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Health Information Systems explores the design, implementation, and management of information systems within healthcare settings. This course examines the integration of electronic health records (EHRs), health informatics, data standards, privacy and security regulations, and the use of technology to improve patient care, administrative efficiency, and clinical decision-making. Students will gain insights into the challenges of adopting health IT, the importance of interoperability, and future trends shaping digital healthcare environments.
Recommended Textbook
Health Information Management of a Strategic Resource 5th Edition by Mervat Abdelhak
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18 Chapters
1158 Verified Questions
1158 Flashcards
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83 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Each of the following has been an influential factor in how health care has been delivered in the United States except
A) Increasing cost of health care.
B) Growing geriatric population.
C) Advances in technology.
D) Demand for jobs by health professionals.
Answer: D
Q2) The organizational structure of the medical staff in a 250-bed hospital would most likely include which of the following?
A) Officers
B) Committees
C) Clinical services
D) All of the above
Answer: D
Q3) Which entity approves medical staff appointments?
A) Medical staff organization
B) Executive committee
C) Credentials committee
D) Governing body
Answer: D
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Q1) What is the basis for initial certification as a health information practitioner?
A) Formal education
B) Examination
C) Work experience.
D) Both a and b
Answer: D
Q2) Which requirements apply to certifying health care facilities for the treatment of Medicare and Medicaid patients?
A) Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act
B) Omnibus Reconciliation Act
C) Conditions of Participation
D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Answer: C
Q3) Fifty component state associations plus associations in the District of Columbia and Puerto Rico comprise the organizational structure of American Health Information Management Association.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True

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42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describes clinical drugs.
A)HL7
B)DICOM
C)NCPDP
D)IEEE 1073
E)CHI
F)RxNorm
G)SNOMED
H)ASTM 1384
I)LOINC
J)HIPAA transactions
Answer: F
Q2) Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality mandates the use of health care data standards to improve the quality of care.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q3) List two benefits of using health information technology applications.
Answer: Improved quality of care, better patient access, improved patient satisfaction, increased system efficiencies
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121 Flashcards
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Q1) Typically, data should be collected for a pre-specified, identified purpose and user.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The RAI is used to capture assessment data every 14 days in long-term care.
A)True
B)False
Q3) An integrated primary patient record is organized by
A) Date.
B) Source.
C) Problem.
D) None of the above.
Q4) Data uniformity is one characteristic of a health care data set.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Name a data element comprising financial data.
Q6) Computer views should guide the data collection and data validation process.
A)True
B)False
Q7) Name a data element comprising clinical data.
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Q1) Name one component of a quality proposal for acquisitions approval.
Q2) Alphabetical filing systems can be maintained without a separate master patient index.
A)True B)False
Q3) Referring to the information above, on what date was Mr. States discharged from his second admission?
Q4) Alias names are recommended for use in an MPI because they do not draw attention to the individual.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A numeric identification system provides more security for the patient's health information than an alphabetical identification system does.
A)True B)False
Q6) List an advantage of using color coding in a storage and retrieval system.
Q7) When one medical record number is assigned to a patient during the first encounter and is used for all future encounters, this is called

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Sample Questions
Q1) There is no easy way to check for data and information consistencies in paper records.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Copy and paste refer to duplicating selected text or graphics and inserting it in another location, leaving the original changed.
A)True
B)False
Q3) There have been a number of barriers to successful health information exchange. Which of the following is tied to technology?
A) Business case
B) Privacy and security
C) Lack of funding
D) Competitive disadvantage
E) All of the above
Q4) A repository of selected electronic information from several transaction systems such as clinical laboratory and dietary is called a(n) ____________________.
Q5) Name one use of secondary data.
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Q1) Which of the following coding systems is a nomenclature?
A) ATLAS
B) ICD-0
C) RBRVS
D) SNOMED
Q2) Write one reason why there is a need to upgrade ICD-9-CM to ICD-10-CM/PCS.
Q3) Free text is preferable in describing health care because it is a more concise and efficient way of storing detailed information and transmitting the information to others.
A)True
B)False
Q4) List the five axes used by the LOINC naming nomenclature.
Q5) Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) is used to query the National Library of Medicine's database.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Classifications are intended to aggregate and group information.
A)True
B)False
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Q7) This classification system classifies neoplasms: ______________________.

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Q1) What is the program called that contains the set of instructions that tells the computer what to do?
Q2) An example of a relational database management system in personal computer software is
A) PowerPoint.
B) Word.
C) Access.
D) Excel.
Q3) Define an ERP.
Q4) All the following are data input devices except A) Printer.
B) Tablet.
C) Smartphone.
D) Keyboard.
Q5) Standard query language (SQL) is designed to enable queries to databases. A)True
B)False
Q6) What is one advantage of using thin-clients when upgrading a software application?
Q7) List the two components of a two-tier architecture.
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Q1) All of the following are True about the RFP process EXCEPT
A) Because the RFP is so complete, vendor demonstrations and site visits are usually not necessary.
B) Because system evaluation is required, end-users should be included.
C) Because review of responses to RFPs can be time-consuming, RFPs are only sent to a few vendors.
D) Because the RFP may be used as part of the system contract, it should be complete and accurate.
Q2) In the absence of clear principles and policies concerning information management, staff will always work it out.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Attributes describe both entities and relationships in a database.
A)True
B)False
Q4) These tools need to be updated on a regular basis to assure they meet the latest discoveries, medication interactions, and any quality-of-care issues. They are called ___________________________ tools.
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Q1) If a hospital has an SMR of 2.53 for a specific DRG, this means that the hospital has a _____% higher mortality for the DRG than was expected.
A) 153
B) 2.53
C) 1.0
D) 50
Q2) Data collected from births, adoptions, marriages, divorces, deaths, and fetal deaths are all considered
A) Registers of events.
B) Vital statistics.
C) Public health statistics.
D) Epidemiological data.
Q3) The ranking of variables according to some criterion is called _____ data.
A) Nominal
B) Ordinal
C) Discrete
D) Continuous
Q4) A whole number divided in 100 parts is a ____________________.
Q5) The ____________________ is the average number of observations.
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Q1) Estimate of relative risk
A)Cross-sectional study
B)Descriptive study
C)Analytic study
D)Case-control study
E)Odds ratio
F)Relative risk
G)Prospective study
H)Clinical trial
I)Life-table analysis
J)Outcome measures
Q2) What should be included in the significance section of a research proposal?
A) Goals or objectives
B) Importance of the research project
C) Step-by-step account of what will be done in the study
D) Data collection instrument
Q3) Outcomes research focuses on measures of mortality.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) What does pay for performance mean?
A) Denial of payment when undesirable clinical outcomes occur
B) Negotiated payment for large-scale providers
C) Sliding scale payment based on severity of illness in the target population
D) Financial rewards for providers who achieve specific quality goals
Q2) Which of the following is a primary benefit of analyzing aggregate data?
A) Data capture is more efficient.
B) Random errors can be eliminated.
C) Bias is more easily detected.
D) Patterns of events or occurrences can be identified.
Q3) Which of the following is a primary data source for patient safety reports?
A) Utilization review documents
B) Master patient index
C) Credentials files
D) Incident reports
Q4) The "best" process solutions often are the quickest fixes, those that can be implemented in a short time period.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Use of aggregate data from various payers is limited because of
A) Differing providers and coding systems from provider data.
B) Lack of legal right to data for encounter information.
C) Differing diagnostic code requirements for reimbursement.
D) Lack of data sharing agreements and differing data elements for the longitudinal records.
Q2) Compared with claims data, the value of registry data is of
A) Higher quality.
B) Lower quality.
C) Higher consistency.
D) Lower consistency.
Q3) The AIS scores would be found in which of the following registries?
A) Trauma registry
B) Cancer registry
C) Birth registry
D) Diabetes registry
Q4) The primary goal of a hospital-based cancer registry is the improvement of care to the cancer patient.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) The top leading current cause of death in the United States as of 2007 is
A) Influenza and pneumonia.
B) Heart disease.
C) Cerebrovascular.
D) Malignant neoplasms.
Q2) Injuries and violence are the leading cause of death for individuals aged
A) 1-30 years
B) 1-44 years
C) 25-44 years
D) 45-70 years
Q3) Females age 13-15 are encouraged to get the HPV vaccine. The target for HPV in Healthy People 2020 is 80%. The current reported level (2008) is approximately
A) 10-15%.
B) 21-25%.
C) 16-20%.
D) 26-30%.
Q4) HEDIS reporting combines reference data from the CDC with HEDIS data.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Eradicating tuberculosis is an example of a _____________________goal.
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Q1) Dr. Snow failed to apply the standards of skill, learning, and care expected of physicians in good standing when treating his patient, Mr. Rocky States. What is the legal term for this act of omission or commission?
A) Res ipsa loquitur
B) Respondeat superior
C) Assault and battery
D) Malpractice
Q2) In deciding malpractice cases against physicians in highly technical cases, the jury uses the standard of the "reasonable man."
A)True
B)False
Q3) The Patient Self-Determination Act requires that health care organizations inquire whether patients have advance directives.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Minors who are married, living away from home, responsible for their own support, and who the law recognizes as being able to make their own decisions and agreements are generally called ____________________.
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Q1) Explain how the tool shown above would be useful in human resources planning.
Q2) The major purpose of suspension as a disciplinary measure is to punish the employee for his or her conduct.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A method of interviewing that ensures each interview presents exactly the same questions in the same order is a
A) Structured interview.
B) Stress interview.
C) Group interview.
D) Behavioral interview.
Q4) Aptitude and psychological tests are performance-based tests.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The critical incident method of employee performance evaluation emphasizes the documentation of unacceptable behavior.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What does the Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act make illegal?
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Q1) In change management, "managing change" refers to the making of changes in a planned and managed or systematic fashion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The task of strategic planning in an organization would most likely be completed by A) Top management.
B) Middle managers.
C) Consultants.
D) Supervisors.
Q3) When the transcription supervisor at Mercy Hospital calls three of her transcription manager colleagues to find out about their productivity standards for transcriptionists, she is using what management tool?
Q4) When planning a project implementation in a small physician office, the _________________describes how the EHR system will function when fully implemented.
Q5) Effective strategic planning requires environmental forecasting. A)True B)False
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Q1) The finance officer will calculate the _____ for the proposed imaging system to determine the cash flows for the project.
A) Ratio analysis
B) Operating margin ratio
C) Net operating revenue
D) Net present value
Q2) The current ratio can be calculated by using current liabilities as the denominator.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The financial accountant will add a designated account to the ____________________ for processing each transaction for the new imaging service.
Q4) The health information manager wants to calculate the accounts receivable turnover for the new imaging service. To do this, the manager will need what numerical data for the numerator of this equation?
Q5) Define the terms variable costs and fixed costs. Give examples of each.
Q6) Can an organization be effective but not efficient? Discuss the circumstances in which this could be True.
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