Health Professions Terminology
Final Exam
Course Introduction
Health Professions Terminology provides students with a foundational understanding of the specialized language used across various health care fields. The course emphasizes the structure and meaning of medical terms through the study of word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and abbreviations. Students will develop the ability to accurately interpret, pronounce, and use medical vocabulary related to body systems, diseases, diagnostic procedures, treatments, and pharmacology. By mastering this essential terminology, students will enhance their communication skills and prepare for further studies and professional interactions in the health professions environment.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 2nd Edition by
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35 Chapters
8743 Verified Questions
8743 Flashcards
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Susan M. Turley
Page 2
Chapter 1: The Structure of Medical Language
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308 Verified Questions
308 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true?
A) Cost/o- and muscul/o- both mean muscle.
B) Lapar/o- and append/o- both mean appendix.
C) Gastr/o- and hepat/o- both mean stomach.
D) Enter/o- and intestin/o- both mean intestine.
Answer: D
Q2) A prefix modifies the meaning of the suffix.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) The combining form pleg/o- means ____________.
Answer: paralysis
Q4) The suffix -ary means :
A) pertaining to.
B) one who specializes in.
C) many; much.
D) process of.
Answer: A
Q5) The combining form cutane/o- means ____________.
Answer: skin
3
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Chapter 2: The Body in Health and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form extern/o- means :
A) inside.
B) middle.
C) outside.
D) side.
Answer: C
Q2) The primary care physician is the title of the doctor who is on a medical staff and admits the patient to the hospital.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) When a patient is asymptomatic,this means that the patient ____________.
A) shows no symptoms or signs
B) has a hospital-acquired infection
C) is a hypochondriac
D) shows severe symptoms or signs
Answer: A
Q4) A ____________ is a medical specialty involving urine and the urinary system. Answer: urology
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Chapter 3: Gastroenterology - Gastrointestinal System
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455 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form omphal/o- means :
A) cecum.
B) hernia.
C) omentum.
D) umbilicus; navel.
Answer: D
Q2) The combining form gloss/o- means ____________. Answer: tongue
Q3) In contrast to constipation,____________ occurs when stools flow completely through the colon.
Answer: diarrhea
Q4) A patient with gluten enteropathy has damage to his/her stomach that results from an autoimmune disorder reaction to gluten.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q5) The combining form celi/o- means ____________. Answer: abdomen
Q6) Elevated levels of ALT and AST would be suggestive of ____________ disease. Answer: liver
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Chapter 4: Pulmonology - Respiratory System
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352 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these abbreviations stands for a device that delivers a premeasured dose of medication to the lungs when the patient inhales?
A) TPR
B) CPAP
C) O
D) MDI
Q2) The combining form pulmon/o- means :
A) air.
B) breathe.
C) chest.
D) lung.
Q3) The inferior aspect of the thoracic cavity is bordered by the ____________,a muscular sheet that contracts to enlarge the thoracic cavity and draw in air.
Q4) A ____________ is a flexible lighted instrument used to examine the trachea and bronchi.
A) laryngoscope
B) bronchoscopy
C) bronchoscope
D) thoracotomy
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Chapter 5: Cardiology - Cardiovascular System
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360 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The artery in the upper leg is known as the ____________ artery.
A) femoral
B) brachial
C) tibial
D) pulmonary
Q2) The combining form peripher/o- means :
A) heart and great vessels.
B) outer aspects.
C) surrounding structure.
D) vein.
Q3) Patients struggling with their cholesterol levels want to see a high HDL number in their lab test results.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The combining form angi/o- means blood vessel; lymphatic vessel.
A)True
B)False
Q5) How is myocardial blood flow improved with a PTCA?
Q6) The adjective form of artery is ____________.
Q7) How does aspirin help heart patients?
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Chapter 6: Hematology and Immunology - Blood and Lymphatic System
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210 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining forms hem/o- and hemat/o- both mean ____________.
A) blood
B) carry
C) iron
D) red
Q2) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means excessive flow or discharge of blood?
A) -lysis, hypo-, erythr/o-
B) -rrhage, hem/o-
C) -oma, macr/o-, hemat/o-
D) -cyte, thromb/o-, rrag/o-
Q3) The physician ordered blood work for his patient to include red blood cell indices.This test would determine the:
A) WBC count.
B) mean cell volume.
C) clotting time.
D) blood type.
Q4) What accounts for the episodes of severe pain in the extremities and abdomen in a patient with sickle cell anemia?
Page 8
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Chapter 7: Dermatology - Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form carcin/o- means ____________.
Q2) Abnormally curved fingernails and stunted growth of the fingers associated with a chronic lack of oxygen in patients with cystic fibrosis is known as:
A) urticaria.
B) curettage.
C) clubbing.
D) dermabrasion.
Q3) A/An ____________ is a localized,pus-containing pocket caused by a bacterial infection.
Q4) A keloid is an abnormally large scar due to excess: A) keratin.
B) elastin.
C) sebum. D) collagen.
Q5) ____________ surgery is a surgical procedure used to remove skin cancer one layer at a time,particularly tumors with irregular shapes and depths.
Q6) Elevated collections of blood under the skin are known as petechiae.
A)True
B)False
Page 9
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Chapter 8: Orthopedics - Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Genu varum (bowleg) is the opposite of:
A) hallux valgus.
B) pectus excavatum.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) genu valgum.
Q2) The combining form epiphys/o- means :
A) membrane around a bone.
B) pointed end of the sternum.
C) growth area at the end of a long bone.
D) shaft of a bone.
Q3) Select the misspelled word.
A) rheumatologist
B) ankylosing spondylitis
C) pectus excurvatum
D) osteomyelitis
Q4) ____________ is a surgical procedure that uses a scope inserted into a joint to visualize the inside of the joint and its structures.
Q5) What is gout?
Q6) The ____________ or heel bone is the largest tarsal bone.
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Q7) The combining form acetabul/o- means acetabulum or hip ____________.
Chapter 9: Orthopedics - Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The definition of the medical word ____________ is surgical excision of the thymus gland.It is used to treat patients with myasthenia gravis.
Q2) A muscle strain is also known as a _________ muscle.
Q3) Inflammation of a cordlike band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is known as:
A) bursitis.
B) myositis.
C) fasciitis.
D) tendonitis.
Q4) The patient was in a coma for a long time in a nursing home.He eventually developed ____________ or abnormal,fixed positions in which his muscles were permanently flexed.
A) contractures
B) contusions
C) constrictions
D) contractions
Q5) The prefix brady- means ____________.
Q6) The abbreviation IM stands for ____________.
Q7) Describe how a contraction differs from a contracture.
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Chapter 10: Neurology - Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A ____________ ,an individual nerve cell,is the functional unit of the nervous system.
Q2) The TENS unit is a device that is used to control chronic pain.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A chronic,progressive,degenerative autoimmune disorder in which the body makes antibodies against myelin is called ____________ ____________.
Q4) The combining form pleg/o- means :
A) dementia.
B) paralysis.
C) body.
D) seizure.
Q5) The combining form nerv/o- means :
A) nerve.
B) nervous.
C) nervous system.
D) neuron.
Q6) The name of the medical procedure that records the electrical activity of the brain is an ____________.
Page 12
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Chapter 11: Urology - Urinary System
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201 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A microscopic kidney stone is often referred to as sand or gravel.
B) Decreased caliber of the urinary stream can be caused by an enlarged prostate gland.
C) Calculogenesis and lithogenesis are both the process of forming kidney stones.
D) The treatment for polycystic kidney disease is a diuretic drug.
Q2) The ____________ is a reservoir for storing urine.
Q3) The inability to voluntarily retain urine is:
A) incontinence.
B) hesitancy.
C) micturition.
D) retention.
Q4) Another name for albuminuria is:
A) proteinuria.
B) hematuria.
C) pyuria.
D) bacteriuria.
Q5) If the pH of the blood decreases,this causes ____________ to be reabsorbed from the tubules,to increase the pH of the blood.
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Chapter 12: Male Reproductive Medicine - Male
Genitourinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A varicocele can be the cause of:
A) impotence.
B) infertility.
C) urinary hesitancy and dribbling.
D) premature ejaculation.
Q2) All of the following can cause infertility in the male except ____________.
A) abnormal spermatozoa
B) undescended testicles
C) phimosis
D) imbalance of FSH or LH
Q3) Transrectal ultrasonography uses an ultrasound probe inserted into the rectum to obtain an image of the scrotum.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The abbreviation ED stands for:
A) erection distress.
B) erectile disease.
C) erectile dysfunction.
D) erectile drug.
Q5) Describe gynecomastia?
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Chapter 13: Gynecology and Obstetrics - Female
Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of forming a mature ovum is known as ____________.
Q2) How could a woman know that she was ovulating?
A) She feels a dull backache.
B) She becomes irritable.
C) She notices a thick, white vaginal discharge of mucus.
D) She has a rise of body temperature.
Q3) Another name for Braxton Hicks is ____________ labor contractions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Leukorrhea is a sign of a possible yeast infection that is known as:
A) retroflexion.
B) candidiasis.
C) pyosalpinx.
D) polycystic ovary syndrome.
Q5) Oligohydramnios is:
A) increased volume of amniotic fluid.
B) decreased volume of amniotic fluid.
C) incorrect placement of the placenta.
D) dystocia.
Page 15
Q6) How does a tubal ligation prevent conception?
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Page 16
Chapter 14: Endocrinology - Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Some hormones can inhibit actions in the body,other hormones can stimulate actions in the body.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of the following are diagnostic tests for diabetes except:
A) fasting blood sugar (FBS).
B) blood level of growth hormone.
C) glucose tolerance test.
D) hemoglobin A1c.
Q3) A physical characteristic of Addison's disease is:
A) abnormal fat distribution in the back and face called the buffalo hump and moon face.
B) fatigue, weight loss, bronze skin pigmentation.
C) severe headaches and hypertension.
D) excessive body hair growth and deepening of the voice.
Q4) The adjective form of pancreas is ____________.
Q5) ____________ hemorrhage occurs after or following childbirth if there is not enough oxytocin.
Q6) Enlargement of the male breasts because of an imbalance in androgens and estradiol is also known as ____________.
Page 17
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Chapter 15: Ophthamology - Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The suffix "-opia" means :
A) condition of vision.
B) eye; vision.
C) farsighted.
D) nearsighted.
Q2) All of these things can cause a retinal detachment except ____________.
A) head trauma
B) nystagmus
C) aging and changes in the vitreous humor
D) eye hemorrhage in diabetic patients
Q3) Which of the following is used to measure distance vision?
A) Snellen chart
B) tonometry
C) visual field test
D) fluorescein angiography
Q4) The muscle that turns the eye downward is the:
A) medial rectus.
B) lateral rectus.
C) superior rectus.
D) inferior rectus.
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Chapter 16: Otolaryngology - Ears, nose, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) A stapedectomy would be performed for which condition?
A) cerumen impaction
B) labyrinthitis
C) otosclerosis
D) sinusitis
Q2) Each end of the mandible is attached to the temporal bone of the cranium at the moveable ____________ joint.
Q3) The ____________ fold is the oblique skin crease in the cheek,going from the edge of the nose to the corner of the mouth.
Q4) Describe vocal polyps and describe the type of employment that would predispose a person to develop vocal cord polyps.
Q5) When cerumen becomes thick and a large amount of it is wedged in the external auditory canal,this is known as a/an ____________.
Q6) The combining forms gloss/o- and lingu/o-,refer to the ____________.
Q7) Glue ear,a thick accumulation of secretions,is associated with:
A) cerumen impaction.
B) labyrinthitis.
C) otitis externa.
D) otitis media.
Page 19
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Chapter 17: Psychiatry
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Sample Questions
Q1) The word anhedonia means :
A) lack of mature behavior.
B) without suffering.
C) lack of pleasure in any activity.
D) antisocial behavior.
Q2) Tardive dyskinesia,involuntary repetitive movements of the face and extremities,is a severe side effect of the drug Thorazine and of all ____________.
A) antidepressant drugs
B) antipsychotic drugs
C) antianxiety drugs
D) abused substances
Q3) An exaggerated sense of self-worth and importance is characteristic of a ____________ personality.
A) delusional
B) antisocial
C) narcissistic
D) schizophrenic
Q4) ____________ is a gradual but progressive deterioration of cognitive function due to old age or neurologic disease.
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Chapter 18: Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with ovarian cancer has a series of blood tests done.The alpha fetoprotein level is high.Which of the following statements is true regarding this level?
A) The high alpha fetoprotein level indicates that the cancer is responding well to treatment.
B) The high alpha fetoprotein level is normal and has no relationship to the cancer.
C) The alpha fetoprotein level is not usually done in ovarian cancer patients.
D) The high alpha fetoprotein level indicates that the cancer may be advanced.
Q2) The Hickman,Broviac,and Groshong are:
A) types of leukemia.
B) intraperitonal catheters.
C) central venous catheters.
D) grading systems for cancerous cells.
Q3) ____________ is cancer of the bone.
Q4) Lymph nodes release a substance called ____________ ____________ factor which causes cancer cells to become necrotic and die.
Q5) The human papillomavirus causes genital warts and chronic inflammation that can lead to ____________ cancer in women.
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Chapter 19: Radiology and Nuclear Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain what x-rays are.
Q2) Which procedure uses an x-ray beam and contrast dye in the subarachnoid space to create an image of the spinal cavity,spine,and spinal nerves?
A) PET scan
B) neurography
C) myelography
D) OncoScint scan
Q3) The image produced by ultrasonography is known as a/an ____________.
Q4) Briefly explain the purpose of a film badge.
Q5) Which is considered to be a screening test and not a diagnostic test?
A) angiography
B) bone densitometry
C) electron beam tomography
D) intravenous cholangiography
Q6) Which is the correct position for a lateral decubitus x-ray?
A) sitting
B) lying on the side
C) lying on the abdomen
D) standing
Q7) Describe color flow duplex ultrasonography.
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Chapter 20: Medical Terminology and Word Building
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means condition of a fast heart?
A) -ion, brady-, intestin/o-
B) -itis, poly-, arthr/o-
C) -logy, dys-, muscul/o-
D) -ia, tachy-, card/i-
Q2) The abbreviation PMH might be seen in:
A) an EHR.
B) a paper medical record.
C) a CPR.
D) all of the above.
Q3) The prefix re- means :
A) again and again.
B) many; much.
C) reversal of; without.
D) across; through.
Q4) The combining form mamm/o- means liver.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The combining form hepat/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 21: Anatomy and Medical Terminology:
Understanding the Human Body and Language of Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form spir/o- means breathe.
A)True
B)False
Q2) In the medical word urology,the combining form is:
A) ur/o-.
B) urol/o-.
C) urolo/o-.
D) urolog/o-.
Q3) A physician who has the letters O.D.after his/her name specializes in: A) diseases.
B) overdoses.
C) the ears.
D) the eyes.
Q4) All of the following are physician extenders except: A) audiologists.
B) nurse midwives.
C) nurse anesthetists.
D) physician's assistants.
Page 24
Q5) ____________ is the study of tumors and cancer.
Q6) The medical specialty ______________ is concerned with disorders of the blood.
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Chapter 22: Digestive System and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The digestive enzymes amylase and lipase are produced by the liver.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Swallowing food is known by the medical name of:
A) mastication.
B) deglutition.
C) ingestion.
D) defecation.
Q3) The enzyme lipase breaks down:
A) fats.
B) hydrochloric acid.
C) proteins.
D) carbohydrates.
Q4) All of the bile ducts are collectively known as the ____________ ____________.
Q5) The enzyme amylase breaks down:
A) carbohydrates.
B) fat and lipids.
C) bile.
D) proteins and amino acids.
Q6) A patient who has dysphagia has difficulty eating or ____________.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) One of the components of COPD is:
A) acute bronchitis.
B) chronic bronchitis.
C) bronchiectasis.
D) bronchospasm.
Q2) An abnormally low level of oxygen at the cellular level is called:
A) hypercapnia.
B) cyanosis.
C) hypoxemia.
D) hypoxia.
Q3) Which of the following types of drugs would not be given to treat COPD?
A) bronchodilator drugs
B) corticosteroid drugs
C) expectorant drugs
D) antiviral drugs
Q4) For the patient's cough,the physician prescribed the antitussive drug:
A) albuterol (Proventil).
B) cromolyn (Intal).
C) hydrocodone (Hycodan).
D) rifampin (Rifadin).
27
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular System - Medical Terminology
and
Procedures
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Q1) A Doppler test is performed to stress the heart when the patient cannot do a treadmill exercise stress test.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Which of the following is commonly called "good cholesterol"?
A) HDL
B) CHF
C) LDL
D) ASCVD
Q3) All arteries carry blood that contains a high level of oxygen.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Triglycerides are known as "good cholesterol."
A)True
B)False
Q5) Angina pectoris is to myocardial infarction as:
A) plaque is to an EKG.
B) bradycardia is to cholesterol.
C) varicose veins are to CABG.
D) ischemia is to cell death.
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Chapter 25: Blood and Immune System
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Q1) Immunosuppressant drugs are given to suppress the immune response.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Anemia is a decrease in the number of:
A) platelets.
B) serum
C) lymphocytes.
D) erythrocytes.
Q3) All of these help form a clot except:
A) thrombocytes.
B) clotting factors.
C) leukocytes.
D) fibrin.
Q4) Reed-Sternberg cells are found in patients with multiple myeloma.
A)True
B)False
Q5) When clotting factors in the plasma are activated to form a blood clot,the fluid portion of plasma that remains is then known as ____________.
Q6) The most common type of leukocyte is a ____________.
Q7) ____________ is a red,iron-containing molecule in red blood cells.
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Chapter 26: Skin Care: Understanding the Integumentary
System and Common Skin Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Horizontal white bands on the nails indicate arsenic poisoning.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The hard,fibrous protein that fills epidermal cells is called:
A) melanin.
B) keratin.
C) basal.
D) sebum.
Q3) A disease of the skin in which the blood vessels of the face are dilated,the skin is very reddened,and the nose can become enlarged is called:
A) acne vulgaris.
B) diaphoresis.
C) basal cell carcinoma.
D) acne rosacea.
Q4) Severe acne rosacea that enlarges the nose is called:
A) rhinophyma.
B) alopecia.
C) psoriasis.
D) lipoma.
30
Q5) Each hair forms in a hair ____________ in the dermis.
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Chapter 27: Medical Terminology and Anatomy
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Q1) DJD is also known as:
A) osteoporosis.
B) osteoma.
C) osteoarthritis.
D) osteomyelitis.
Q2) All of these are anatomical structures of a vertebra except:
A) spinous process.
B) transverse process.
C) olecranon process.
D) foramen.
Q3) The combining form scoli/o- means :
A) right; left.
B) curved; crooked.
C) bone.
D) spine; vertebra.
Q4) The medical word for the kneecap is the olecranon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The combining form aut/o- means ____________.
Q6) The combining form lev/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 28: Muscle and Movement: A Comprehensive Guide to
Anatomy and Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The abbreviation ROM means :
A) range of motion.
B) range of muscle mass.
C) rate of measure.
D) rate of myalgia.
Q2) Small,involuntary,painless,continuous,back-and-forth muscle movements are known as spasms.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Rigor mortis is the medical name for muscle atrophy.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A rhabdomyoma is a benign tumor of the muscle and a rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant tumor of the tendon.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The medical language definition of the medical word ____________ is the action of again and again giving ability.
Q6) The medical language definition of the medical word myopathy is disease of the
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Chapter 29: Neurology and Nervous System Disorders
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Q1) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word endarterectomy (end-ar-ter-ek-toh-mee)?
Q2) The ____________ ____________ is the connecting tissue between the two hemispheres of the brain.
Q3) An arteriovenous malformation is an abnormality in which arteries in the brain connect directly to other arteries,forming a twisted nest of blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) All of the following are true about the Romberg test except:
A) it is also known as the station test.
B) it asks the patient to recall objects or words.
C) it is a test of balance.
D) it is done with the feet together and the eyes closed.
Q5) A manometer is used to measure the pressure of the:
A) CNS.
B) CTS.
C) CVA.
D) CSF.
Q6) The ____________ nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord.
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Chapter 30: Urinary System
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Q1) Which process involves contractions of smooth muscle that propel urine through the ureter?
A) reabsorption
B) peristalsis
C) filtration
D) micturition
Q2) The prostate gland is part of the urinary system.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A nephropexy is done to correct:
A) nephrolithiasis.
B) nephropathy.
C) nephrosclerosis.
D) nephroptosis.
Q4) Waste products excreted by the kidney include all of the following except:
A) urea.
B) creatinine.
C) uric acid.
D) nephron.
Q5) A ____________ is a flexible tube used in urinary procedures.
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Chapter 31: Male Genitourinary System and Disorders
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Q1) Testicular cancer is known as a/an ____________.
A) seminoma
B) varicocele
C) ejaculation
D) retrovirus
Q2) Which two combining forms do not have a similar meaning?
A) adolesc/o-, puber/o-
B) test/o-, testicul/o-
C) vas/o-, spermat/o-
D) balan/o-, pen/o-
Q3) A gamete has only 23 chromosomes.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A long coiled tube that is attached to the outer wall of each testis is called the ____________.
Q5) Prostatitis is a chronic or acute ___________ infection of the prostate gland that is sometimes caused by a urinary tract
Q6) Gynecomastia is an enlarged male ____________.
Q7) The onset of ____________ is also called adolescence.
Q8) The adjective form of testicle is ____________.
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Chapter 32: Smear and Other Female Reproductive Health
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Q1) Which gene is a risk factor for a type of breast cancer?
A) BRCA 1
B) HRT
C) DUB
D) HSIL
Q2) Crowning occurs during which stage of labor?
A) first stage
B) second stage
C) third stage
D) fourth stage
Q3) Which test involves looking at the cervix with a magnifying,lighted scope?
A) mammography
B) colposcopy
C) Pap smear
D) D&C
Q4) A fertilized ovum begins to produce human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) in the earliest stages of pregnancy.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ____________ tubes (fallopian tubes) connect the ovaries with the uterus.
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Chapter 33: Psychiatric Disorders and Therapies
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Q1) Bulimia is an extreme eating disorder characterized by a decrease in food intake to the point of starvation.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Bulimia is an extreme eating disorder characterized by a decrease in food intake to the point of starvation.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________ is the chemical that controls the day-to-day function of the involuntary processes in the body through the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q4) An addict becomes addicted because he/she is not aware of the serious medical conditions related to the use of that substance.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The ____________ acts as a relay station,receiving nerve impulses from the five senses (sight,hearing,touch,taste,and smell) and relaying them to the midbrain and cerebrum.
Q6) ____________ is the fear of heights.
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Chapter 34: Cancer Terminology and Diagnosis
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Q1) Manually examining the characteristics of leukocytes under a microscope to look for leukemia is a test known as a/an ____________.
A) alpha fetoprotein
B) karyotype
C) blood smear
D) frozen section
Q2) The human papillomavirus that causes genital warts can lead to cervical cancer in women.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Cancer in situ exists when a tumor is still contained to the primary site.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cancer of the smooth muscle layer in the uterus,digestive tract,bladder,or prostate gland.Select the correct spelling of this word.
A) lyomiosarcoma
B) leiomyosarcoma
C) lieomiosarcoma
D) lieomyosarkoma
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Chapter 35: Radiologic Procedures and Imaging Techniques
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Q1) In this type of x-ray,an x-ray beam enters the patient's chest from the side,penetrates the upper body,and exits through the other side.
A) oblique x-ray
B) AP chest x-ray
C) lateral chest x-ray
D) KUB
Q2) The combining form later/o- means :
A) back.
B) front.
C) middle.
D) side.
Q3) A ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan uses an inhaled radiopharmaceutical drug and scintigraphy to create an image of the:
A) lungs.
B) heart.
C) bones.
D) thyroid gland.
Q4) A ____________ ____________ is worn by the x-ray technician to protect the body from x-rays.
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