Health Information Management Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Health Information Management is an interdisciplinary course that explores the principles and practices related to the acquisition, organization, analysis, and protection of health data. It covers topics such as medical record systems, health informatics, data quality, privacy and confidentiality regulations (such as HIPAA), coding systems, and the vital role of information technology in healthcare delivery. Students will gain practical skills in managing electronic health records, ensuring compliance with legal and ethical standards, and supporting clinical and administrative decision-making. The course prepares learners to pursue careers in health information management and equips them to contribute to the improvement of healthcare quality and efficiency through effective use of health information.
Recommended Textbook
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 2nd Edition by Susan M. Turley
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35 Chapters
8743 Verified Questions
8743 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: The Structure of Medical Language
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308 Verified Questions
308 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prefix poly- means five.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) The plural of the Latin word bronchus is: A) bronchi.
B) bronchae.
C) bronchus.
D) broncha.
Answer: A
Q3) The word endotracheal means pertaining to within the: A) stomach.
B) trachea.
C) vein.
D) blood vessel.
Answer: B
Q4) The combining form hyster/o- means ____________.
Answer: uterus
Q5) The prefix that means slow is ____________.
Answer: brady-
Page 3
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Chapter 2: The Body in Health and Disease
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509 Verified Questions
509 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which combining form means the lower back?
A) lumb/o-
B) cephal/o-
C) ur/o-
D) intern/o-
Answer: A
Q2) Structures that are below the surface or inside the body are:
A) anterior.
B) internal.
C) inferior.
D) superior.
Answer: B
Q3) Using the transverse plane,the upper half of the body is the inferior section and the lower half is the superior section.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Lying with the posterior section of the body down is lying in the dorsal or dorsal ____________ position.
Answer: supine
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Gastroenterology - Gastrointestinal System
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455 Verified Questions
455 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following are names for the gastrointestinal system?
A) alimentary canal
B) digestive system
C) gastrointestinal tract
D) All of the above.
Answer: D
Q2) The long pouch extending from the cecum is called the ____________.
Answer: appendix
Q3) The combining form gloss/o- means ____________.
Answer: tongue
Q4) The combining form rect/o- means ____________.
Answer: rectum
Q5) Obstructive jaundice occurs when:
A) there is a postoperative ileus.
B) the liver has cancer.
C) there is an intestinal obstruction.
D) a gallstone blocks the flow of bile in bile ducts.
Answer: D
Q6) The combining form hemat/o- means ____________.
Answer: blood
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Chapter 4: Pulmonology - Respiratory System
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352 Verified Questions
352 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Explain the differences between a tracheotomy and a tracheostomy and what each is used for.
Q2) The combining form bronchiol/o- means ____________.
Q3) A patient who is ____________ (adjective form) has cyanosis.
Q4) A respiratory therapist who checks on the placement of a breathing tube in the patient's trachea will be checking the ____________.
A) ETT
B) PPD
C) C&S
D) ABG
Q5) A/An ____________ is a clip device that attaches to the finger and measures the degree of oxygen saturation in the blood.
A) tracheostomy
B) spirometer
C) tomography
D) oximeter
Q6) The ____________,an irregularly shaped area between the two lungs,contains the trachea.
Q7) A normal depth and rate of respiration is known as ____________.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Cardiology - Cardiovascular System
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360 Verified Questions
360 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is a sudden,severe vasoconstriction and spasm of the arterioles in the fingers and toes,often triggered by cold or emotional upset?
A) Raynaud's phenomenon
B) phlebitis
C) hypotension
D) peripheral artery disease
Q2) The heart has an extensive ____________ system that initiates and coordinates contractions.
A) electrical
B) filtration
C) muscular
D) vascular
Q3) The flow of blood through the heart is controlled by ____________.
A) valves
B) the SA node
C) the bundle of His
D) the ventricles
Q4) The symptoms of angina pectoris can be different in men than in women.
A)True
B)False
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Hematology and Immunology - Blood and Lymphatic System
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210 Verified Questions
210 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Strong elastic strands of ____________ trap erythrocytes and form a thrombus.
Q2) Enlargement of the lymph nodes could be caused by:
A) cancer in that area.
B) pernicious anemia.
C) a thrombus.
D) hemophilia.
Q3) All of the following are laboratory tests to detect HIV except:
A) WBC differential.
B) CD4 count.
C) ELISA.
D) viral load test.
Q4) Which of the following statements is false?
A) A red blood cell is also known as an erythrocyte.
B) Erythrocytes are the most numerous type of blood cell.
C) Erythrocytes are unusual in that they are just cell fragments.
D) Hemoglobin is a red, iron-containing molecule that carries oxygen.
Q5) Reed-Sternberg cells are found in patients with multiple myeloma.
A)True
B)False
Page 8
Q6) ____________ are the largest type of leukocyte.
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Page 9
Chapter 7: Dermatology - Integumentary System
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285 Verified Questions
285 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is not one of the four characteristics of a malignant melanoma?
A) Border or edge is irregular and ragged.
B) Color varies from black to brown to red in different patients.
C) Diameter is variable and is growing.
D) Each side of the lesion has a different shape (asymmetry).
Q2) The adjective form of pruritus is ____________.
Q3) The abbreviation SQ stands for ____________.
Q4) Which syllable is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the medical word cellulitis (sel-yoo-ly-tis)?
A) sel
B) yoo
C) ly
D) tis
Q5) A surgical procedure to remove all or part of a skin lesion for the purpose of diagnosis is called:
A) biopsy.
B) dermatoplasty.
C) rhytidectomy.
D) skin grafting.
Q6) The process of sweating and the sweat itself are both known as ____________.
Page 10
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Chapter 8: Orthopedics - Skeletal System
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302 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A torn ligament is known as:
A) a sprain.
B) chondromalacia.
C) a greenstick fracture.
D) kyphosis.
Q2) The patient had arthroscopic surgery of the knee joint to repair a torn:
A) diaphysis.
B) fontanel.
C) meniscus.
D) nucleus pulposus.
Q3) A person who has had an amputation is known as a/an ____________.
Q4) The meniscus is a:
A) distal bony projection of the tibia.
B) facial bone that forms the lower jaw.
C) five long bones of the hand.
D) crescent-shaped cartilage pad.
Q5) The medical word for the kneecap is the olecranon.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The combining form calcane/o- means ____________ or heel bone.
Page 11
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Chapter 9: Orthopedics - Muscular System
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271 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Straightening and extending a joint to increase the angle between two bones or two body parts is known as ____________.
Q2) The prefix bi- means ____________.
Q3) The patient with cerebral palsy was described as having ataxia.This means that the patient:
A) has slow skeletal muscle movements of his upper extremities.
B) walks with an uncoordinated gait.
C) has muscle jerking and spasms when he attempts movement.
D) has slow, purposeless writhing of his hands.
Q4) Which of the following are not opposites?
A) active exercises, passive exercises
B) hypertrophy, atrophy
C) bradykinesia, ataxia
D) adduction, abduction
Q5) There are approximately how many skeletal muscles in the body?
A) 400
B) 500
C) 600
D) 700
Q6) What is an electromyography?
Page 12
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Chapter 10: Neurology - Nervous System
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242 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following drugs is not used to treat seizures?
A) ethosuximide (Zarontin)
B) pregabalin (Lyrica)
C) phenytoin (Dilantin)
D) valproic acid (Depakene, Depakote)
Q2) A syncopal episode would consist of all of these signs except:
A) seizure.
B) fainting.
C) lightheadedness.
D) brief loss of consciousness.
Q3) ____________ is a multifaceted test used to diagnose the many underlying conditions that can cause insomnia,sleep disruption,sleep apnea,or narcolepsy.
Q4) The neurotransmitter ____________ is released by the sympathetic division of the nervous system during stress or danger.
A) acetylcholine
B) receptor
C) epinephrine
D) serotonin
Q5) Explain how a cerebrovascular accident leads to death of brain tissue.
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Chapter 11: Urology - Urinary System
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201 Verified Questions
201 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the cancer of the kidney that is found in children?
A) Wilms'
B) Foley
C) nephroblastoma
D) A and C
Q2) A person with uremia would have a higher-than-normal level for which of these laboratory tests?
A) BUN
B) C&S
C) PSA
D) I&O
Q3) The adjective form of ureter is ____________.
Q4) What is polycystic kidney disease?
Q5) Which procedure uses sound waves to create an image of a kidney stone?
A) renal angiography
B) urinalysis
C) ultrasonography
D) KUB
Q6) When the bladder is empty,the mucosa collapses into folds called ____________.
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Q7) The renal ____________ is the layer of tissue just beneath the renal capsule.
Chapter 12: Male Reproductive Medicine - Male
Genitourinary System
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193 Verified Questions
193 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Painful intercourse is known as:
A) venereal disease.
B) cryptorchism.
C) gynecomastia.
D) dyspareunia.
Q2) Inflammation of the anatomical structure that stores mature spermatozoa is called: A) orchitis.
B) epididymitis.
C) urethritis.
D) prostatitis.
Q3) All of the following combining forms mean testis,except: A) orchi/o-.
B) didym/o-.
C) testicul/o-.
D) morph/o-.
Q4) The process of forming mature spermatozoa is called ____________.
Q5) Why must the testes be located outside the body in the scrotum?
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Q6) What importance is attached to the proper closing of the inguinal canal in a male infant?
Chapter 13: Gynecology and Obstetrics - Female
Reproductive System
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223 Verified Questions
223 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A Pap smear is known as ____________ cytology because it examines cells that have been scraped from the cervix.
Q2) Inflammation or infection of the breast is known as ____________.
A) mastitis
B) galactorrhea
C) placenta previa
D) fibrocystic disease
Q3) A leiomyoma is a/an:
A) type of uterine cancer.
B) tumor of the smooth muscle of the uterus
C) absence of menstrual periods.
D) type of cervical dysplasia.
Q4) The spontaneous loss of a pregnancy prior to 20 weeks' gestation is called a spontaneous ____________ or miscarriage.
Q5) After four days of development,the fertilized ovum is known as a/an:
A) gonad.
B) gamete.
C) embryo.
D) fertilized egg.
Page 16
Q6) What is the difference between the perineum and the perimetrium?
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Page 17
Chapter 14: Endocrinology - Endocrine System
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353 Verified Questions
353 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is a surgical procedure to remove an adenoma from the:
A) thyroid gland.
B) adrenal gland.
C) pituitary gland.
D) thymus.
Q2) The hormone testosterone is produced by the: A) ovaries. B) testes.
C) pituitary gland.
D) thymus.
Q3) The hyposecretion of oxytocin causes: A) uterine inertia. B) goiter.
C) dysparenuia.
D) Graves' disease.
Q4) ____________ diabetes mellitus occurs only during pregnancy.
Q5) The ____________ system includes organs and glands that secrete hormones directly into the blood.
Q6) Severe hypothyroidism in adults is called ____________.
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Chapter 15: Ophthamology - Eyes
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351 Verified Questions
351 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lower eyelid turns outward with ectropion.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The combining forms "phac/o-" and "phak/o-" mean:
A) capsule (enveloping structure).
B) iris (colored part of the eye).
C) lens (of the eye).
D) pupil (of the eye).
Q3) The ability of both eyes to turn medially toward the nose and maintain focus as an object approaches the face is called:
A) accommodation.
B) convergence.
C) stereoscopic vision.
D) conjugate gaze.
Q4) Which abbreviation would be found in a physical assessment relating to an examination of the eyes?
A) HEENT
B) PERRL
C) EOM
D) all of the above
Page 19
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Chapter 16: Otolaryngology - Ears, nose, and Throat
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351 Verified Questions
351 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Otitis media is a bacterial infection of the:
A) middle ear.
B) cochlea.
C) external ear.
D) pharynx.
Q2) Which of the following words is misspelled?
A) epistaxis
B) eustachian
C) pharnxy
D) vestibulocochlear
Q3) Which is the sensation of being off balance when the body is not moving?
A) vertigo.
B) tinnitus.
C) presbycusis.
D) transient.
Q4) The adjective form for eardrum is ____________.
Q5) Glossitis is an inflammation of the tongue.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The adjective form for nose is ____________.
Page 20
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Chapter 17: Psychiatry
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of disorder is characterized by a temporary or permanent impairment of thinking and memory?
A) post-traumatic stress disorder
B) generalized anxiety disorder
C) panic disorder
D) cognitive disorder
Q2) Making up medical or psychiatric symptoms to get attention (but without realizing that it is to get attention) is known by the name of ____________ disorder.
A) Tourette
B) Munchausen
C) Beck
D) Rorschach
Q3) All of the following are true about patients with anorexia nervosa except ____________.
A) they binge and purge
B) they refuse to acknowledge they are too thin
C) they make excuses for not eating
D) they wear loose clothing to conceal their weight loss
Q4) ____________ is the fear of closed-in spaces.
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Chapter 18: Oncology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medical and surgical procedures that classify cancer by how far it has spread in the body are known as:
A) staging.
B) layering.
C) grading.
D) sizing.
Q2) Ewing's sarcoma of the subcutaneous tissues can appear as a complication of AIDS.
A)True
B)False
Q3) ____________ is the study of the anatomy and physiology of cancer cells,including diagnostic tests,various treatments,and drugs.
Q4) Which is not a factor contributing to the development of cancer?
A) heredity
B) trauma to the body
C) pathogens
D) carcinogens
Q5) What is tumor grading?
Q6) What is a blood smear and why is it done?
Q7) The ____________ is a gel-like substance that fills the cell.
Page 22
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Chapter 19: Radiology and Nuclear Medicine
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156 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form dos/i- means :
A) amount.
B) drug.
C) x-ray.
D) dose.
Q2) If a chest x-ray is taken so that the x-rays penetrate the front of the chest and exit through the patient's back and then into the x-ray plate,this is a/an ____________ chest x-ray.
A) AP
B) lateral
C) IVP
D) TEE
Q3) Mr.Isaiah Ritter had an abdominal aneurysm that showed up on a/an:
A) coronary angiogram.
B) venogram.
C) aortogram.
D) arthrogram.
Q4) Nuclear medicine uses ____________ substances that emit rays or particles to create images of internal structures of the body.
Q5) The process of recording an image of a vein is known as ____________.
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Chapter 20: Medical Terminology and Word Building
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prefix brady- means :
A) enlargement.
B) fast.
C) many.
D) slow.
Q2) The suffix -pathy means :
A) many; much.
B) disease; suffering.
C) inflammation of; infection of.
D) condition; abnormal condition; process.
Q3) A neuroma is a tumor of a nerve.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The prefix pre- means after; behind.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Dermatology is the ____________ of the skin.
Q6) The combining form append/o- means ____________.
Q7) The combining form ____________ means mind.
24
Q8) The combining form ven/o- means ____________.
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Chapter 21: Anatomy and Medical Terminology:
Understanding the Human Body and Language of Medicine
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient has had mild joint pain for the past three years without any increase in severity.This means that her symptoms are ____________.
A) chronic
B) acute C) exacerbated
D) in remission
Q2) A patient who exhibits ____________ symptoms has symptoms that continue for three months or more.
Q3) The ____________ is the cause or origin of a disease.
Q4) Moving from inside the body toward the back of the body is moving in a posterior direction or posteriorly.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A cavity is a hollow space that is surrounded by bones or muscles.
A)True
B)False
Q6) The cranial cavity lies within and is protected by the cranium.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Digestive System and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) When cholelithiasis becomes choledocholithiasis,means that:
A) inflammation has increased.
B) the bile stone has moved into the common bile duct.
C) the condition has become more serious.
D) the infection has spread from the pancreas to the intestines.
Q2) The sphincter initiates the gag reflex to prevent food from entering the pharynx.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Feces,sometimes called stool,is the formed solid waste that is eliminated from the body.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The liver:
A) is an accessory organ of digestion because it digests food and returns the waste to the digestive system.
B) is an accessory organ of digestion; it contributes to but is not physically involved in the process of digestion.
C) is an organ of digestion because it digests fats.
D) is an organ of digestion because it digests proteins.
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Chapter 23: Respiratory System Terminology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nasal cavity is lined with mucus membranes which humidify the air and produce mucus.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The meaning of the suffix in thoracotomy is:
A) procedure to puncture.
B) process of cutting or making an incision.
C) surgically created opening.
D) surgical excision.
Q3) All of the following are true about the thoracic cavity except ____________.
A) it is located within the mediastinum
B) it is posterior to the sternum
C) it contains the lungs
D) it is anterior to the spinal column
Q4) In panlobar pneumonia,from the definition of the prefix we can tell that ____________ lobes of the lung are affected.
Q5) Mr.Smith's lung cancer was inoperable; therefore he was referred to a/an ____________,a physician who treats cancer with chemotherapy.
Q6) What is the medical word that means the flu?
Page 27
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Chapter 24: Cardiovascular System - Medical Terminology
and
Procedures
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Q1) In a PTCA,the catheter is first inserted percutaneously or ____________.
A) above the heart
B) below the plaque
C) through the skin
D) within the blood vessel
Q2) The adjective form for heart is ____________.
Q3) Which layer of the heart is known as the muscular layer?
A) myocardium
B) epicardium
C) pericardium
D) endocardium
Q4) The combining form ather/o- means hard.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In the medical word depolarization,the combining form polar/o- means positive or negative charge.
A)True
B)False
28
Q6) The word ____________ refers to the network of blood vessels associated with a particular organ.
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Chapter 25: Blood and Immune System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A,B,AB,BA,and O are blood types.
A)True
B)False
Q2) All of these help form a clot except:
A) thrombocytes.
B) clotting factors.
C) leukocytes.
D) fibrin.
Q3) Which word is misspelled?
A) albumin
B) hematopoiesis
C) corticosteroid drug
D) hematacrit
Q4) Mature neutrophils are also known as bands or stabs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Reed-Sternberg cells are found in patients with multiple myeloma.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Petechiae are small,pinpoint ____________ of blood seen under the skin.
Page 30
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Chapter 26: Skin Care: Understanding the Integumentary
System and Common Skin Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Allergy skin testing is accomplished by what test?
A) intradermal injection
B) cryosurgery
C) culture and sensitivity
D) skin scraping
Q2) The combining form hirust/o- means ____________.
Q3) The layer of dead skin cells that arises from the epidermis around the base of the nail is called the:
A) lunula.
B) elastin.
C) follicle.
D) cuticle.
Q4) A medical procedure that involves using a curette to scrape off the superficial part of a skin lesion is:
A) cryosurgery.
B) debridement.
C) biopsy.
D) curettage.
Q5) The abbreviation SQ stands for ____________.
Q6) A ____________ is the medical name for a bruise with hemorrhage under the skin. Page 31
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Chapter 27: Medical Terminology and Anatomy
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Q1) The combining form sarc/o- means :
A) connective tissue.
B) joint.
C) ligament.
D) sacrum.
Q2) The combining form fract/o- means ____________ ____________.
Q3) Which is the name for each bony prominence on the medial and lateral aspects of the lower leg?
A) tarsal
B) malleolus
C) acromion
D) calcaneus
Q4) The hip joint is replaced in a surgery called an ____________,and the artificial hip replacement is known as a ____________.
A) arthrodesis; bone scan
B) arthroplasty; radiograph
C) arthroscopy, internal fixation
D) arthroplasty; prosthesis
Q5) Displacement of the end of a bone from its normal position within a joint is called a
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Chapter 28: Muscle and Movement: A Comprehensive Guide to Anatomy and Conditions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The trapezius muscle produces all of the following motions,except:
A) turns the head from side to side.
B) raises the shoulder.
C) pulls the shoulder blades together.
D) moves the arm anteriorly and across the chest.
Q2) An assistive device is one that can help a patient:
A) perform ADLs.
B) meet the requirements of ADA.
C) have a positive DTR.
D) decrease ROM.
Q3) NSAIDs are drugs that are used to:
A) decrease inflammation.
B) kill bacteria.
C) kill viruses.
D) relax muscles.
Q4) The abbreviation OOB stands for ____________ ____________ ____________.
Q5) A rhabdomyoma is a benign tumor that arises from striated or skeletal muscle. A)True B)False
Q6) The prefix bi- means ____________. Page 34
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Chapter 29: Neurology and Nervous System Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The medulla oblongata contains the ____________ centers.
A) emotion
B) hearing
C) respiratory
D) speech
Q2) The study of the anatomy,physiology,diseases,tests,and surgeries of the nervous system is known as ____________.
Q3) An arteriovenous malformation is an abnormality in which arteries in the brain connect directly to arteries,forming a twisted nest of blood vessels.
A)True
B)False
Q4) An electroencephalography uses multiple ___________ placed on the scalp overlying specific lobes of the brain.
Q5) A subdural hematoma occurs:
A) within the ventricle.
B) above the dura. C) below the dura. D) in the brainstem.
Q6) The largest part of the brain is the ____________.
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Chapter 30: Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of drug treats hypertension by blocking sodium from being absorbed from the tubule back into the blood?
A) diuretic drug
B) antispasmodic drug
C) urinary analgesic drug
D) chemotherapy drug
Q2) In hemodialysis,a shunt is placed into the patient's abdominal cavity to insert fluid and remove waste products.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A nephropexy is done to correct:
A) nephrolithiasis.
B) nephropathy.
C) nephrosclerosis.
D) nephroptosis.
Q4) The combining form spad/o- means :
A) abnormal position.
B) tear; opening.
C) ureter.
D) urethra.
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Chapter 31: Male Genitourinary System and Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Prostatitis is a chronic or acute ___________ infection of the prostate gland that is sometimes caused by a urinary tract
Q2) Balanitis is an inflammation and infection of the:
A) testis.
B) glans penis.
C) scrotum.
D) prostate gland.
Q3) Mr.Grey had a routine semen analysis for infertility.His semen was evaluated for all of the following except:
A) DNA analysis of the spermatozoa.
B) spermatozoa motility.
C) spermatozoa morphology.
D) sperm count.
Q4) An antibiotic drug is not used to treat genital warts because it is not effective against a disease caused by a virus.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Ultrasonography uses sound waves to produce an image that is known as an ultrasound or a ____________.
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Chapter 32: Smear and Other Female Reproductive Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) The combining form gestat/o- means :
A) length of time.
B) from conception to birth.
C) produce; secrete.
D) to conceive or form.
Q2) All of the following tests can be performed on amniotic fluid except:
A) chromosome studies.
B) Pap smear.
C) L/S ratio.
D) alpha fetoprotein.
Q3) The moment of conception to the moment of birth is known as the period of ____________.
Q4) A plastic surgery procedure to enlarge small breasts is known as:
A) reduction mammoplasty.
B) mastectomy.
C) mammography.
D) augmentation mammoplasty.
Q5) After four days of development,the fertilized ovum is known as a/an ____________.
Q6) The process of forming a mature ovum is known as ____________.
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Chapter 33: Psychiatric Disorders and Therapies
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tardive dyskinesia,involuntary repetitive movements of the face and extremities,is a severe side effect of the drug Thorazine and of all ____________.
A) antidepressant drugs
B) antipsychotic drugs
C) antianxiety drugs
D) abused substances
Q2) ____________ is the chemical that controls the day-to-day function of the involuntary processes in the body through the parasympathetic nervous system.
Q3) A continuing,disabling reaction to an excessively traumatic event is known as:
A) OCD.
B) SAD.
C) ADHD.
D) PTSD.
Q4) Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by memory loss.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Acute confusion,disorientation,and agitation due to a toxic level of drugs or alcohol in the brain is known as ____________.
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Chapter 34: Cancer Terminology and Diagnosis
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Sample Questions
Q1) Remission is the return of the symptoms and signs of a cancer that was previously treated.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Chemotherapy antibiotic drugs can be used to treat both cancer and bacterial infections due to cancer.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The combining form remiss/o- means :
A) health.
B) worsening.
C) send back.
D) to go into.
Q4) Excision of the tumor as well as the nearby organs because of wide-spread cancer is known as:
A) brachytherapy.
B) debulking.
C) endoscopy.
D) exenteration.
Q5) The abbreviation Bx means ____________.
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Chapter 35: Radiologic Procedures and Imaging Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of procedure exposes the patient to the least amount of radiation?
A) dental x-ray
B) chest x-ray (2 views)
C) CT scan
D) All cause the same amount of radiation exposure.
Q2) This procedure uses x-rays to create an image of the breast.Select the correct spelling of this word.
A) mammography
B) mamography
C) memmorgaphy
D) memorgaphy
Q3) In a ____________ x-ray,the x-ray beam enters patient's upper back,penetrates the upper body,exits through the anterior chest,and enters the x-ray plate.
Q4) The combining form magnet/o- means :
A) attraction to.
B) energy.
C) magnet.
D) to pull toward.
Q5) On x-ray,areas of high density are said to be ____________.
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