Health Information Technology Exam Solutions
Course Introduction
Health Information Technology explores the use of modern information systems, software, and technology to manage healthcare data and improve the quality, efficiency, and safety of patient care. The course examines electronic health records, healthcare databases, data privacy and security, health informatics, and regulatory requirements. Through real-world case studies and practical applications, students learn how technology supports clinical and administrative workflows, facilitates data-driven decision making, and enhances patient outcomes across diverse healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 3rd Edition by Dana
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30 Chapters
838 Verified Questions
838 Flashcards
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Page 2
C. McWay
Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46483
Sample Questions
Q1) Standards for human behavior are established through _____.
A)concepts
B)laws
C)moral principles
D)societal ideals
Answer: B
Q2) Primary sources of public law include _____.
A)law of contracts or torts
B)law of obligations
C)policies and procedures
D)statutes and penal law
Answer: D
Q3) Criminal law is subdivided into _____ categories.
A)felony and misdemeanor
B)ordinal and substantive
C)procedural and administrative
D)substantive and procedural
Answer: D
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Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System: Part A
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The executive branch of the government:
A)applies the doctrine of stare decisis and res judicata.
B)functions to enforce and administer laws.
C)interprets law using an alternate resolution of dispute (ADR).
D)is known as Congress.
Answer: B
Q2) Public law _____.
A)excludes regulatory statutes, penal law, and other laws of public order
B)includes the law of contracts or torts and the law of obligations
C)involves relationships between individuals
D)is subdivided into administrative, constitutional and criminal law
Answer: D
Q3) Zoning, building, or public safety ordinances are examples of laws passed at:
A)a local level
B)an executive level
C)congressional hearings
D)the state legislature
Answer: A
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4
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true of a supreme court, except in New York State?
A)The supreme court is a court of last resort.
B)Any party dissatisfied with a decision may take their course to the supreme court.
C)The supreme court must hear any case requested.
D)Supreme court judges are nominated and confirmed by Congress.
Answer: A
Q2) Which is associated with satisfying the judgment?
A)Alternative dispute resolution
B)Authority by which courts decide a case
C)Diversity jurisdiction
D)When the winning party is paid
Answer: D
Q3) Electronically stored information (ESI) includes all forms of electronic data, and it is the principal subject matter for _____.
A)acquisition of digital media
B)computer database management
C)early case assessment
D)electronic discovery
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures: Part A
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What term refers to the actions of a party who processes data to make efforts to prevent routine destructions and preserve electronically stored data?
A)court order
B)litigation hold
C)restraining order
D)subpoena duces tecum
Q2) Spoliation of evidence occurs as a result of _____.
A)claims that had been injured by a defective product, which was discarded or lost
B)negative evidentiary inference that is irrelevant to an ongoing legal proceeding
C)unconsciousness of guilt or lack of motivation to prevent evidence from being used
D)wrongful destruction or alteration of evidence and/or failure to preserve data
Q3) The answer to a complaint that is made by the defendant is called the _____.
A)appeal
B)decision
C)interrogatory
D)written response
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An approved method to challenge the validity of a subpoena duces tecum called a
A)litigation hold
B)motion to quash
C)order to deny
D)response to interrogation
Q2) A show cause order _____.
A)authorizes the disclosure of information that would otherwise be prohibited by statute and regulation
B)directs a person or organization to appear in court and explain why the court should not take a proposed action
C)is issued to require a witness to appear in court and/or to present certain documents and other things
D)results in the production of a particular record at trial and requires the records custodian to testify
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A show cause order _____.
A)authorizes the disclosure of information that would otherwise be prohibited by statute and regulation
B)directs a person or organization to appear in court and explain why the court should not take a proposed action
C)is issued to require a witness to appear in court and/or to present certain documents and other things
D)results in the production of a particular record at trial and requires the records custodian to testify
Q2) A command issued by a court or other authorized official to appear and/or present certain documents and other things is called a(n) _____.
A)court order
B)litigation hold
C)order of preservation
D)subpoena
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8
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tarasoff v.Regents of University of California held that:
A)A psychotherapist had a duty to warn a person that his patient was making threats to harm a third person.
B)The hospital had a duty to require that patients be examined by members of the hospital staff who were skilled in the treatment required.
C)The hospital did not apply its own credentialing rules and, therefore, did not follow its own standard of care in determining the qualifications of physicians practicing at the facility.
D)When a physician withdraws from the contractual relationship with a patient, he must provide the patient with reasonable notice to obtain a new physician or alternative treatment.
Q2) The physician-patient relationship is established when the patient _____.
A)is assigned a primary care physician by the third-party payer
B)negotiates the cost of health care services with a physician
C)presents to the physician for the purpose of receiving health care
D)requests health care and the physician agrees to render health care
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9
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability: Part A
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Actual damages are:
A)awarded to punish the defendant by making an example of him.
B)compensation for actual loss and awarded to make the plaintiff whole.
C)small amounts of money that vindicate a right or for minimal injury.
D)usually not awarded in medical malpractice cases.
Q2) EMTALA legislation applies to:
A)any hospital-patient relationship that is established by the hospital or the patient.
B)emergency cases that require patient stabilization prior to discharge or transfer.
C)patients who request treatment, and physicians who agree to treat patients.
D)physicians who are undergoing the initial hospital credentialing process.
Q3) The intentional detention or restraint of a patient against his or her own will without any legal justification is called _____.
A)breach of contract
B)false imprisonment
C)intentional infliction
D)medical abandonment
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Justice refers to the obligation to be fair to all people. Comparative justice refers to:
A)Balancing the competing interests of individuals and groups against one another
B)Determining how HMOs should be reimbursed
C)Creating a staffing formula or acuity scale to determine the nurse-patient ratio
D)Selecting how Medicaid benefits should be provided
Q2) When comparing ethics with etiquette, laws, morals, and values, ethics are based on
A)Legislation
B)Philosophy
C)Religion
D)Society
Q3) The fair distribution of benefits and burdens refers to _____.
A)Beneficence
B)Comparative justice
C)Distributive justice
D)Fidelity
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Faithfulness, loyalty, and devotion to one's obligations are associated with _____.
A)fidelity
B)justice
C)morals
D)values
Q2) The obligation to be fair to all people is considered _____.
A)fidelity
B)justice
C)morals
D)values
Q3) Consequentialism is also known as _____.
A)deontology
B)justice
C)privacy
D)utilitarianism
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Page 12
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges
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Sample Questions
Q1) Patient rights involve the _____.
A)Concept that the physician is permitted to arrive at the choice of whether to order or withhold a procedure or service
B)Legal authority that the patient is to be provided with health care under the constraints of the insuring organization
C)Patient has complete autonomy as to which healthcare services he receives since he is paying the insurance premium
D)Recognition that the patient is entitled to determine for herself the extent to which she will receive or forego treatment
Q2) Which is an ethical challenges related to coding?
A)Assigning multiple codes to increase DRG payments.
B)Bundling codes and charges where appropriate
C)Coding at lower levels in accordance with guidelines.
D)Focusing on accuracy to improve reimbursement.
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Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the group formed within an organization or profession to evaluate current guidelines and establish new guidelines?
A)Credentials committee
B)Ethics committee
C)Patient rights committee
D)Safety committee
Q2) When monitoring of employee conduct is performed as a role of ethics in supervision, the supervisor is _____.
A)accepting responsibility for mistakes made by employees and setting a good example for others to follow
B)establishing a system of checks and balances to determine nonconformity with standards of performance
C)regularly communicating policies and procedures, which include ethical guidelines, to the employees.
D)using rewards for ethical behavior demonstrated by employees and punishment for unethical behavior.
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Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) The effort to improve the human species through control of hereditary factors is called _____.
A)Eugenics
B)Euthanasia
C)Genetics
D)Surrogacy
Q2) Which is true of DNA mapping?
A)Cannot provide information to develop new treatments
B)Definitely leads to practices incompatible with free will
C)Is cost-prohibitive, regardless of methods used
D)Will have an impact on disease prevention
Q3) The study of ethical issues resulting from technologic and scientific advances is called _____.
A)Bioethics
B)Eugenics
C)Medical technology
D)Scientific method
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Page 15
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a document executed by the patient before health care is anticipated and which provides direction as to the type of medical treatment the patient does and does not want if s/he cannot make the decisions?
A)enduring power of attorney
B)equal dignity rule
C)living will
D)power of attorney
Q2) The use of animal tissue for organ transplants is called a(n) _____.
A)allograft
B)autograft
C)heterograft
D)homograft
Q3) In 2008, the U.S.Congress passed _____ legislation that protects the confidentiality of genetic information?
A)ARRA
B)EMTALA
C)GINA
D)PSDA
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of personal information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operative reports
D)Third-party payer information
Q2) When an error is made in the healthcare record, _____.
A)An addendum to the EHR or paper-based record should be documented, leaving the original entry in place
B)Eliminating the erroneous information by using correction fluid in a paper-based record is an acceptable practice
C)Make sure that the erroneous entry is deleted in its entirety, and the correct information is entered
D)The correction to the record should be made by the healthcare provider's supervisor to enhance reliability
Q3) After the destruction of records, a certificate of destruction ____.
A)Applies only if the destruction of records was performed by a third party
B)Indicates what was destroyed as well as the method of destruction
C)May implicate the healthcare organization and providers in a legal action
D)Often proves unnecessary because the health records no longer exist
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Page 17
Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of personal information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operative reports
D)Third-party payer information
Q2) When an incorrect entry is documented in the electronic health record (EHR), the responsible provider documents the correction as an addendum in a new document and a(n) _____ links the original document (that contains the incorrect entry) to the addendum.
A)computer code
B)e-signature
C)nursing entry
D)physician order
Q3) Which is an example of social information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operations reports
D)Third-party payer information
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent
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Sample Questions
Q1) The confidentiality of HIV information _____.
A)Does not require disclosure to the patient that re-release of such information was performed if in the best interest of the general public
B)Is protected in the same manner as any other type of protected health information, including inpatient stays and outpatient encounters
C)Means a positive test result can be disclosed without prior consent to protect the public if actions are taken to protect the patient's identity
D)Restricts identification of the patient tested and the reason for testing, but not results of the test, whether positive or negative
Q2) Which statutes a category of confidentiality protection at the state level?
A)Common law liability
B)Mandated redisclosure
C)Professional disclosure
D)Physician-patient privilege
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which applies to government records and mandates compliance upon request unless the information requested is excluded in the federal statute?
A)FOIA
B)HIPAA
C)Nationwide Security Framework
D)Privacy Act of 1974
Q2) The right to privacy is not specifically mentioned in the U.S.Constitution, but the U.S.Supreme Court has determined that a fundamental right to privacy exists.However, the patient's interests versus the public's right to know must be balanced and sometimes the courts will find that although a patient has a right to privacy, that right is overridden by the public's right to know, such as in the _____ court case.
A)Bing v.Thunig
B)Darling v.Charleston Hospital
C)Schindler Schiavo v.Schiavo
D)Whalen v.Roe
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regards to the method of disclosure, the law requires that it be made by:
A)Any method consistent with professional guidelines and institutional practices
B)Electronic transmission that includes the application of encryption software
C)Mail or other shipping method that verifies the receipt of the patient records
D)Portable media such as CD-ROM, DVD, portable hard drive, or thumb drive
Q2) A parent will not be granted access to the health care record of his or her child who has not yet reached the age of majority when the minor child _____.
A)Can lawfully obtain health care without parental consent
B)Is pursuing her GED online and living with her parents
C)Seeks treatment for an injury sustained in an auto accident
D)Violates terms of her court-assigned probation and runs away
Q3) Health care information is owned by the _____.
A)facility
B)government agency
C)patient
D)treating physician
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) An authorization to release healthcare information is signed _____ the dates of treatment for which the disclosure request is made.
A)before or after
B)following
C)prior to
D)without knowing
Q2) According to HIPAA, patients are allowed to amend their own medical records.If a state law prohibits patients from amending their own medical records, the result is
A)a mediator is appointed by the federal Department of Health and Human Services to review the situation
B)HIPAA preempts the state law, and patients in that state are permitted to amend their medical records
C)patients are allowed to obtain legal counsel to represent them during an appeal of the decision
D)state law preempts HIPAA, and patients in that state are not permitted to amend their medical records
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records
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Sample Questions
Q1) Federal confidentiality requirements are provided to patient when _____.
A)Facilities receive a discovery request pursuant to a lawsuit
B)Patients are admitted to a substance abuse treatment program
C)They are discharged from a substance abuse treatment program
D)Payers request records to verify treatment prior to approving payment
Q2) Two main differences between mental health records and general health records include _____.
A)Accurate provider documentation as well as timely entries are stricter for mental health records as compared with general health records
B)Additional requirements for patient record content and more stringent privacy requirements are associated with mental health records
C)Medical record retention regulations and policies as well as issues related to timely entries are more stringent for general health records
D)The accuracy of entries in both types of patient records as well as consents required for the release of information are subject to HIPAA regulations
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Audit activities performed by qualified organizations and individuals do not require written patient authorization when access is provided to:
A)a research scientist who writes an article that includes case studies about a limited number of patients with a rare disease, all of whom live in the same town.
B)individuals who are professionally qualified to conduct research studies but who have not yet been determined as qualified by the treatment program director.
C)members of the staff at federal, state, and local governmental agencies.
D)persons who work for quality information organizations (QIOs), third-party payers, or private organizations that provide financial assistance.
Q2) The majority of HIV testing is performed on a voluntary basis due to the _____.
A)ethical concept of autonomy and individual self-determination
B)handicap discrimination law, which classifies HIV and AIDS as a handicap.
C)mandatory enforcement of court-ordered testing to protect the public good.
D)provision that anonymous testing is allowed by all of the states.
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Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Information regarding the competence and conduct of health care practitioners and providers is _____.
A)does not include actions against a provider's license
B)excludes information regarding malpractice payments
C)maintained by individual states of the United States
D)reported to the National Practitioner Data Bank
Q2) Which is an example of a utilization management function?
A)Emergency room triage
B)Gatekeeping
C)Preadmission testing
D)Research protocol screening
Q3) If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record, _____ applies
A)attorney work product privilege
B)Behringer Estate v.Medical Center at Princeton
C)business record exceptions
D)Federal Rule of Evidence 502
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Page 25
Chapter
12:
Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to importance, an incident report is _____.
A)equally significant for defendant's and plaintiff's attorney
B)more significant for defendant's attorney
C)of no significance for either defendant's or plaintiff's attorney
D)significant to the patient who gets a copy of the report
Q2) Incident reports are covered by the _____ rule of evidence and business record exception, and they may or may not be admitted as evidence.
A)circumstantial
B)hearsay
C)statutory
D)tort
Q3) A risk manager would typically have a _____ background.
A)administration
B)billing
C)legal
D)monetary
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26
Chapter 13: Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Beyond the responsibility for maintaining protected health information (PHI), health information managers will not be responsible for _____.
A)inappropriate access to genetic information
B)pharmacy calculations
C)statistics
D)vendor contracts
Q2) The electronic authentication of medical record entries _____.
A)does not hold the author of the entries accountable
B)is recognized by national accreditation organizations
C)is required by federal and state legislatures in the U.S.
D)requires paper record as a backup to verify authenticity
Q3) To be able to establish foundation, the health information manager needs to _____.
A)Be familiar with computer system hardware and software used
B)Ensure reliability and validity of data using QM and UM measures
C)Establish policies that govern how corrections in the record are made
D)Know the manner in which patient healthcare data is recorded
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27
Chapter 13: Information Systems: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The use of electronic communications and information technologies to provide or support clinical care at a distance is called _____.
A)digital imaging
B)electronic indexing
C)email communication
D)telemedicine
Q2) The careless handling of patient information house in an electronic health record (EHR) creates concern about _____.
A)accreditation standards
B)professional codes of ethics
C)security safeguards
D)unauthorized expenditures
Q3) Which is a characteristic of the electronic health record (EHR)?
A)Access to more detailed and sophisticated clinical data.
B)Greater consecutive availability of clinical data among the health care team.
C)Savings in the electronic amount of storage space required
D)Tools that help increase medical mistakes, costs, and improvements to patient care
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28
Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) When employees have password access to medical records, _____.
A)Employee have a responsibility to allow the truth to be shared with the public
B)It is acceptable to review a celebrity's chart because of their implied consent
C)Released information is limited to that which has been authorized by the patient
D)The employer has implied that employees have control over release of records
Q2) The primary responsibility for investigating claims of fraud committed against the military's health insurance programs is the responsibility of the _____.
A)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
B)Defense Criminal Investigative Service
C)DHHS Office of the Inspector General
D)Office of the Surgeon General
Q3) Compliance programs seek to _____.
A)Enhance health information management functions in organizations
B)Maximize reimbursement from federally funded healthcare programs
C)Prevent and detect conduct that does not conform to applicable laws
D)Punish healthcare providers who engage in illegal billing practices
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the law enforcement agency that fights fraud and abuse with its purpose Federal agency whose authority extends beyond the jurisdiction of government programs.
A)Federal Bureau of Investigation
B)Office of Inspector General
C)State Attorney General
Q2) Match the law enforcement agency that fights fraud and abuse with its purpose. Authorized to bring civil actions related to healthcare fraud and abuse (within its own jurisdiction).
A)Federal Bureau of Investigation
B)Office of Inspector General
C)State Attorney General
Q3) Match the type of facility or service with the appropriate law. Clinical laboratories
A)Stark I
B)Stark II
Q4) Match the examples of fraud and abuse with the appropriate type. Erroneously reporting codes (e.g., missing fifth digit)
A)Abuse
B)Fraud
Page 30
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) A living wage law requires employers to pay _____.
A)Employees the federal minimum wage
B)Health insurance for all employees
C)More than the Federal minimum wage
D)Workers even if illegal aliens
Q2) Once a president has signed an executive order, it goes into effect as law when it has been _____.
A)Adopted by the individual states
B)Marked up by conference committee
C)Published in the Federal Register
D)Ratified by Congress
Q3) Which is a written list of a profession's values and standards of conduct?
A)Bylaws
B)Code of ethics
C)Policies and procedures
D)Rules and regulations
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Regardless of organizational setting, all employees are covered by HIPAA privacy rules.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Match the Federal legislation with its definition. Regulates employee pensions by establishing minimum standards and for pension and health/life insurance plans.
A)Consumer Credit Protection Act
B)Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C)Federal Labor Standards Act
D)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
E)Occupational Safety and Health Act
Q3) Match the Federal legislation with its definition. Protects employees from working excessive hours and from receiving substandard wages.
A)Consumer Credit Protection Act
B)Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C)Federal Labor Standards Act
D)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
E)Occupational Safety and Health Act
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