Health Information Governance
Test Questions
Course Introduction
Health Information Governance is a critical course that introduces students to the principles, policies, and practices that ensure the safe, effective, and ethical management of health information within healthcare organizations. The course covers key topics such as data quality, privacy and security of patient records, regulatory requirements, risk management, compliance standards (including HIPAA), and the strategic use of health information for organizational decision-making and patient care. Through case studies and practical exercises, students will gain a comprehensive understanding of how robust information governance frameworks support operational excellence, safeguard sensitive health data, and foster trust among patients, providers, and stakeholders in the healthcare ecosystem.
Recommended Textbook
Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 3rd Edition by
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30 Chapters
838 Verified Questions
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Page 2
Dana C. McWay
Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Consensus ad idem is Latin for the element of a contract associated with _____.
A)obligation
B)acceptance
C)consideration
D)meeting of the minds
Answer: D
Q2) The Administrative Procedure Act (APA) governs the way in which administrative agencies of the _____ government may propose and establish regulations.
A)county
B)federal
C)municipal
D)state
Answer: B
Q3) The legislative branch of government _____.
A)enforces and administers laws (statutes)
B)includes the Senate and the House of Representatives
C)interprets laws through adjudication and resolution of disputes
D)promulgates rules and regulations within specialized subject matter
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter
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Q1) The legislative branch of the federal government is responsible for:
A)applying to the doctrine of stare decisis and res judicata
B)determining the need for new laws and changes to existing laws.
C)functioning to enforce and administer laws.
D)interpreting laws using an alternate resolution of dispute (ADR).
Answer: B
Q2) Legislative proposals are called _____.
A)amendments
B)bills
C)ordinances
D)torts
Answer: B
Q3) Stare decisis is Latin for:
A)a matter [already] judged.
B)let the master answer.
C)to let the decision stand.
D)utmost good faith.
Answer: C
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4
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures
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Q1) Which is the name of the process used by the defendant (or plaintiff) to obtain facts and information about the case from the plaintiff (or defendant)?
A)appeal
B)discovery
C)legal process
D)trial
Answer: B
Q2) When parties to a dispute come together to present evidence in court, the formal setting with authority to adjudicate claims or disputes is called a bench or jury _____.
A)appellate proceeding
B)hearing
C)trial
D)warrant
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures: Part A
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Q1) A letter sent by an adversary in a court case that explains the need to preserve electronic evidence is called a(n) _____.
A)legal hold
B)notice of preservation
C)subpoena duces tecum
D)temporary court order
Q2) The authority by which courts and judicial officers may hear and decide a case is called _____.
A)authority
B)jurisdiction
C)mediation
D)sovereignty
Q3) The Federal Rules of Civil Procedure (FRCP) govern all forms of discovery that is performed in federal court; seeking information that is stored electronically in any medium is called _____.
A)court order
B)e-discovery
C)metadata
D)subpoena duces tecum
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Page 6
Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information
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Q1) When information concerning HIV/AIDS, mental health, and substance abuse is released to a third party, a _____ prohibits sharing the information with yet another third party unless the patient signs an authorization to release the information.
A)motion to quash
B)prevention of spoliation
C)redisclosure statement
D)subpoena duces tecum
Q2) Which legal use of health care information directly impacts patient care?
A)billing for care provided to a patient
B)confirmation of blood alcohol level
C)establishing standards of care
D)evidence in civil actions
Q3) Which is an exclusion to physician-patient privilege rules?
A)known criminal activity by the patient
B)physician believes the disclosure could benefit research
C)there is known domestic violence
D)when privilege conceals child abuse
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information: Part A
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Q1) Which is a concept that describes the requirement to anticipate the need for data in a court action?
A)duty to preserve
B)litigation hold
C)order of preservation
D)notice of preservation
Q2) Which was created by statute and used to prevent the forced disclosure of, or testimony about, information obtained by the health care provider during the course of treatment?
A)certification process
B)evidence
C)litigation hold
D)physician-patient privilege
Q3) Authorization forms signed by the patient for the release of _____ information must specifically authorize the release of this category of information.
A)HIV and AIDS
B)mental health
C)substance abuse
D)all of these
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Page 8
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability
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Sample Questions
Q1) COBRA is the abbreviation for _____.
A)Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
B)Consolidated Omnibus Burditt Reconciliation Act
C)Congressional Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
D)Congressional Operating Budget Reconciliation Act
Q2) Res ipsa loquitur is translated as _____.
A)let the patient beware
B)let the physician decide
C)the patient is always right
D)the thing speaks for itself
Q3) Respondeat superior is associated with _____.
A)comparative negligence
B)corporate liability
C)professional negligence
D)vicarious liability
Q4) Battery involves the ____ of a person that results in an injury or offense.
A)assault
B)defamation
C)libel or slander
D)physical contact
Page 9
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Chapter 4: Principles of Liability: Part A
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Q1) The legal basis of every medical malpractice suit is rooted in:
A)breach of duty to care.
B)duty to care.
C)intentional torts.
D)res ipsa loquitur.
Q2) Which is associated with malpractice?
A)follow the standard of care
B)intentional tort
C)lack of instinct to do wrong
D)professional misconduct
Q3) Publishing something on a Web site that leads other to ridicule a person or diminish esteem and respect for that person is called _____.
A)assault
B)battery
C)libel
D)slander
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the formal study of moral choices that conform to standards of conduct?
A)Ethics
B)Etiquette
C)Law
D)Morals
Q2) Prospective payment systems and health maintenance organizations reward healthcare providers monetarily for maintaining lower costs and penalize those providers who do not keep costs within preestablished limits.With regard to ethics, placing such monetary rewards and penalties before health-care providers _____.
A)Establish limits on the amount a payer is reimbursed for rendering care
B)May impact both the quantity and quality of patients' health care
C)Penalize providers who create gatekeeping procedures that limit access
D)Usually benefits everyone after an initial investment of limited resources
Q3) The concept of habitual truthfulness and honesty is called _____.
A)Argument
B)Fidelity
C)Justification
D)Veracity
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11
Chapter 5: Ethical Standards: Part A
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Q1) The obligation to maintain patient privacy is called _____.
A)confidentiality
B)consequentialism
C)privacy
D)principle of double-effect
Q2) How human beings relate under certain circumstances is called _____.
A)autonomy
B)ethics
C)etiquette
D)morals
Q3) The obligation to be fair to all people is considered _____.
A)fidelity
B)justice
C)morals
D)values
Q4) The right to be left alone and to control personal information is called _____.
A)breach
B)confidentiality
C)HIPAA
D)privacy
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Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges
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Q1) Patient rights _____.
A)are ethically based and cannot be enforced by law
B)have been formalized into statutory provisions by some states
C)recognize that the provider determines the extent of treatment
D)require patients to be passive participants in their health care
Q2) Ethical challenges involve situations in which _____.
A)Differences in opinion have no effect
B)Just one perfect solution exists
C)Many or few provisions are included
D)There are no clear cut right answers
Q3) The ethical role of a supervisor involves _____.
A)Just her own conduct and behavior on the job, even if hostile
B)Never publicly admitting to her own mistakes if he is incorrect
C)Presuming that employees bear responsibility for their own behavior
D)Serving as a role model to employees and others in an organization
Q4) Which would create an ethical concern?
A)Altering statistics to meet accreditation requirements.
B)Documenting late entries as such in a patient's record.
C)Revealing conflicts of interests to hospital administration
D)Televising press conferences at the health care facility.
Page 13
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Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges: Part A
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Q1) Paternalism is a concept that _____.
A)belittles and devalues another healthcare professional
B)describes a situation in which there are no clear-cut answers
C)guides and encourages staff members to engage in ethical behavior.
D)results in a patient being subordinate to a fatherly physician
Q2) Conflicts of interest that appear to be inappropriate but do no harm are described as _____.
A)actual
B)advancements
C)paternal
D)potential
Q3) When peoples serve as a role models, they set a good example for others to follow and accept responsibility for mistakes; the behavior is considered _____ because the manager does not have to interact with staff to be a role model.
A)actual
B)disparaging
C)passive
D)statutory
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14
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues
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Q1) The use of an organ or body part from another human (donor) is called an _____.
A)Allograft
B)Autograft
C)Heterograft
D)Xenograft
Q2) Which controversy is associated with the use of stem cells?
A)Embryonic harvesting
B)Euthanasia
C)Genetic engineering
D)Mutation into specialized cells
Q3) Euthanasia is the act or practice of causing death painlessly, with the aim to end suffering.Which act is associated with passive euthanasia?
A)DNR order
B)Initiating the dying process
C)Withdrawing treatment
D)Withholding treatment
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Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues: Part A
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Q1) Which is a planning document that communicates a person's wishes to health care providers?
A)advance directive
B)duty to treat
C)eugenics
D)euthanasia
Q2) What refers to the termination of a pregnancy before the viability of the fetus?
A)abortion
B)eugenics
C)genetic screening
D)perinatal testing
Q3) The Human Genome Project _____.
A)addresses the concern over confidentiality of genetic information
B)genetically alters organisms treat or prevent disease and conditions
C)maps the genes in human DNA, which consists of 46 human chromosomes
D)notifies employers of the genetic predisposition of a potential employee
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements
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Sample Questions
Q1) Authorship of a health record entry may be complicated by _____.
A)Allowing the user to copy and paste, possibly into the wrong record
B)Authenticating the identification of the person making the entry
C)Taking care not to repeat entries that are no longer acceptable
D)The patient's right to alter or delete unsatisfactory entries
Q2) A nurse writes a verbal order from a physician on the physician order sheet in the health record; the nurse is the _____ of the entry.
A)Authenticator
B)Author
C)Editor
D)Transcriber
Q3) The health record is defined as the _____ record generated at or by the health care provider or organization, which documents treatments and services delivered during the patient's episode of care by the provider or organization.
A)Business
B)Legal
C)Medical
D)Valid
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17
Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements: Part A
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Q1) Which is an example of a nonclinical use of the health record?
A)Billing to and reimbursement by third-party payers
B)Chronological documentation of patient care
C)Public health monitoring to determine flu outbreaks
D)Quality improvement activities, such as infection control
Q2) When an incorrect entry is documented in the paper-based health record, the responsible provider can _____.
A)cross out the entire incorrect entry using a single line, documenting the correct entry immediately below the incorrect entry and dating the entry
B)delete the entire entry by removing the report on which the incorrect entry was made, documenting corrected entries on a new page in the record
C)draw a single line through the incorrect entry; write the word "error" next to it; date, time and initialize the incorrect entry; and enter the reason for correction
D)obliterate entire incorrect entry (e.g., using a black magic marker), and document the correct entry in the next available space in the patient record
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18
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent
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Q1) When obtaining informed consent, which information must be part of the process?
A)Documentation that discussion occurred
B)Obtaining patient's insurance information
C)Release of liability statement from patient
D)Use of electronic health record (EHR)
Q2) Which statutes a category of confidentiality protection at the state level?
A)Common law liability
B)Mandated redisclosure
C)Professional disclosure
D)Physician-patient privilege
Q3) The focus of the passage of the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) is to _____.
A)Acknowledge that patients have the right to choose the provider from which they receives healthcare services
B)Communicate to patients how a provider receives Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement
C)Ensure that a patient's right to make health-care decisions is communicated and protected
D)Guarantee that Medicare and Medicaid reimbursement to healthcare providers is handled appropriately
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19
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent: Part A
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Q1) Which is permitted to sign a document that grants informed consent to treatment?
A)competent patient
B)legally incompetent adult
C)minor under the age of majority
D)minor who is not pregnant
Q2) The focus of confidentiality is on the _____ relationship.
A)federal-state
B)patient-patient
C)patient-provider
D)provider-provider
Q3) The professional disclosure standard applies to health care providers and is measured against what _____ under the same or similar circumstances would disclose.
A)a reasonable health care provider
B)any health care provider
C)federal and state governments
D)suspect testimony mandates
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information
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Q1) Third parties have the right to access a person's information if _____.
A)Previous access to records was granted
B)Proper release of information is authorized
C)Requesting parties are third-party payers
D)Requestors are the patient's caregivers
Q2) An authorization for use or disclosure of patient-specific health information that has been combined with any other document is called a(n) _____ authorization.
A)Admissibility
B)Beneficence
C)Certiorari
D)Compound
Q3) Which is an advantage of housing health care records in a central repository?
A)Control of health care records is granted directly to patients.
B)Fragmentation of medical data is increased (instead of eliminated).
C)Privacy violations result in the enforcement of penalties to guilty parties.
D)Third-party payers can access health care records without patient notification.
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21
Chapter 10: Access to Health Information: Part A
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Q1) ARRA, HIPAA, Privacy Act of 1974, and applicable state legislation facilitate patient access to personal health information for the purpose of obtaining a copy of all or part of their medical record and to correct or amend the record.Which of the circumstances would likely result in the patient being denied access to their personal health information (PHI)?
A)Behavioral health patients whose PHI might be detrimental to the patient
B)Child custody judge restricts the patient's access to his children's PHI
C)Patient who underwent sterilization procedure following delivery of a live infant
D)Treating physician was found by the courts to have abandoned the patient
Q2) Which is a repository of personal health records (PHRs) maintained in an electronic format and operated by governmental or commercial entities, which serve as trusted custodians of the data?
A)electronic health record
B)health record bank
C)national health information network
D)personal health information
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records
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Q1) How does the law speak to mandatory testing?
A)It may be enforced through a court order.
B)Is not enforceable regarding HIV.
C)Statutory authority only applies to individuals.
D)It would violate the constitutional rights of a sexual offender if enforced.
Q2) A system that assigns a unique identifier, such as a number or coding system, to an individual who undergoes HIV testing is called _____ testing
A)Anonymous
B)Mandatory
C)Optional
D)Regulatory
Q3) HIPAA addresses genetic testing by _____.
A)Allowing pre-employment screening of prospective employees prior to hiring them
B)Determining insurance premiums criteria (e.g., charging higher premiums)
C)Prohibiting it from being considered a preexisting condition for health insurance
D)Requiring it for government employees for the purpose of granting promotions
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23
Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records: Part A
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Q1) Audit activities performed by qualified organizations and individuals do not require written patient authorization when access is provided to:
A)a research scientist who writes an article that includes case studies about a limited number of patients with a rare disease, all of whom live in the same town.
B)individuals who are professionally qualified to conduct research studies but who have not yet been determined as qualified by the treatment program director.
C)members of the staff at federal, state, and local governmental agencies.
D)persons who work for quality information organizations (QIOs), third-party payers, or private organizations that provide financial assistance.
Q2) Which release of information method requires compliance with HIPAA regulations?
A)court orders
B)medical emergencies
C)research activities
D)written patient authorization
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24
Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management
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Q1) An incident report _____.
A)Is always discoverable as part of the official malpractice litigation process
B)May help determine patterns of healthcare activity that should be altered
C)Requires discussion with the plaintiff's legal team of malpractice attorneys
D)Should be included as a part of the patient's permanent medial record
Q2) If an incident report is inadvertently released during the discovery process along with the medical record, _____ applies
A)attorney work product privilege
B)Behringer Estate v.Medical Center at Princeton
C)business record exceptions
D)Federal Rule of Evidence 502
Q3) Peer review committees serve to _____ as part of the quality management process?
A)Conduct audits of patient information to compare against established guidelines
B)Evaluate, maintain, and monitor risk management functions of health care services
C)Manage the organization's employees and providers credentialing process
D)Prescribe disciplinary action against employees who violate policies and procedures
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Page 25
Chapter 12:
Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management: Part A
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Q1) Information about disciplinary actions is reported to the _____ by hospitals, medical societies, licensing boards, prepaid medical practices, and other health care entities.
A)Healthcare Integrity and Protection Data Bank
B)Medical Information Bureau
C)National Practitioner Data Bank
D)Quality Improvement Organizations
Q2) The clinical review of the appropriateness of admission and planned use of resources that can be and often is initiated prior to admission and conducted at specific time frames is called _____.
A)case management
B)quality management
C)risk management
D)utilization management
Q3) Which force influences the growth of risk management?
A)Decreased medical malpractice lawsuits resulted in high damage awards.
B)Implementation of the doctrine of charitable immunity via court decisions.
C)Joint Commission required hospitals to implement risk management programs.
D)State legislatures established no requirements for risk management programs.
Page 26
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Chapter 13: Information Systems
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Q1) In meeting the accuracy requirement, the health information manager must _____.
A)Be familiar with the hardware and software used in the system
B)Determine which providers made entries in the patient record
C)Know whether entries made were telephone orders or not
D)State which data entry procedures made in the record are routine
Q2) An electronic health record includes _____.
A)Healthcare information that always resides off site in a computer system
B)Patient documentation created, authenticated, and retrieved manually
C)Systems that may contain links to clinical decision support systems
D)Warehoused data that is accessible by patients and third-party payers
Q3) Permissions granted in an electronic health record system involve _____.
A)Authenticating individual entries made in the EHR
B)Ensuring that people are who they say that they are
C)Levels of access granted to an operating system
D)Preventing malicious attempts to destroy health data
Q4) Authentication of an electronic health record _____.
A)Ensures that people are who they say that they are
B)Is accomplished by a method to prevent eavesdropping
C)Refers to the level of access to an operating system
D)Prevents malicious attempts to damage healthcare data
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Chapter 13: Information Systems: Part A
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Q1) The HIPAA security safeguard that protects access to data is a(n) _____ safeguard.
A)administrative
B)physical
C)risk prevention
D)technical
Q2) Which is an example of risk prevention techniques associated with the electronic health record (EHR)?
A)Adhering antitheft plaques to portable computers (e.g., laptop)
B)Employee education about consequences for violating EHR access policies
C)Protecting computers by controlling the humidity and temperature
D)Storing disks that contain patient data in locked cabinets
Q3) A facility employee who has gained unauthorized access to information in the electronic health record (EHR) about a celebrity's health information is usually _____.
A)counseled about privacy issues
B)fined for gaining illegal access
C)immediately terminated
D)suspended without pay
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse
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Q1) Which usually involves a qui tam action?
A)FCA claim
B)HIPAA violation
C)Negligent action
D)Stark laws
Q2) Assigning diagnostic and procedural codes to obtain better reimbursement alone is
A)Helpful
B)Necessary
C)Permitted
D)Unethical
Q3) When employees have password access to medical records, _____.
A)Employee have a responsibility to allow the truth to be shared with the public
B)It is acceptable to review a celebrity's chart because of their implied consent
C)Released information is limited to that which has been authorized by the patient
D)The employer has implied that employees have control over release of records
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29
Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse: Part A
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Q1) Match the law enforcement agency that fights fraud and abuse with its purpose. Authorized to bring civil actions related to healthcare fraud and abuse (within its own jurisdiction).
A)Federal Bureau of Investigation
B)Office of Inspector General
C)State Attorney General
Q2) Match the examples of fraud and abuse with the appropriate type. Charging for procedures that were not performed
A)Abuse
B)Fraud
Q3) Match the law enforcement agency that fights fraud and abuse with its purpose. Its DCIS branch investigates fraud schemes committed against the military's health insurance.
A)Federal Bureau of Investigation
B)Office of Inspector General
C)State Attorney General
Q4) Match the type of facility or service with the appropriate law.
Clinical laboratories
A)Stark I
B)Stark II
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace
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Q1) An employer is obligated to verify the _____ of employees who are hired to work.
A)Age, gender, and disability status
B)Employment authorization and identity
C)Independent contractor status
D)Medical ability and competency
Q2) Which is a written list of a profession's values and standards of conduct?
A)Bylaws
B)Code of ethics
C)Policies and procedures
D)Rules and regulations
Q3) Union activity in the hospital setting is _____.
A)Dangerous to patient safety because unionized employees often go on strike
B)Fills a void when communication between staff and administration has failed
C)Forbidden by federal, state, and local statutes and interpretive regulations
D)Ineffective because employees usually do not experience improved conditions
Q4) Under Title VII, an employer may refuse employment to a person due to _____,
A)An inability to speak English
B)Ancestry and heritage issues
C)Citizenship status
D)Linguistic characteristics
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the Federal legislation with its definition. Regulates employee pensions by establishing minimum standards and for pension and health/life insurance plans.
A)Consumer Credit Protection Act
B)Employee Retirement Income Security Act
C)Federal Labor Standards Act
D)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
E)Occupational Safety and Health Act
Q2) Which provides a regular income to workers who have lost their jobs?
A)Unemployment insurance
B)Workers' compensation
Q3) Which legislation protects current and potential employees from discrimination throughout all stages of employment?
A)ADEA
B)EOE Act
C)OSHA
D)WARN
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