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Health Occupations is an introductory course designed to provide students with a foundational understanding of the diverse careers available within the healthcare industry. The course covers a broad overview of health systems, medical terminology, professional roles, ethics, infection control, patient care standards, and basic safety practices. Students explore various pathways such as nursing, radiology, laboratory science, therapy, and emergency medical services. Emphasis is placed on developing essential communication, teamwork, and problem-solving skills needed in healthcare environments, as well as gaining insight into the educational requirements and personal attributes necessary for success in health occupations.
Recommended Textbook Health Careers Today 4th Edition by Judith Gerdin
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1408 Verified Questions
1408 Flashcards
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Q1) All of the following reflect correct information on medical milestones except:
A) 1893-Aspirin is developed.
B) 1928-Sir Alexander Fleming discovers penicillin.
C) 1986-AIDS is identified as a disease.
D) 1967-The first hospice is founded in England.
E) 1994-Scientists in Boston devise an eye examination to detect Alzheimer's disease.
Answer: C
Q2) Explain how wellness services relate to the health care of the future.
Answer: Health care of the future will continue to emphasize wellness and prevention instead of cure. Wellness services include nutritional advice, stress reduction counseling, habit cessation management, and exercise instruction.
Q3) Describe the main differences between Medicare and Medicaid.
Answer: Medicare is a federal health program for individuals age 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and individuals with end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Medicaid is a joint program supported by both the federal and state governments. It helps provide coverage for individuals with low and limited resources.
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Q1) _________________________ may be defined as a shared understanding of a message.
Answer: Effective communication
Q2) Nonverbal messages may include all of the following except:
A) Facial expression
B) Tone of voice
C) Distance between the sender and receiver
D) Reactions of the receiver
Answer: D
Q3) How might a person's negative attitude affect communication?
Answer: Negative attitudes lead to defensive responses, including avoidance, unresolved anxiety, and poor self-esteem.
Q4) The behavior an individual displays in a situation is seen as a reflection of a(n) ____________________.
Answer: Attitude
Q5) Homeostasis can best be described as:
A) A meditative state
B) The status quo
C) A fight-or-flight reaction
D) Stress-related disease
Answer: B

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Q1) Principles of epidemiology are used to trace the source and minimize the risk of ____________________ infection.
Answer: Nosocomial
Q2) Describe the three elements required for an infection.
Answer: The three elements required for an infection are a source of microorganisms, a susceptible host, and a means of transmission.
Q3) What concerns are associated with local incineration of waste in a health care environment?
Answer: The incineration of wastes can produce toxic gases containing dioxin, acid gases, and heavy metals. Hospitals release 10 to 100 times more of these elements than other incinerators found in a city.
Q4) What are the six principles of movement that can be used to maintain good body mechanics?
Answer: The six principles of movement include (1) sizing up the load to be moved, (2) keeping a broad stance, (3) squatting by bending at the knees, (4) bringing the object or patient to be moved close, (5) not lifting anything that can be pushed or pulled, and (6) turning the body as a unit by pivoting at the feet rather than turning at the waist.
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Q1) Explain the reasoning behind the DNR order.How might the DNR order infringe upon the Hippocratic oath?
Q2) Failure to execute the care that a reasonable person exercises is known as:
A) Malpractice
B) Slander
C) Negligence
D) Jurisprudence
E) Libel
Q3) Advance directives and ____________________ are legal documents that allow patients to express their wishes about their health care and treatment.
Q4) Workers in every health occupation are ____________________ for their behavior and the care given.
Q5) It is considered ____________________ to perform skills that are beyond the level of a health care worker's education and training.
Q6) Reporting and recording observations and ____________________ are the methods by which communication about the patient's status takes place.
Q7) What is the purpose of charting?
Q8) How might a health care worker's value system affect his or her job performance?
Page 6
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Q1) Why is culture a learned behavior?
Q2) ____________________ is a form of cultural connection.
Q3) Which of the following statements is not true of the term culture:
A) Culture is biologically inherited.
B) Culture is reflected in many aspects of life.
C) Culture affects our interpersonal relationships.
D) Culture's effect is unconscious.
E) Culture means to cultivate.
Q4) Why is the effect of culture unconscious?
Q5) How is cultural competence changing the delivery of health care in the United States?
Q6) Although culture fills a large part of our lives, its effect is ____________________.
Q7) List five ways a health care worker can become culturally competent.
Q8) Considering patients of an ethnic group as all molded together as one is called
Q9) ____________________ is the first drug specifically targeted to one ethnic group.
Q10) Using the Internet as a source for information, compare and contrast two different cultures. Page 7
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Q1) List some favorable characteristics of a health care worker.
Q2) What are two national organizations that may be a part of a health careers program?
Q3) Investigate employment opportunities for health care workers in your area.What methods might you use when searching for health care positions?
Q4) The time needed to give notice ____________________ depends on the job's level of responsibility.
Q5) What is the point of parliamentary procedure?
Q6) What steps should be taken in preparing a letter of application?
Q7) When leaving a job, an employee should give:
A) 1 week's notice
B) 2 weeks' notice
C) 3 weeks' notice
D) 1 month's notice
E) 2 months' notice
Q8) The personal data sheet or _________________________ provides additional information that is not found on the application.
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Q9) Explain the importance of career planning.What element should a person consider when choosing a career?

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Q1) The pulse is usually assessed using:
A) The radial artery near the wrist
B) A sphygmomanometer
C) The force of the blood
D) The systolic measurement
E) A thermometer
Q2) ____________________ is done by using visual observation.
Q3) How are computers used in health care?
Q4) Describe the early warning signs of a heart attack and explain what steps a person who has such signs should take.
Q5) Four sites used to measure the temperature are:
A) Mouth, under the arm, rectum, knee
B) Mouth, under the arm, rectum, ear
C) Mouth, rectum, knee
D) Ear, mouth, rectum, knee
E) Ear, knee, mouth, under the arm
Q6) What situations might call for an axillary, an oral, a rectal, or a temporal temperature measurement?
Q7) ____________________ is the use of the hands to evaluate structures by touch.
Q8) The rhythm and character of ____________________ are important observations. Page 10
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Q1) ____________________ is the process of building tissues from small compounds, and it requires energy to occur.
Q2) What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fats?
Q3) ____________________ are chemical materials in food that are vital to the body's functions.
Q4) How might people improve their nutrition?
Q5) To achieve aerobic benefits, the elevated heart rate should be maintained for:
A) 45 minutes
B) 30 minutes
C) 60 minutes
D) 20 minutes
E) 15 minutes
Q6) List at least five methods to manage stress.
Q7) What are three theories or models for describing behavior change as it relates to a person's health?
Q8) A ____________________ is the measurement of the amount of energy needed to raise 1 g of water 1º C.
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Q9) ____________________ is the term used for the physical and chemical processes that produce energy.

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Q1) The configuration of genetic information for an individual trait is called the:
A) Genotype
B) Phenotype
C) Dominant gene
D) Recessive gene
E) DNA
Q2) Choose a type of cancer and explain the possible causes and the effects of the cancer on the body.
Q3) Define and explain the purpose of electrolytes.
Q4) What causes the rapid growth of cancer cells?
Q5) The quadrants of the abdomen are:
A) Right upper, left upper, middle upper, middle lower
B) Right upper, left upper, right lower, left lower
C) Right lower, left lower, middle upper, middle lower
D) Middle upper, middle lower, right upper, left lower
Q6) Define homeostasis and the process involved.
Q7) _________________________ covers the body, forms glands, and lines the surfaces of cavities and organs.
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Q8) ____________________ is the ability of the organism to control its actions and respond to changes in the environment.
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Q1) Define cleft palate and list its causes and possible treatments.
Q2) The ____________________ system is composed of the skin and accessory structures.
Q3) What is scleroderma?
Q4) Define streptococcosis and explain the treatment for the infection.
Q5) The skin lesion known as a cyst can be described as:
A) A sac of fluid or dead cells that is solid to the touch
B) A deep groove, or crack, in the skin
C) A progressively enlarging scar
D) A discolored spot on the skin
E) Dry pus, lymph, or blood overlying an injury
Q6) ____________________ is a chronic skin disorder in which too many epidermal cells are produced.
Q7) The skin lesion known as a macule can be described as:
A) A progressively enlarging scar
B) A discolored spot on the skin
C) A deep groove, or crack, in the skin
D) A sac of fluid or dead cells that is solid to the touch
E) Dry pus, lymph, or blood overlying injury
Q8) What are the accessory structures of the integumentary system?
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Q1) Investigate possible controversies surrounding endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy and angiogenesis.Describe each procedure and its characteristics.Why is genetic therapy a politically charged treatment plan?
Q2) How many layers of tissue does the heart have?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Five
Q3) Investigate the number of people who suffer from hypertension.Explain methods of diagnosis and treatment.Why is hypertension often referred to as "the silent killer"?
Q4) Blood is pumped from the heart to the body by the largest artery in the body, which is the:
A) Arterioles
B) Aorta
C) Capillaries
D) Venules
E) Pulmonary artery
Q5) Explain hepatic circulation.
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Q1) ____________________ is a hypersensitive response by the immune system to an outside substance.
Q2) Spectrophotometry is a chemical process that measures:
A) Proteins and glucose
B) Uric acid and cholesterol
C) Enzymes
D) Electrolyte ions
E) All of the above
Q3) Explain the two major types of specific immunity that protect the body.
Q4) Platelets, also called thrombocytes:
A) Are the largest blood cells
B) Are least in number
C) Are largest in number
D) Produce antibodies
E) Are the smallest blood cells
Q5) Chemical tests use a process called _________________________ to measure the exact chemical makeup of a blood sample.
Q6) What are the functions of white blood cells?
Q7) ____________________ is an infection that develops when pathogens enter the blood.
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Q1) What are the environmental health risks a miner may face?
Q2) Research the anthrax scare that occurred in 2001.How and where were the spores sent, who was affected, and what was the outcome for those affected?
Q3) Dysphagia is defined as:
A) Inflammation of the bronchus
B) Normal breathing
C) Difficulty swallowing
D) Inflammation of the lining of the lung
E) Removal of the lung
Q4) Respiratory distress syndrome is a condition that occurs when:
A) Inflammation affects one or more of the paranasal sinuses.
B) A respiratory disorder of newborns exists.
C) Bacteria enter the lungs.
D) Viruses or bacteria enter the nose, pharynx, or larynx.
E) The alveoli do not inflate properly.
Q5) _________________________ is a deficiency of carbon dioxide in the blood.It is most often caused by hyperventilation, or rapid breathing, resulting from anxiety or from exercise at high elevations.
Q6) ____________________ is an inflammation of the membranes that line the lungs.
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Q1) Kyphosis ("hunchback" or "humpback") can be caused by all of the following except:
A) Gout
B) Rheumatic arthritis
C) Rickets
D) Chronic respiratory disease
E) Poor posture
Q2) Explain the process of bone marrow sampling.Why would a physician order such a test, and what abnormalities might the sampling expose?
Q3) ____________________ is an abnormal lateral spinal curvature.
Q4) Meningomyelocele is:
A) A condition usually associated with aging that has a gradual onset as cartilage in the joint softens
B) A congenital condition of the spinal column
C) Softening of the bones caused by vitamin D and calcium deficiency
D) Weakening of the bones, which affects more than 20 million people in the United States
E) A condition of unknown cause in which excessive destruction of bone cells occurs; the long bones become bowed and the flat bones deformed
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Q1) Describe the cycle for energy production in the muscle cells.
Q2) The two forms of hepatitis that can be transmitted through body fluids, including blood, are:
A) Hepatitis I and hepatitis II
B) Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
C) Hepatitis A and hepatitis B
Q3) What are the three parts of the skeletal muscles?
Q4) Describe a healthy fitness program.What happens when a person becomes too concerned with exercise?
Q5) ____________________ is turning the hand or foot upward or forward.
Q6) ____________________ is a circular or semicircular motion.
Q7) Fibromyositis, with regard to the muscular system, is:
A) Faulty growth
B) Uncontrolled muscle contraction of the eyelid
C) Inflammation of the muscle tissues
D) A tumor of the muscle
E) Interior organs
Q8) What is non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Q9) What is the all-or-none law of skeletal muscle contraction?
Q10) Skeletal muscle tissue looks ____________________ under the microscope. Page 19
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Q1) A hemorrhoid is a disorder of the digestive system that causes:
A) Inflammation of the stomach lining
B) Frequent heartburn or chest pain
C) Bad breath
D) A painful burning sensation in the esophagus
E) Painful dilated veins in the lower rectum or anus
Q2) ____________________ may be a mild, acute, or chronic condition resulting from gallstone blockage, disease, injury, or alcoholism.
Q3) Halitosis is a disorder of the digestive system that causes:
A) Inflammation of the stomach lining
B) Frequent heartburn or chest pain
C) Bad breath
D) A painful burning sensation in the esophagus
E) Painful dilated veins in the lower rectum or anus
Q4) ____________________ is weakening of the colon wall, leading to formation of a pouch and causing infection or abscesses if fecal material is trapped.
Q5) Describe the functions of the liver.
Q6) What are some effects of bulimia on the body?
Q7) What consequences are associated with eating raw meat?
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Q1) ____________________, an inflammation of the kidneys, may occur as a result of illness or chronic cystitis.
Q2) The ____________________, small tubes composed of smooth muscle tissue, move the urine from the kidney to the bladder with peristaltic motion.
Q3) Describe the bladder and its function.
Q4) Cystocele, with regard to the urinary system, is:
A) A tumor or swelling of the bladder
B) Examination of the bladder
C) Study of the kidney
D) Fixation of the kidney
E) Removal of the kidney pelvis
Q5) Describe the process of an intravenous pyelogram (IVP).
Q6) The disorder of the urinary system known as a urinary tract infection is:
A) A condition in which the kidneys do not filter blood
B) The absence of urine formation
C) Acute or chronic inflammation of the urethra
D) The inability to urinate when the urge is felt or the bladder is full
E) Usually caused by bacteria and may affect the bladder, kidneys, or prostate
Q7) What is the basic structural unit of the urinary system?
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Q1) The ____________________ produces hormones that regulate the secretion of other glands.
Q2) ____________________ are fatty hormones produced by tissues throughout the body that influence the tissues in the surrounding area.
Q3) The ____________________ are the primary sex glands.
Q4) What hormones are secreted by the pituitary gland and what are their functions?
Q5) What are the causes and effects of menopause?
Q6) What body processes do hormones direct?
Q7) What is the purpose of synthetic growth hormone?
Q8) Choose one disorder of the endocrine system.Delineate the possible causes and the effects of treatment on the body.Indicate the success rate for various treatment options.
Q9) Explain the structure and function of the endocrine system.
Q10) Research the incidence of virilism and explore treatments available to treat this disorder.
Q11) The pea-sized ____________________ is a gland located deep within the brain that produces the hormone melatonin.
Q12) Describe the adrenal glands and their function.
Q13) What seven hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary gland? Page 23
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Q1) Huntington's disease is a disorder of the nervous system that:
A) Results in mental retardation and is the most common disorder of human chromosomes
B) Results in inflammation of the brain caused by a virus, bacteria, or chemical agents
C) Is degenerative and affects brain tissues
D) Causes a person to experience muscle weakness that rapidly moves from the legs to the face
E) Occurs when more cerebrospinal fluid is produced than is absorbed into the circulatory system
Q2) Describe the structure and function of the nervous system.
Q3) Describe three distinct functional changes that result from Parkinson's disease.
Q4) Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are often called little strokes.What are the effects of TIAs? Research the treatment involved and its cost.
Q5) Describe the four major areas of the brain.
Q6) Research the number of head injuries caused by automobile and motorcycle accidents during the past year.Investigate the methods used to help patients regain use of the brain after injury.
Q7) The ____________________ directs coordination, muscle tone, and equilibrium.
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Q1) Ménière's disease, a disorder of the sensory system, is:
A) A nosebleed that results from disease, trauma, or other conditions, such as hypertension, leukemia, or rheumatic fever
B) A clouding of the lens that causes blurred or partial vision
C) Poor vision in one eye, often resulting from better vision in the other eye during infancy or childhood
D) A slow or sudden painless loss of central vision
E) A collection of fluid in the labyrinth of the ear, leading to dizziness, ringing in the ear, or tinnitus pressure and eventual deafness
Q2) Describe the action involved in vision.
Q3) The _________________________ forms tears that keep the eye moist and lubricated.
Q4) The term kinesthetic, with regard to the sensory system, pertains to:
A) Taste
B) The sense of smell
C) Inflammation of the eardrum
D) Disease of the retina
E) The sense of movement
Q5) Investigate services available for people who are afflicted with blindness.
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Q1) Orchitis, a disorder of the reproductive system, is:
A) An inflammation of the testes usually resulting from sexually transmitted infection or mumps
B) A whitish vaginal discharge
C) A narrowing of the foreskin of the glans penis
D) Caused by spirochete bacteria
E) Caused by one type of human papillomavirus
Q2) What is the mortality rate of men afflicted with testicular cancer?
Q3) The ____________________, about 4 to 5 cm in length, produce sperm.
Q4) Cryptorchidism, a disorder of the reproductive system, is:
A) A painless swelling of the scrotum
B) A contagious bacterial infection characterized by painful sores in the genital area
C) The most common sexually transmitted disease
D) Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotal sac before birth
E) An age-associated condition in men in which the prostate grows and may stiffen
Q5) What are some methods to prevent sexually transmitted diseases? Which is the most effective?
Q6) In addition to producing sperm, what is another function of the testes?
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Q1) The mode of transmission for the herpes simplex 1 virus is:
A) A puncture wound
B) Direct contact
C) A mosquito bite
D) Direct contact with saliva
E) Blood to blood, parenteral
Q2) The reservoir for the plague (bubonic) was:
A) People, hair
B) Horses
C) Wild rodents
D) Swine
E) Fish
Q3) Explain how at least two careers in the laboratory field of health care may play a part in the legal system.
Q4) ____________________ deals with the analysis of the serum portion of blood, urine, spinal fluid, and other body fluids.
Q5) What do biochemists study?
Q6) What are some careers in blood banking?
Q7) Explain the responsibilities of a life scientist.
Q8) Discuss the five major groups of microorganisms that cause disease.
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Q1) Explain the interventional radiology technique.
Q2) ____________________ materials may be administered by mouth or rectum or by the intravenous route.
Q3) How do radiological physicists assist physicians?
Q4) By the 1950s several radioactive ____________________ and other energy forms, such as sound waves, were used for diagnosing conditions.
Q5) Mammograms are recommended for whom? What is the test reliability?
Q6) The images produced by ____________________ provide cross-sectional views of the whole body instead of just one region.
Q7) What is a mammogram? Explain the federal law that regulates the procedure.
Q8) How are radioactive compounds transferred to the human body?
Q9) ______________________________ is a new technique that allows noninvasive measurement of cerebral functions.
Q10) Electroencephalography technologists measure the ____________________ of the brain to aid in the diagnosis of disorders.
Q11) Each worker wears a ____________________ that records the level of exposure to radiological materials.
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Q12) What is MRI, and what is its purpose?
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Q1) Dyspnea refers to:
A) Without nutrition
B) Vomiting blood
C) Slow breathing
D) Painful breathing
E) Below the tongue
Q2) Licensed practical or ____________________ nurses complete a 1- to 2-year program and provide personal care under the direction of a physician, dentist, or registered nurse.
Q3) Nurse ____________________ provide anesthesia during obstetrical and surgical procedures under the supervision of an anesthesiologist.
Q4) What are range of motion exercises designed to do?
Q5) ____________________ includes urine, vomit, drainage from wounds, and liquid stool.
Q6) Why might a back rub be prescribed for a patient? Who is responsible for giving the back rub? What is the appropriate method for giving a back rub?
Q7) ____________________ is considered to be anything that is liquid at room temperature and taken by mouth.
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Q1) Opticians :
A) Design, fit, and adapt lenses and frames based on an optical prescription
B) Assist during surgical procedures under the supervision of the surgeon and a registered nurse
C) Examine and test eyes to evaluate vision and detect diseases of the eye for referral to a medical doctor
D) Diagnose and treat diseases and injuries of the eye
E) Working under the direction of a physician, perform about 70% of the duties of the medical doctor
Q2) The podiatric assistant performs routine procedures such as:
A) Patient preparation
B) Equipment sterilization
C) Development of radiographs
D) General office duties
E) All of the above
Q3) Define visual acuity.
Q4) ____________________ treat common foot disorders by using corrective devices, orthopedic shoes, surgery, and medication.
Q5) What is the role of the physician assistant?
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Q1) ____________________ refers to the treatment of gum disease and education for prevention.
Q2) The term buccal refers to:
A) The treatment of disease of the inside of the tooth
B) The cheek
C) The upper jaw and face
D) Inflammation of the gums
E) The lower jaw
Q3) What are some systemic conditions that contribute to the formation of caries and periodontal disease?
Q4) Investigate the effects of smokeless chewing tobacco on oral hygiene.
Q5) When would a patient seek the services of an endodontist?
Q6) Dental _________________________ are the only members of the dental health care team who do not work directly with patients.
Q7) The term maxillofacial pertains to:
A) The treatment of disease of the inside of the tooth
B) The cheek
C) The upper jaw and face
D) Inflammation of the gums
E) The lower jaw
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Q1) What are some conditions that draw consumers to complementary health care?
Q2) Therapies based on wellness and natural treatment are all of the following except:
A) Alternative medicine
B) Holistic medicine
C) Complementary medicine
D) Allopathic medicine
E) Megavitamin therapy
Q3) The ____________________ uses radiography and other tests to diagnose and assess progress in the adjustment.
Q4) What makes acupuncture effective?
Q5) Acupuncture has been in use for:
A) 1,000 years
B) 3,000 years
C) 5,000 years
D) 7,000 years
E) 10,000 years
Q6) India's traditional system of medicine, called ____________________, places equal emphasis on the body, mind, and spirit.
Q7) What interventions does the National Institutes of Health recognize?
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Q1) Many different veterinary careers may be pursued.Choose three careers and explain the pros and cons of each.
Q2) A veterinarian's education includes:
A) A 4-year college degree
B) A 2-year college degree
C) A 4-year degree and completion of study at a 2-year veterinary college
D) A 4-year degree and completion of study at a 4-year veterinary college
Q3) Why do animal health care workers need good health?
Q4) Veterinary assistants are responsible for:
A) Maintaining daily records
B) Maintaining animal living quarters
C) Preparing animals and equipment for examination
D) Observing behavior
E) All of the above
Q5) Support or refute the position of animal advocates who believe that animal research is overused and could be replaced with other methods.Cite a specific case.
Q6) Animal ____________________ raise animals using selective breeding to maintain or improve the traits of existing breeds and to develop new breeds.
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Q1) What is the primary goal of community and social health care workers?
Q2) The social and human service assistant includes workers in many areas, including:
A) Social work
B) Case management aide
C) Community outreach worker
D) a, b, and c
E) None of the above
Q3) The term demographic pertains to:
A) The study of graphs
B) The study of people as a group
C) The study of migration
D) The study of vectors
E) The study of the environment
Q4) If immunizations are not up to date, what happens to schoolchildren? When might one be exempt from immunizations?
Q5) The child life ____________________ works in health care settings and focuses on the emotional and developmental needs of children.
Q6) Describe areas of specialization for professional social workers.
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Q1) What are the reasons for more than half of all visits to a physician's office?
Q2) Psychologists use all of the following treatments except:
A) Drug therapy
B) Personal interviews
C) Intelligence and aptitude testing
D) Observation
E) b, c, and d
Q3) The function of the mental health care team is to provide care and treatment for individuals with disorders of:
A) The mind, emotion, or speech
B) The mind, emotion, or behavior
C) Behavior, speech, or emotion
D) The mind, behavior, or the body
E) Behavior, the body, or speech
Q4) Do you think a person must disclose mental health disorders when seeking a job?
Q5) ____________________ determine the type and severity of the disorder and plan the necessary therapy, which may include medication to treat the problem.
Q6) What is deprivation syndrome?
Q7) Explain the proper care of a confused person.
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Q1) ____________________ mix and dispense drugs according to prescriptions written by physicians, veterinarians, dentists, and other authorized personnel.
Q2) ____________________ modify and provide footwear to patients with imperfectly formed feet.
Q3) Research the federal laws that require accommodations for the disabled.What are the parameters of these laws as they relate to building accessibility?
Q4) Describe the responsibilities of a recreational therapist.
Q5) Visually impaired people may be helped by the services of a(n):
A) Orthotist
B) Prosthetist
C) Audiologist
D) Orientation and mobility specialist
E) Kinesiotherapist
Q6) Aphasia means :
A) A record of hearing
B) Difficulty articulating
C) Stuttering
D) Without speech
E) Babbling
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Q1) The goal of modern emergency care includes:
A) Giving immediate aid at the scene
B) Transporting the victim to a hospital
C) Administering CPR
D) Treating shock
E) All of the above
Q2) Describe the signs, symptoms, and treatment for stroke and seizure activity.Explain the effects of the treatment.
Q3) Explore the training requirements for CPR certification.Once certified, how often must a person reapply, and what training is required?
Q4) What is the proper treatment for shock victims?
Q5) All emergency workers use _________________________ precautions to prevent the spread of microorganisms.
Q6) Five different emergencies may result from temperature alteration.Explain these emergencies and what to do to treat a victim.Include the effects of the treatment.
Q7) Accidents account for 50% of ____________________ in individuals 15 to 24 years of age.
Q8) What are the signs and symptoms of poisoning?
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Q1) Explain the purpose of a health care advocate.
Q2) Who is responsible for records management?
Q3) When might a numeric filing system be beneficial? When might an alphabetical filing system be beneficial?
Q4) List the five forms used in medical records.
Q5) What are some examples of careers in health care administration?
Q6) Group insurance is:
A) Open to employees and dependents
B) Part of the Social Security Act
C) Related to Workers' Compensation
D) Part of CHAMPUS
E) A cost-share program
Q7) How might technology affect the health care industry's management of information? Note benefits as well as drawbacks.
Q8) What are some duties of a health unit coordinator?
Q9) Describe the responsibilities of registered records administrators (RRAs), also known as health information managers (HIMs).
Q10) What are the responsibilities of a medical secretary?
Q11) What potential hazards might result from inaccurate medical records? Page 40
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Q1) Environmental health technicians must:
A) Develop methods to control hazards
B) Test air for radiation
C) Collect and analyze air and water samples
D) Control pollution
E) test air for radiation
Q2) Pitch, or the quality of the sound that is heard, is determined by:
A) The speed of vibrations against the eardrum
B) The intensity of sound waves
C) The form of energy
D) The number of decibels
E) Hearing loss
Q3) Food service workers are responsible for all of the following tasks except:
A) Planning menus
B) Preparing meals
C) Delivering meals
D) Helping a patient select a menu
E) Processing the order
Q4) Name two sources of noise pollution that cause pain.
Q5) ____________________ plan, develop, and execute environmental health programs.
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Q1) Explain mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and its importance.
Q2) Explain the process of gene splicing.
Q3) Write a position paper in support of gene therapy.Include references to the ethical questions surrounding gene therapy.
Q4) Explain the concept of gene therapy and its costs.
Q5) Associates in biotechnology perform complex procedures of DNA ____________________ and cloning.
Q6) Select an event from the Biotechnology Timeline Highlights in Box 35-1 in the textbook and investigate further, using the Internet.What impact has this event had on our world today?
Q7) The international effort to identify and sequence all of the human chromosomes is called:
A) Eugenics
B) Gene splicing
C) Gene mapping
D) Genetic splicing
E) Genetic coding
Q8) DNA segments can be separated in a process called ____________________.
Q9) How might the field of pharmacogenomics affect the future of health care?
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