Health Information Privacy and Security Exam Practice Tests
Course Introduction
This course explores the principles, regulations, and best practices related to the privacy and security of health information. Students will examine relevant legislation such as HIPAA, GDPR, and their global counterparts, understanding how legal, ethical, and technical frameworks protect patient data in healthcare settings. The curriculum covers risk assessment, data governance, cybersecurity threats, secure system design, and the responsibilities of healthcare professionals in safeguarding electronic health records. Through case studies and practical exercises, learners gain critical skills to manage and protect sensitive health information in compliance with current standards and emerging trends.
Recommended Textbook
Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 3rd Edition by Dana C. McWay
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30 Chapters
838 Verified Questions
838 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The powers of government include a _____.
A)division of power that allows one branch to dominate another when deemed necessary
B)judicial, legislative and congressional branch headed by Congress
C)provision that each branch may exercise powers involving other branches
D)system of checks and balances that is referred to as the separation of powers
Answer: D
Q2) Which source of law is considered the fundamental law of a nation or state?
A)administrative regulations
B)constitution
C)judicial decisions
D)statutes
Answer: B
Q3) Which describes the necessity for a hospital to follow its own medical staff by-laws of policy?
A)Joint Commission standards
B)mandates from federal govt.
C)quasi-legal requirement
D)state board legislation
Answer: C
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Chapter
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Sample Questions
Q1) Res judicata is a doctrine that courts are subject to, and it means
A)a matter [already] judged.
B)let the master answer.
C)to let the decision stand.
D)utmost good faith.
Answer: A
Q2) The US Constitution can be modified with _____.
A)amendments
B)majority Senate vote
C)popular culture
D)presidential order
Answer: A
Q3) Legislative proposals are called _____.
A)amendments
B)bills
C)ordinances
D)torts
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures
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37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When parties to a dispute come together to present evidence in court, the formal setting with authority to adjudicate claims or disputes is called a bench or jury _____.
A)appellate proceeding
B)hearing
C)trial
D)warrant
Answer: C
Q2) Cases that have subject matter jurisdiction and that are limited by the U.S.Constitution and statute have _____ jurisdiction.
A)diversity
B)federal question
C)general
D)supreme
Answer: B
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A counterclaim that is included in a defendant's answer is filed against the _____.
A)court clerk
B)plaintiff
C)third-party defendant
D)zealous witness
Q2) Which is associated with satisfying the judgment?
A)Alternative dispute resolution
B)Authority by which courts decide a case
C)Diversity jurisdiction
D)When the winning party is paid
Q3) The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP) govern all forms of discovery that is performed in federal court; seeking information that is stored electronically in any medium is called _____.
A)court order
B)e-discovery
C)metadata
D)subpoena duces tecum
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legal use of health care information directly impacts patient care?
A)billing for care provided to a patient
B)confirmation of blood alcohol level
C)establishing standards of care
D)evidence in civil actions
Q2) Which is the inspection and/or copying of documents or other physical evidence upon written request?
A)interrogatory
B)deposition
C)production of documents and things
D)request for admission
Q3) What is command ordered by the court, which requires the appearance of a witness to provide testimony?
A)court order for appearance
B)subpoena duces tecum
C)subpoena testificandum
D)subpoena presentarium
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legal use of health care information directly impacts patient care?
A)Billing for care provided to a patient
B)Confirmation of blood alcohol level
C)Establishing standards of care
D)Evidence in civil actions
Q2) A show cause order _____.
A)authorizes the disclosure of information that would otherwise be prohibited by statute and regulation
B)directs a person or organization to appear in court and explain why the court should not take a proposed action
C)is issued to require a witness to appear in court and/or to present certain documents and other things
D)results in the production of a particular record at trial and requires the records custodian to testify
Q3) A subpoena ad testificandum _____.
A)authorizes disclosure of information otherwise prohibited by law
B)commands the appearance of a witness to provide testimony
C)is issued by a court to appear and present certain documents
D)seeks information stored electronically in any medium
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Page 8
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vicarious liability applies when the _____.
A)health care facility becomes responsible for a nurse's negligent actions
B)patient suffers an injury for failing to keep surgical follow-up appointments
C)physician with privileges at a facility is named in a malpractice claim
D)vendor provides a defective implantable device that was used for surgery
Q2) COBRA is the abbreviation for _____.
A)Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
B)Consolidated Omnibus Burditt Reconciliation Act
C)Congressional Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
D)Congressional Operating Budget Reconciliation Act
Q3) Under res ipsa loquitur the _____.
A)condition or injury was not the result of negligence and cannot result in a lawsuit
B)injury could have also occurred without the health care prover's involvement
C)patient could have contributed to his own injury, and a lawsuit is optional
D)provider had exclusive control over the instrument involved in the injury
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9
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability: Part A
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28 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Severing of the physician-patient relationship without giving the patient reasonable notice if continuing care is necessary is called _____.
A)breach of contract
B)contributory negligence
C)intentional detention
D)medical abandonment
Q2) The Johnson v.Misericordia Community Hospital legal case held that:
A)A psychotherapist had a duty to warn a person that his patient was making threats to harm a third person.
B)The hospital had a duty to require that patients be examined by members of the hospital staff who were skilled in the treatment required.
C)The hospital did not apply its own credentialing rules and, therefore, did not follow its own standard of care in determining the qualifications of physicians practicing at the facility.
D)When a physician withdraws from the contractual relationship with a patient, he must provide the patient with reasonable notice to obtain a new physician or alternative treatment.
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Immanuel Kant founded the theory of _____.
A)Deontology
B)Medical research
C)Utilitarianism
D)Veracity
Q2) The concept of rights _____.
A)Always encompass ideas of fairness, honesty, and impartiality
B)Derives from the concept of justice in that both involve obligations
C)Includes dependency, which encompasses self-determination
D)Undermines the affirmation or violation of basic human rights
Q3) Autonomy is viewed as a freedom unless it _____.
A)Annoys health providers
B)Causes financial stress
C)Interferes with another's rights
D)Disputes religious beliefs
Q4) Morals may be defined as _____.
A)A framework for decision making
B)Principles of right conduct
C)Rules of conduct by authorities
D)The basis of healthcare
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The balancing of competing interests of individuals and groups against one another is called _____.
A)comparative justice
B)distributive justice
C)justice
D)morality
Q2) Which describes a persons's independence, self-determination, or freedom?
A)autonomy
B)etiquette
C)morals
D)values
Q3) Which is the equal opportunity to receive resources that requires the authority to provide the service due to others?
A)comparative justice
B)distributive justice
C)justice
D)morality
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12
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which requires healthcare providers to inform patients about the law and their right to make advance decisions concerning health care?
A)AHA
B)ARRA
C)HIPAA
D)PSDA
Q2) Patient rights _____.
A)are ethically based and cannot be enforced by law
B)have been formalized into statutory provisions by some states
C)recognize that the provider determines the extent of treatment
D)require patients to be passive participants in their health care
Q3) Which would create an ethical concern?
A)Altering statistics to meet accreditation requirements.
B)Documenting late entries as such in a patient's record.
C)Revealing conflicts of interests to hospital administration
D)Televising press conferences at the health care facility.
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Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the group formed within an organization or profession to evaluate current guidelines and establish new guidelines?
A)Credentials committee
B)Ethics committee
C)Patient rights committee
D)Safety committee
Q2) Managers serve as a(n) _____ when ethically supervising their employees.
A)coach or teacher
B)life support
C)role model
D)negotiator
Q3) Which requires healthcare providers to inform patients about the law and their right to make advance decisions concerning health care?
A)AHA
B)ARRA
C)HIPAA
D)PSDA
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Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) An elderly woman designated a durable power of attorney while still competent. She is now in a coma and on a ventilator following surgery.The designee feels she is suffering and wishes to withdraw life support.Other family members disagree and wish to have life support continued.The other family members also indicate that the designee is beneficiary to half of the patient's estate and is having financial problems.What action should be taken?
A)Follow the instructions of the designee because the durable power of attorney for healthcare is a legal document
B)Instruct the family members that they have to sort it out themselves because the hospital cannot be involved in any action
C)Permit all parties involved to request that the attending physician order a consultation with a medical specialist
D)Seek consultation with the local district attorney regarding this conflict of interest so as to resolve it appropriately
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15
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues: Part A
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Q1) Which is a planning document that communicates a person's wishes to health care providers?
A)advance directive
B)duty to treat
C)eugenics
D)euthanasia
Q2) Which is a document executed by the patient before health care is anticipated and which provides direction as to the type of medical treatment the patient does and does not want if s/he cannot make the decisions?
A)enduring power of attorney
B)equal dignity rule
C)living will
D)power of attorney
Q3) Which controversy is associated with the use of stem cells?
A)Embryonic harvesting
B)Euthanasia
C)Genetic engineering
D)Mutation into specialized cells
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of financial information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operative reports
D)Third-party payer information
Q2) The destruction of records _____.
A)Can be done when requests for the production of documents legally endangers an organization
B)Is performed at the discretion of the health information manager due to storage concerns
C)May be performed in the regular course of business following a specified retention period
D)Should never be performed so that the integrity of patient care is consistently maintained
Q3) Record retention policies address _____,
A)The length of time a record is maintained
B)When the record can be released to the patient
C)Whether a patient's record warrants storage
D)Which records can be provided pursuant to court order
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Page 17
Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) The health record is defined as the _____ record generated at or by the health care provider or organization, which documents treatments and services delivered during the patient's episode of care by the provider or organization.
A)business
B)legal
C)medical
D)valid
Q2) Which is a possible consequence of the if it wasn't documented, it wasn't done concept?
A)Deficiencies found in the health record are corrected by responsible providers.
B)Patients are notified by the risk manager that they are eligible bring a lawsuit.
C)The responsible provider is automatically suspended from the medical staff.
D)Third-party payer review of the health record can result in payment denials.
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18
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent
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Sample Questions
Q1) The right to bring a lawsuit for damages related to breach of confidentiality is protected under _____.
A)Common law
B)Constitutional law
C)Privacy law
D)Statutory law
Q2) Which concept provides the original basis for maintaining confidentiality between patient and healthcare provider?
A)Bill of rights
B)HIPAA
C)Hippocratic oath
D)Informed consent
Q3) The physician-patient privilege applies to information obtained in the context of _____.
A)Introduction of evidence at trial
B)Mental health treatment
C)Suppression of information
D)Reporting of STDs
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19
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which applies to government records and mandates compliance upon request unless the information requested is excluded in the federal statute?
A)FOIA
B)HIPAA
C)Nationwide Security Framework
D)Privacy Act of 1974
Q2) State _____ statutes apply to malpractice cases when evidence is introduced during a trial.
A)closed record
B)open record
C)physician-patient privilege
D)privacy and security
Q3) The reason that patient confidentiality is paramount is because the patient communicates sensitive information that _____.
A)assists the physician in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions
B)cannot be redisclosed to other providers caring for the patient
C)is submitted to third-party payers for reimbursement purposes
D)must be carefully documented to ensure maximum remuneration
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information
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Sample Questions
Q1) According to HIPAA, the _____ has the right to access patient information in the complete medical record.
A)government
B)patient
C)payer
D)transferring facility
Q2) Which is a HIPAA Privacy Rule exceptions to the requirement that consent to release protected health information (PHI) be obtained prior to disclosure?
A)Adverse events involving provider negligence
B)Contained accidental chemical exposure
C)Instances concerning victims of abuse or neglect
D)Non-violent trauma that results in emergency care
Q3) Third parties have the right to access a person's information if _____.
A)Previous access to records was granted
B)Proper release of information is authorized
C)Requesting parties are third-party payers
D)Requestors are the patient's caregivers
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to report a public health threat, such as _____, may be considered an infraction of the law.
A)an injury caused by a deadly weapon
B)an overuse of healthcare resources
C)the breach of adoption information
D)the theft of a patient's identity
Q2) American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 (ARRA) provisions include the notification of individuals when a breach of confidential occurs.When a state law has a similar provision, _____.
A)ARRA always preempts this provision in state laws
B)ARRA preempts state laws when ARRA is more stringent
C)state laws never preempt this provision of ARRA
D)state laws always preempt this ARRA provision
Q3) The process of requiring the patient (or legal representative) to provide written authorization for disclosure of healthcare information from medical records is called
A)breach of confidentiality
B)implied consent
C)release of information
D)tacit authorization
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records
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Sample Questions
Q1) Specialized patient records are especially characterized as _____.
A)Being voluminous, creating storage issues
B)Containing entries from different specialties
C)Including medication administration records
D)Requiring specialized health information staff
Q2) Substance abuse health information is _____.
A)Included with any discovery request
B)Not released under any circumstances
C)Obtained with a court order only
D)Released via specific authorization
Q3) How does the law speak to mandatory testing?
A)It may be enforced through a court order.
B)Is not enforceable regarding HIV.
C)Statutory authority only applies to individuals.
D)It would violate the constitutional rights of a sexual offender if enforced.
Q4) A valid release of substance abuse treatment information includes a(n) _____.
A)General description about services provided to the patient
B)Overview about the programs goals and objectives
C)Provision that indemnifies the patient from any harm
D)Statement as to who is to receive the information
Page 23
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records: Part A
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Q1) Which has the potential for misuse of information obtained from genetic testing?
A)Child custody battles would not involve a parent's predisposition for a future genetic disease.
B)Employment status is not affected if employers make incorrect and damaging conclusions based on genetic information received.
C)Insurance companies might deny or cancel coverage based upon genetic information received about a patient.
D)Patients might be monitored more extensively by health care providers if it is discovered they have genetic predisposition to develop a certain disease.
Q2) If a drug or alcohol abuse patient is being treated for trauma that is not related to the abuse, the patient is not typically located in the _____ area of the health care facility.
A)drug or alcohol treatment
B)emergency department
C)intensive care unit
D)nursing station
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24
Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the most important way to reduce an organization's risk due to loss or litigation?
A)audit trails
B)maintenance of electronic records
C)proper documentation
D)quality reviews
Q2) If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record, _____ applies
A)attorney work product privilege
B)Behringer Estate v.Medical Center at Princeton
C)business record exceptions
D)Federal Rule of Evidence 502
Q3) Which data mining technique associated with the electronic health record enhances security and reduces patient risk?
A)Education of employees and providers about searches
B)Identification of inconsistent patient record entries
C)Prevention of unauthorized access of sensitive information
D)Use of tracking software to locate breaches of confidentiality
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Chapter 12:
Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) With regard to importance, an incident report is _____.
A)equally significant for defendant's and plaintiff's attorney
B)more significant for defendant's attorney
C)of no significance for either defendant's or plaintiff's attorney
D)significant to the patient who gets a copy of the report
Q2) Which is the general term for any event or circumstance not consistent with the normal routine operations of the hospital, its staff, or the routine care of a patient?
A)accident
B)error
C)incident
D)situation
Q3) Which force influences the growth of risk management?
A)Decreased medical malpractice lawsuits resulted in high damage awards.
B)Implementation of the doctrine of charitable immunity via court decisions.
C)Joint Commission required hospitals to implement risk management programs.
D)State legislatures established no requirements for risk management programs.
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Chapter 13: Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital imaging in the context of maintaining PHI refers to _____.
A)Electronic indexing of patient records and other documents
B)Photographs taken of patients before and after surgery
C)Scanning a paper document, to be viewed over a server
D)Using fiberoptics in minimally invasive procedures
Q2) Which is considered a human resources security issue that impacts health care records?
A)Backing up healthcare data
B)Documenting care provided
C)Court-ordered release of records
D)Hiring appropriate personnel
Q3) HIPAA Security Rules and Privacy Rules are similar, yet different, in that both _____.
A)Are different names for the same regulations
B)Limit patient access and control of information
C)Often oppose each rule's efforts and results
D)Protect information from different aspects
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Chapter 13: Information Systems: Part A
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Q1) Which is an example of physical security associated with the electronic health record (EHR)?
A)background checks on employees
B)establishing levels of access
C)power surges or spikes
D)sabotage prevention
Q2) Which organization defined the eight core functions of an electronic health record (EHR) that include health information and data, results management, effective communications, clinical decision support, order entry and management, patient support, reporting and population health management, and administrative processes?
A)American Health Information Management Association (AHIMA)
B)Centers for Medicaid and Medicare Services (CMS)
C)Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
D)Institute of Medicine (IOM)
Q3) Providers are authorized to operate and practice medicine _____.
A)accreditation organizations
B)county health departments
C)professional associations
D)state licensing agencies
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the context of billing fraud, which is associated with unbundling?
A)Accepting payment for healthcare services never provided to patients
B)Billing third-party payers (instead of patients) for noncovered services
C)Referring patients to a facility in which the physician has a financial interest
D)Separately billing laboratory tests to increase reimbursement from payers
Q2) Stark I and Stark II laws were passed because _____.
A)False misrepresentations of facts that are relied upon by another were a detriment to others and a departure from reasonable use
B)Increase federal scrutiny caused healthcare organizations to change their methods of operation, such as submitting false claims
C)Physicians were abusing the healthcare system by referring patients to services in which they (or family members) had a financial interest
D)Relators were suing on behalf of the U.S.government expressly to receive a portion of the recovered funds if the lawsuit was successful
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the penalty for felony violation of mail and wire fraud statutes?
A)$1,000 fine and/or 5-year prison term
B)$5,000 fine and/or 1-year prison term
C)$10,000 fine and/or 5-year prison term
D)$50,000 fine and/or 10-year prison term
Q2) Match the description with the appropriate Federal legislation.
Clarifies who can be held accountable for wrongful disclosure of protected information, which means an individual who discloses the information, as well as the health care organization or entity, may be prosecuted.
A)American Recovery and Reinvestment Act
B)Deficit Reduction Act
C)False Claims Act
D)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
E)Stark I and Stark II
Q3) Match the type of facility or service with the appropriate law.
Clinical laboratories
A)Stark I
B)Stark II
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) A business or organization has the least control over the work product prepared by
A)Independent contractors
B)Leased employees
C)Permanent employees
D)Temporary employees
Q2) The Family Medical Leave Act (FMLA) provides for _____.
A)Compensated time off for healthcare
B)Guaranteed leave time for surgery
C)Paid time off for maternity leaves
D)Unpaid time off to adopt a child
Q3) Which legislation requires an employer to operate a place of employment free from recognized hazards that are likely to cause serious injury or fatality?
A)ADA
B)ERISA
C)OSHA
D)USERRA
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Chapter
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Q1) Which is the employment arrangement that allows the employer to terminate the employee at any time and allows the employee to leave the employer at any time?
A)At-will employment doctrine
B)Code of conduct
C)Quid pro quo
D)Reasonable accommodation
Q2) Match the Federal legislation with its definition. Safeguards workers from being fired when their earnings have been garnished.
A)Consumer Credit Protection Act
B)Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C)Federal Labor Standards Act
D)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
E)Occupational Safety and Health Act
Q3) Which legislation requires employers to provide a 60-day warning period before closing facility or beginning massive layoffs?
A)ADEA
B)EOE Act
C)OSHA
D)WARN
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