C) Take iron supplement before meals and the calcium after meals

D) Take calcium with a high phosphorus meal

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Chapter 11: Urological and Gynecological Disorders

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

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Sample Questions

Q1) All of the following antimicrobials may be indicated in chronic bacterial prostatitis except:

A) Ciprofloxacin

B) Levofloxacin

C) Trimethoprim

D) Azithromycin

Q2) A 79-year-old man is being evaluated for frequent urinary dribbling without burning.Physical examination reveals a smooth but slightly enlarged prostate gland.His PSA level is 3.3 ng/mL.The patient undergoes formal urodynamic studies,and findings are as follows: a decreased bladder capacity of 370 mL;a few involuntary detrusor contractions at a low bladder volume of 246 mL;an increased postvoid residual urine volume of 225 mL;and a slightly decreased urinary flow rate.Which of the following is not consistent with a normal age-associated change?

A) PSA level of 3.3 ng/mL

B) Decreased bladder capacity

C) Involuntary detrusor contradictions

D) Increased postvoid residual urine volume

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Chapter 12: Musculoskeletal Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77487

Sample Questions

Q1) When examining the spine of an older adult you notice a curvature with a sharp angle.This is referred to as a:

A) Gibbus

B) Scoliosis

C) Kyphosis

D) Lordosis

Q2) Which of the following differential diagnosis for patients presenting with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)can be ruled out with a muscle biopsy?

A) Parkinson's disease

B) Polymyositis

C) Late onset rheumatoid arthritis

D) Giant Cell Arteritis

Q3) You have ordered a CBC for your patient you suspect has polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR).Which two clinical findings are common in patients with PMR?

A) Neutropenia and hypochromic,normocytic anemia

B) Normochromic,normocytic anemia and thrombocytosis

C) Microcytic,hypochromic anemia and reticulocytopenia

D) Macrocytic,hyperchromic anemia and leukocytopenia

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Chapter 13: Central and Peripheral Nervous System Disorders

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19 Verified Questions

19 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77486

Sample Questions

Q1) An older adult client with a history of a seizure disorder comes into the clinic for a routine check-up.Although seizure free,the client continues on long-term phenytoin treatment.The nurse practitioner would assess for which of the following long-term effects?

A) Lid lag and nystagmus

B) Gingival hyperplasia and nystagmus

C) Nystagmus and microcytic anemia

D) Gingival hyperplasia and iron deficiency anemia

Q2) The most common neurological cause of seizures in an older adult is:

A) Alzheimer's disease

B) Multiple sclerosis

C) Stroke

D) Peripheral neuropathy

Q3) An older adult patient is being evaluated following a stroke,which affected the anterior cerebral circulatory system.Which of the following signs/symptoms would be positive in the assessment of this patient?

A) Bilateral vision disturbance and/or diplopia

B) Dysarthria and speech difficulties

C) Disorders in behavior and in cognition

D) Motor and sensory problems on both sides of the body

Page 15

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Chapter 14: Endocrine, metabolic, and Nutritional Disorders

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20 Verified Questions

20 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77485

Sample Questions

Q1) Which of the following nutritional indicators is not an indication of poor nutritional status in an older person?

A) Albumin of < 3.5 g/dl

B) Body mass index of 25

C) Total cholesterol < 150 mg/dl

D) Loss of 10% body weight in 180 days

Q2) Which is a "cardinal feature" of failure to thrive?

A) Decline in toileting ability

B) Gait disturbance

C) Poor nutritional status

D) Spiritual distress

Q3) Which patient is most likely to have osteoporosis?

A) An 80-year-old underweight male who smokes and has been on steroids for psoriasis

B) A 90-year-old female with no family history of osteoporosis who is on hormone replacement therapy

C) A 68-year-old overweight female who drinks 1-2 drinks alcohol/day

D) An 82-year-old female with a normal BMI takes calcium and performs weight-bearing exercise daily

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Chapter 15: Hematological and Immune System Disorders

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77484

Sample Questions

Q1) In addition to the CBC with differential,which of the following laboratory tests is considered to be most useful in diagnosing ACD and IDA?

A) Serum iron

B) Total iron binding capacity

C) Transferrin saturation

D) Serum ferritin

Q2) When interpreting laboratory data,you would expect to see the following in a patient with Anemia of Chronic Disease (ACD):

A) Hemoglobin <12 g/dl,Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)decreased,Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)decreased

B) Hemoglobin >12 g/dl,Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)increased,Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)increased

C) Hemoglobin <12 g/dl,Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)normal,Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)normal

D) Hemoglobin >12 g/dl,Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)decreased,Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin (MCH)increased

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17

Chapter 16: Psychological Disorders

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15 Verified Questions

15 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77483

Sample Questions

Q1) The justification for ordering a CBC,TSH,and serum B12 for a patient you suspect may have clinical depression is:

A) To determine the cause of sadness

B) Because of overlapping symptoms with anemia,thyroid dysfunction,and nutritional deficiencies

C) To differentiate between depression and metabolic disorders

D) To rule out vascular disease

Q2) The comorbid psychiatric problem with the highest frequency in dementia is:

A) Anxiety

B) Depression

C) Agitation and aggression

D) Psychosis

Q3) The elderly are at high risk for delirium because of:

A) Multisensory declines

B) Polypharmacy

C) Multiple medical problems

D) All of the above

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Chapter 17: Nutritional Support in the Older Adult

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10 Verified Questions

10 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77482

Sample Questions

Q1) The use of feeding gastrostomy tubes at the end of life in Alzheimer's disease patients has been associated with:

A) Prolongation of life

B) Aspirational pneumonia

C) Increase in decubitus ulcer rate

D) Reversal of any clinical signs of failure to thrive

Q2) Feedings via PEG tube can safely begin hours after PEG tube placement,barring any contraindications.

A) 2 hours

B) 6 hours

C) 24 hours

D) 48 hours

Q3) Which of the following nutritional indicators is not an indication of poor nutritional status in an older person?

A) Albumin of <3.5 g/dl

B) Body mass index of 24

C) Total cholesterol <150 mg/dl

D) Loss of 5-10% body weight in 180 days

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19

Chapter 18: Chronic Illness and the Advanced Practice

Registered Nurse Aprn

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14 Verified Questions

14 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77481

Sample Questions

Q1) Long durations of a chronic illness that are most commonly associated in both women and men are:

A) Heart disease and obesity

B) Diabetes and COPD

C) Arthritis and dementia

D) Dyslipidemia and eye disease

Q2) Evidence-based clinical practice guidelines may have limited applicability in the older population because:

A) They often are disease specific

B) They often have complex comorbid conditions

C) Both A and B

D) None of the above evidence-based clinical practice guidelines are always the standard

Q3) Inter-professional care is distinguished from other models of team-based care in that:

A) Independent providers share information

B) Expert advice is shared from one provider to another

C) Different disciplines work under one leader

D) Shared leadership and accountability is a primary focus

Page 20

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Chapter 19: Palliative Care and End-Of-Life Care

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16 Verified Questions

16 Flashcards

Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/77480

Sample Questions

Q1) Evidence reflects the primary obstacle to implementing palliative care in the long-term care setting include all of the following except:

A) Inadequate communication between decision makers

B) Failure to recognize futile treatments

C) Lack of advance directives

D) Lack of sufficient staff

Q2) Pain at the end of life is most often due to all of the following except:

A) Musculoskeletal disorders

B) Headache

C) Cancer pain

D) Neuropathic pain

Q3) The highest level of evidence with the use of adjuvant analgesics is with:

A) Tricyclic antidepressants avoided due to high adverse events

B) Therapeutic trials before discontinuing drugs

C) Patient with fibromyalgia are candidates for adjuvant analgesics

D) Neuropathic pain patients are candidates for adjuvant analgesia

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