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This course explores the principles and methodologies used in the analysis and design of health information technology (IT) systems within healthcare environments. Students will learn about key concepts such as requirements gathering, process modeling, workflow analysis, and system architecture as they apply to electronic health records (EHRs), clinical decision support systems, and other healthcare applications. Emphasis is placed on aligning technology solutions with clinical and administrative needs, ensuring data security and compliance with healthcare regulations, and employing best practices for stakeholder engagement and user-centered design. Practical case studies and project-based assignments provide hands-on experience in developing effective and efficient health IT systems tailored to enhance healthcare delivery and outcomes.
Recommended Textbook
Health Information Technology 3rd Edition by Nadinia A. Davis
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14 Chapters
874 Verified Questions
874 Flashcards
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69 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) List and define three health care settings other than acute care and ambulatory care.
Answer: Answers will vary, but should include three of the following:
Rehabilitation--Physical medicine and rehabilitation. Focuses on returning patients to the community at their maximum potential activities of daily living. Common diagnoses include joint replacement, stroke, head injury, and spinal cord injury
Behavioral health--Treatment of patients with diseases of the mind. May be inpatient or outpatient. Includes drug and alcohol detoxification and rehabilitation
Respite--Temporary care for home care patients to relieve the primary caregiver
Hospice--Care for the terminally ill and their families
Long-term care--Resident care for patients who need 24-hour care, but not at an acute level
Q2) Define licensure.
Answer: Licensure is a mandatory government-regulated process. Licensure regulations define facilities, their operating requirements, their organizational requirements, and reporting requirements.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The integrated record is organized by:
A) Source
B) Date
C) Alphabetical order
D) Numerical order
Answer: B
Q2) How does the quantity of health data affect our understanding of what it contains?
Answer: Voluminous data are virtually impossible to understand unless they are put in some context, summarized, or otherwise organized. Before data become meaningful, that is, before they become information, they must be sorted, categorized, labeled, and analyzed.
Q3) All of the following are components of a problem list EXCEPT:
A) Diagnoses
B) Date of initial diagnosis
C) Procedures
D) Discharge date
Answer: D
Q4) The quality of data being correct is called ________.
Answer: accuracy
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Sample Questions
Q1) __________ is the ability of the software and hardware on different machines from different vendors to share data.
Answer: Interoperability
Q2) A nonprofit group composed of providers, vendors, payers, consultants, government groups, and others working to develop standards that will aid the interoperability of the exchange of electronic data in and across health care organizations is the _______.
Answer: HL-7
Q3) Which goal of the ONC includes unified public health surveillance architectures and accelerated research and dissemination of evidence?
A) Inform clinical practice.
B) Interconnect physicians.
C) Personalize care.
D) Improve population health.
Answer: D
Q4) If an unauthorized user gains access to e-PHI, the event is known as a _________.
Answer: breach
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Q1) A problem-focused physical examination focuses on which of the following body areas and organ systems?
A) All body areas and organ systems.
B) Only the head, neck, chest and abdomen
C) Only the patient's general appearance, and his or her vital signs
D) Only the body area(s) or organ system(s) affected
Q2) What is one distinguishing factor between emergent and urgent care?
A) Patient presents with life-threatening condition
B) Social status
C) Health insurance coverage
D) Patient has appointment
Q3) The physician's operative report must be completed:
A) Prior to the procedure
B) During the procedure
C) Immediately after the procedure
D) Within 30 days of the patient's discharge from the hospital
Q4) Name and describe the four scenarios that inpatient admissions correspond to.
Q5) What is the documentation standard for History and Physicals (H&Ps) established by the Joint Commission?
Q6) What are essential elements in the operative report? List at least five.
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Q1) The data quality characteristic associated with the collection of data in its entirety is: A) Completeness
B) Reliability
C) Timeliness
D) Validity
Q2) Important topics to include in staff training on HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) How to guard against threats of computer viruses or hackers and where to report suspicious activity
B) Management of passwords: how often they will change and sanctions for sharing passwords
C) Ways to bypass automatic log-offs so users do not have to enter their password at a terminal
D) Education on how to dispose of protected health information (PHI) information on paper or electronic media such as optical disks
Q3) When the HIM department obtains control of the records, a process must be in place to determine whether all records have been received. Describe this process.
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Q1) DSM-5 resembles _______________ for data analysis of patients with psychiatric disorders, but is not used for reimbursement purposes.
Q2) Current code sets under HIPAA include all of the following EXCEPT:
A) ICD-9-CM, Volumes I, II, and III
B) National Drug Codes
C) HCPCS and CPT-4
D) ICD-10-PCS
Q3) Describe the difference between nomenclature and classification.
Q4) An example of an ICD-10-CM category code is:
A) C1715
B) 0DJD8ZZ
C) I20
D) 43251
Q5) How does case mix analysis help health care providers plan for the future?
Q6) A group of like data elements compiled to provide information about the group is called ___________.
Q7) National drug codes (NDC) is a transaction code set that identifies ____________, ____________, and _____________.
Q8) Name the two levels of HCPCS.
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Q1) The federal law that established Medicare PPS is __________.
Q2) A hospital's case mix index is derived by:
A) Organizing each DRG by rank, with the patients in the most frequently occurring DRG listed as #1, and so forth
B) Adding all DRG relative weights together and then dividing by the total number of cases discharged in a given time period
C) Neither a nor b; case mix index is assigned by the federal government using special software
D) Both a and b
Q3) All of the following statements about APCs are true EXCEPT:
A) Patients may be assigned to more than one APC for an encounter.
B) APC assignment is based on ICD-10-CM principal diagnosis and secondary codes.
C) There are over 1,000 APCs.
D) APCs apply only to ambulatory care.
Q4) After assignment of the MDC, what occurs next in the grouping process?
Q5) The application to an insurance company for reimbursement is called the ______________.
Q6) The system of exchanging professional services instead of paying for services in cash is called ____________.
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Q1) In an open access physician practice, patients do not need:
A) A co-pay
B) A referral
C) An appointment
D) Insurance
Q2) How is the quantity of services measured in ambulatory care?
Q3) Physical medicine and rehabilitation therapy occurs under the direction of a:
A) Phlebotomist
B) Physiatrist
C) Psychiatrist
D) Psychologist
Q4) DEEDS was developed by the _________.
Q5) Multiple physicians who share facilities and resources and may also cooperate in rendering patient care are engaged in a __________.
Q6) The accrediting agency unique to ambulatory care is the _________.
Q7) Describe the characteristics of a physician group practice, including the administrative advantages.
Q8) Describe the unique data collection issues in home health care.
Q9) Health care service rendered in the patient's residence is ___________. Page 10
Q10) List and give examples of hospice services covered by Medicare.
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Q1) In a file room there are eight shelf units with eight shelves each that are 36 inches wide. How many inches of file space are available? Convert this number to feet.
Q2) Which of the following is NOT an alphabetical filing rule?
A) Suffixes are considered after the middle name or initial.
B) All punctuation and possessives are ignored.
C) Abbreviations and shortened names are ignored.
D) Personal names are filed last name, followed by first name, then middle initial.
Q3) Because space is often limited in the facility, health care records may be maintained in alternative storage methods. List each of the methods discussed in Chapter 9.
Q4) An ____________ is capable of searching scanned or digitized paper records using index fields.
Q5) List and describe the filing furniture used to store paper-based health care records. What measurements are important in the design of a file area?
Q6) The filing method of organizing folders in numerical order is _____________ filing.
Q7) __________are networks that use RAIDs and other storage technologies.
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Sample Questions
Q1) The length of stay for Patient F is _______________.
Q2) The length of stay for Patient A is _______________.
Q3) Suppose that you want to display the number of deaths due to prostate cancer for the years 2000 through 2009. What graphic technique would you choose?
A) Line graph
B) Histogram
C) Pie chart
D) Bar chart
Q4) A database of specific cancer or trauma information is an example of a ____________.
Q5) Describe circumstances in which a department in the health care organization may request health information or statistics.
Q6) Frequency distributions that are not symmetrical are ______________ .
Q7) Identify information that must be reported by a health care facility to the Department of Vital Statistics.
Q8) The length of stay for Patient H is _______________.
Q9) The length of stay for Patient B is _______________.
Q11) Compute the bed occupancy rate (A&C). Page 13
Q10) The diagnosis index may be ____________ to remove patient identifiers.
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Sample Questions
Q1) Ensuring appropriate, efficient, and effective patient care is a process of ___________.
Q2) Each month the tumor registry personnel are required to report the ____________ of breast cancer for the facility. They report this statistic by determining the number of new cases of breast cancer for the month.
Q3) What is the NCQA and its mission?
Q4) A quality improvement effort regarding completion of the patient advance directive would require an _______________ team.
Q5) Which of the following is an important process in the determination of the facility's compliance with documentation standards?
A) Physician profile review
B) Record review
C) Medication review
D) PDCA
Q6) Health information may be used in ___________to support the plaintiff's claim.
Q7) To improve quality according to a standard, a health care facility may use ___________, the comparison of itself to a similar or superior performer.
Q8) __________ refers to disease within a population.
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Q1) Individually identifiable health information that is transmitted or maintained in any form or medium by covered entities or their business associates is __________.
Q2) The new nursing supervisor is discussing her plans for the unit with you. She wants to hang a board on the wall of the nursing unit listing each patient's name, room number, working diagnosis, and medication schedule. You advise her that:
A) This is a good idea, since it will facilitate coordination of care.
B) It is a violation of confidentiality to display patient-specific information in a public place.
C) This is not a good idea, because it is a violation of prospective consent.
D) The physicians will not like it because it will show everyone who has the most patients.
Q3) List two types of "sensitive" records. Describe what type(s) of additional controls should be in place to manage these records.
Q4) How are security breaches in electronic health records tracked?
A) Audit trails
B) Indexing
C) All health care personnel should have access to all patient medical records.
D) None of the above
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Q1) ____________ is the amount of work produced by an employee in a given time frame.
Q2) The HIM department is allowed 400 hours per week. This equals how many FTEs?
A) 4.5
B) 22.5
C) 10
D) 45
Q3) The HIM department is allowed $250 per month for supplies. At the end of the third quarter, the department has spent $3000 on supplies. This means that the HIM department is:
A) Under budget YTD by $750
B) Over budget YTD by $300
C) Exactly as it should be on budget for supplies
D) Over budget by $250
Q4) List and describe some of the equipment and supplies necessary in the HIM department. Provide at least five of each.
Q5) What is the difference between the human resources department and human resources within the HIM department? What kind of impact does human resources have on the HIM department and the rest of the health care facility?
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Q1) All of the following are leadership qualities EXCEPT:
A) Delegate responsibilities
B) Encourage continuous improvement
C) Maintain a "closed door" policy
D) Lead by example
Q2) ___________ provides documentation of the message intended for the recipient.
Q3) Explain three aspects of leadership and provide an example of how they can be accomplished.
Q4) Which of the following organization orientation topics might NOT be presented by an HIM employee?
A) Safety
B) Infection control
C) Marketing strategies
D) Confidentiality
Q5) ________ may be required after attaining a position, credential, or degree to keep those persons knowledgeable in core content areas.
Q6) How is development different from training?
Q7) Why is it important for HIM employees to be aware of infection control?
Q8) What qualities do successful teams have? Name at least three qualities.
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