Health Information Governance
Mock Exam
Course Introduction
Health Information Governance explores the principles, policies, and practices that ensure the accuracy, privacy, and security of health data within healthcare organizations. This course examines the regulatory frameworks and ethical considerations that govern the management, sharing, and use of health information. Students will learn about compliance requirements, such as HIPAA, as well as strategies for data quality, information lifecycle management, and risk mitigation. Emphasis is placed on developing the knowledge and skills necessary to design, implement, and oversee effective information governance programs that protect patient information and support organizational objectives in a dynamic healthcare environment.
Recommended Textbook
Legal and Ethical Aspects of Health Information Management 3rd Edition by Dana C. McWay
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30 Chapters
838 Verified Questions
838 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2338 Page 2
Chapter 1: Workings of the American Legal System
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58 Verified Questions
58 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Zoning, building, or public safety ordinances are examples of laws passed at:
A)a local level
B)an executive level
C)congressional hearings
D)the state legislature
Answer: A
Q2) Punishment associated with _____ law may include fines and/or imprisonment.
A)civil
B)contract
C)criminal
D)tort
Answer: C
Q3) HIPAA is the abbreviation for the _____.
A)Healthcare Information and Payer Accessibility Act
B)Health Information Provider and Accessibility Act
C)Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
D)Healthcare Insurance and Payer Accountability Act
Answer: C
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Chapter
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Common law (also called case law or precedent) is a source of law that is derived from:
A)a single document that contains all laws
B)court decisions
C)popular culture
D)federal rules and regulations
Answer: B
Q2) Tort law _____.
A)defines what constitutes a misdemeanor or a felony
B)encompasses the rights and duties that exist between parties that are independent of a contract
C)governs various forms of ownership, including real property and personal property
D)is concerned with an agreement between two or more parties that creates an obligation to act or refrain from acting in exchange for some type of consideration
Answer: B
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4
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures
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37 Verified Questions
37 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Article X of the Evidence Rules allows
A)An exact duplicate copy to serve as evidence in lieu of an original.
B)Allows for expert testimony to be presented during the court case.
C)For exceptions to attorney-client privilege during a hearing.
D)The family to testify as witnesses during depositions and court cases.
Answer: A
Q2) Which statement is true of a supreme court, except in New York State?
A)The supreme court is a court of last resort.
B)Any party dissatisfied with a decision may take their course to the supreme court.
C)The supreme court must hear any case requested.
D)Supreme court judges are nominated and confirmed by Congress.
Answer: A
Q3) The stages through which a lawsuit passes is called the _____ process.
A)appeal
B)complaint
C)interrogatory
D)legal
Answer: D
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5
Chapter 2: Court Systems and Legal Procedures: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is the name of the process used by the defendant (or plaintiff) to obtain facts and information about the case from the plaintiff (or defendant)?
A)appeal
B)discovery
C)legal process
D)trial
Q2) The answer to a complaint that is made by the defendant is called the _____.
A)appeal
B)decision
C)interrogatory
D)written response
Q3) A federal court that has subject-matter jurisdiction to hear a civil case involving a plaintiff who allegedly violated the Constitution also has _____ jurisdiction.
A)diversity
B)federal question
C)special
D)supplemental
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6
Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is associated with a deposition?
A)inspection of business documents and health records
B)production of business documents and health records
C)testimony given under oath outside the courtroom
D)written questions presented to a party or parties
Q2) Authorization forms signed by the patient for the release of _____ information must specifically authorize the release of this category of information.
A)HIV and AIDS
B)mental health
C)substance abuse
D)all of these
Q3) What is the action of a party who possesses data to make efforts to prevent routine destruction electronically stored information?
A)litigation hold
B)notice of preservation
C)order of preservation
D)production of things
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Chapter 3: Judicial Process of Health Information: Part A
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which question is asked to establish the trustworthiness requirement as related to the admissibility of the health record into evidence?
A)Did the person recording events (e.g., patient care) have knowledge of the events?
B)Were the health records available at or near time the event was recorded?
C)Were the health records kept during the ordinary course of business?
D)Which external procedures were followed concerning access to health records?
Q2) Regarding ownership of health information, the health care provider owns the _____.
A)health information
B)medium (e.g., microfilmed records)
C)provider's testimony about a case
D)reports (copies) from another provider
Q3) Which is a concept that describes the requirement to anticipate the need for data in a court action?
A)duty to preserve
B)litigation hold
C)order of preservation
D)notice of preservation
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8
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability
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35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Res ipsa loquitur is a type of _____ tort.
A)contractual
B)intentional
C)nonintentional
D)professional
Q2) The Johnson v.Misericordia Community Hospital legal case held that:
A)A psychotherapist had a duty to warn a person that his patient was making threats to harm a third person.
B)The hospital had a duty to require that patients be examined by members of the hospital staff who were skilled in the treatment required.
C)The hospital did not apply its own credentialing rules and, therefore, did not follow its own standard of care in determining the qualifications of physicians practicing at the facility.
D)When a physician withdraws from the contractual relationship with a patient, he must provide the patient with reasonable notice to obtain a new physician or alternative treatment.
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9
Chapter 4: Principles of Liability: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Punitive damages are:
A)also called nominal damages for minimal injury.
B)awarded to make the plaintiff whole.
C)may compensate for future loss of income.
D)not generally awarded in medical malpractice cases.
Q2) The intentional detention or restraint of a patient against his or her own will without any legal justification is called _____.
A)breach of contract
B)false imprisonment
C)intentional infliction
D)medical abandonment
Q3) When someone makes a hand gesture that substitutes for words and defames a third party, the transitory gesture is considered _____.
A)assault
B)battery
C)libel
D)slander
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10
Chapter 5: Ethical Standards
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which implements the concept of gatekeeping to contain healthcare costs?
A)Acute healthcare facilities/hospitals
B)Health maintenance organizations
C)Patients who receive care
D)Providers who render care
Q2) A categorical imperative is defined as:
A)Applications of conditional commands without exception
B)Capitation methods implemented by managed care organizations
C)Commands derived from a principle that does not allow exceptions
D)Logical choices upon which to base healthcare treatment
Q3) In the healthcare context, the distributive justice criterion, the potential for benefit after an initial investment of limited resources is referred to as _____.
A)Contribution
B)Justice
C)Merit
D)Need
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Chapter 5: Ethical Standards: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Morals are _____.
A)knowing the difference between right and wrong, which involve listening to one's conscience
B)principles or fundamental standards of right conduct, which are internalized by each individual
C)hallmarks of autonomy, which include a sense of independence, self-determination, and freedom
D)ways in which humans interact with each other in specific circumstances, which include a code of customs
Q2) Faithfulness, loyalty, and devotion to one's obligations are associated with _____.
A)fidelity
B)justice
C)morals
D)values
Q3) The obligation to be fair to all people is considered _____.
A)fidelity
B)justice
C)morals
D)values
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Page 12
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an ethical challenges related to coding?
A)Assigning multiple codes to increase DRG payments.
B)Bundling codes and charges where appropriate
C)Coding at lower levels in accordance with guidelines.
D)Focusing on accuracy to improve reimbursement.
Q2) A written list of a profession's values and standards of conduct would best be described as the _____.
A)Bylaws
B)Code of ethics
C)Rules and regulations
D)Statutes
Q3) The ethical role of a supervisor involves _____.
A)Just her own conduct and behavior on the job, even if hostile
B)Never publicly admitting to her own mistakes if he is incorrect
C)Presuming that employees bear responsibility for their own behavior
D)Serving as a role model to employees and others in an organization
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13
Chapter 6: Ethical Decisions and Challenges: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an internal ethical challenge for the health information department of a health care facilities?
A)Discharging patients too soon
B)Information privacy and security
C)Life-support issues
D)Substance abuse
Q2) Written lists of a profession's values and standards of conduct are called a(n) _____.
A)code of ethics
B)HIPAA regulation
C)professional's rights
D)statutory provision
Q3) Which is established within an organization or profession to evaluate current guidelines and establish new guidelines?
A)covered entity
B)ethics committee
C)patient representative
D)statutory provision
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Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46495
Sample Questions
Q1) GINA stands for:
A)Genetics in Native Americans
B)Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
C)Government in Nursing Association
D)Government Information Nondisclosure Agreement
Q2) Family planning refers to _____.
A)Abortion
B)Artificial insemination
C)Contraception
D)Controlling family size
Q3) A child with a ruptured spleen from a bicycle accident is quickly deteriorating. His mother, a Jehovah's witness, refuses to allow a blood transfusion needed to save his life.
What is the appropriate way to proceed?
A)Proceed without the mother's consent in the best interest of the child
B)Refer to the hospital ethics committee
C)Request the hospital administration obtain an emergency court injunction
D)Honor the mother's wishes
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15
Chapter 7: Bioethical Issues: Part A
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21 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) What refers to the termination of a pregnancy before the viability of the fetus?
A)abortion
B)eugenics
C)genetic screening
D)perinatal testing
Q2) A provider's duty to treat could be an issue with _____.
A)allografts
B)HIV/AIDS
C)organ transplantation
D)xenografts
Q3) Which patient right is associated with the issue of HIV/AIDS?
A)Confidentiality
B)Duty to treat
C)Genetic testing
D)Prenatal surgery
Q4) The use of animal tissue for organ transplants is called a(n) _____.
A)allograft
B)autograft
C)heterograft
D)homograft
Page 16
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a health care facility files for bankruptcy and closes, a _____ is appointed to make decisions for the bankrupt health care provider.
A)Case trustee
B)Federal agency
C)Licensing authority
D)Third-party payer
Q2) The destruction of records _____.
A)Can be done when requests for the production of documents legally endangers an organization
B)Is performed at the discretion of the health information manager due to storage concerns
C)May be performed in the regular course of business following a specified retention period
D)Should never be performed so that the integrity of patient care is consistently maintained
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Chapter 8: Patient Record Requirements: Part A
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24 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is an example of personal information associated with the health record?
A)Alcohol, tobacco, and work history
B)Demographic data, such as address
C)Test results and operative reports
D)Third-party payer information
Q2) When an incorrect entry is documented in the paper-based health record, the responsible provider can _____.
A)cross out the entire incorrect entry using a single line, documenting the correct entry immediately below the incorrect entry and dating the entry
B)delete the entire entry by removing the report on which the incorrect entry was made, documenting corrected entries on a new page in the record
C)draw a single line through the incorrect entry; write the word "error" next to it; date, time and initialize the incorrect entry; and enter the reason for correction
D)obliterate entire incorrect entry (e.g., using a black magic marker), and document the correct entry in the next available space in the patient record
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18
Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The confidentiality of HIV information _____.
A)Does not require disclosure to the patient that re-release of such information was performed if in the best interest of the general public
B)Is protected in the same manner as any other type of protected health information, including inpatient stays and outpatient encounters
C)Means a positive test result can be disclosed without prior consent to protect the public if actions are taken to protect the patient's identity
D)Restricts identification of the patient tested and the reason for testing, but not results of the test, whether positive or negative
Q2) Which recognizes the patient's right to bring a lawsuit for damages or relief against someone who obtains, releases, or uses protected health information (PHI) inappropriately?
A)AMA ethical guidelines
B)Common law basis
C)Freedom of Information Act
D)Informed consent
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Chapter 9: Confidentiality and Informed Consent: Part A
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20 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legislation was enacted to allow patients to create advance directives while competent.
A)FOIA
B)HIPAA
C)PSDA
D)TEFRA
Q2) The professional disclosure standard applies to health care providers and is measured against what _____ under the same or similar circumstances would disclose.
A)a reasonable health care provider
B)any health care provider
C)federal and state governments
D)suspect testimony mandates
Q3) Which applies to government records and mandates compliance upon request unless the information requested is excluded in the federal statute?
A)FOIA
B)HIPAA
C)Nationwide Security Framework
D)Privacy Act of 1974
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Page 20
Chapter 10: Access to Health Information
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Declaration of Helsinki applies to _____.
A)Freedom of patient access to medical records relative to research
B)Guidelines followed when conducting research involving human subjects
C)Protection of human and non-human subjects involved in medical research
D)Legal consequences of ethical violations occurring during research
Q2) A parent will not be granted access to the health care record of his or her child who has not yet reached the age of majority when the minor child _____.
A)Can lawfully obtain health care without parental consent
B)Is pursuing her GED online and living with her parents
C)Seeks treatment for an injury sustained in an auto accident
D)Violates terms of her court-assigned probation and runs away
Q3) With regards to the method of disclosure, the law requires that it be made by:
A)Any method consistent with professional guidelines and institutional practices
B)Electronic transmission that includes the application of encryption software
C)Mail or other shipping method that verifies the receipt of the patient records
D)Portable media such as CD-ROM, DVD, portable hard drive, or thumb drive
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Chapter 10: Access to Health Information: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Failure to report a public health threat, such as _____, may be considered an infraction of the law.
A)an injury caused by a deadly weapon
B)an overuse of healthcare resources
C)the breach of adoption information
D)the theft of a patient's identity
Q2) An authorization to release healthcare information is signed _____ the dates of treatment for which the disclosure request is made.
A)before or after
B)following
C)prior to
D)without knowing
Q3) Which of the following is required to produce an authorization signed by the patient so that personal health information is released.
A)A patient's employer who provides group healthcare insurance
B)Attorney representing facility in which the patient was treated
C)Healthcare practitioners who provide the patient's care and treatment
D)Surveyors who represent accreditation and licensing agencies
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records
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40 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In addition to standard documentation requirements, the Joint Commission requires _____ to be documented in mental health records.
A)Benefits of treatment to be explained to third-party payers
B)Involvement of the family members in treatment programs
C)Legal status of family members and friends of the patient
D)Provision of educational benefits by the state programs
Q2) The official record regarding mental health care is _____.
A)Documented by providers and includes care and treatment
B)Maintained separately from the general patient record
C)Not required to be maintained by federal or state law
D)Stored by the clinicians, who have sole possession
Q3) A specialized patient records contains diagnoses regarding _____,
A)autoimmune disease
B)cancer therapies
C)mental illness
D)physical medicine
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Chapter 11: Specialized Patient Records: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) A third-party payer that contacts the health information department of a drug or alcohol abuse facility or program to confirm the patient's presence in the facility or program will be told:
A)address upon admission only
B)date of admission only
C)nothing unless the patient consents
D)to contact the patient's family
Q2) The Human Genome Project was funded by the U.S.Congress as a joint effort of the U.S.Department of Energy and the _____.
A)Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
B)Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
C)National Institutes of Health (NIH)
D)Veterans Health Administration (VHA)
Q3) More stringent privacy restrictions for mental health (psychiatric) records are mandated by _____ laws.
A)federal
B)Medicare CoP
C)HIPAA
D)state
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Page 24
Chapter 12: Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management
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36 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) The function of analyzing and evaluating all of the risks that affect an organization is called _____.
A)enterprise risk management
B)litigation support
C)quality review
D)root-cause analysis
Q2) Which involves a combination of planned functions directed toward prudent allocation of medical resources and the administration of appropriate treatment?
A)case management
B)health information management
C)quality management
D)risk management
Q3) Which is an example of a concern that may be addressed as the result of an enterprise risk management assessment?
A)Costs of private schooling at the healthcare facility
B)Nursing staffing that is adequate for patient needs
C)Percentage of uninsured patients seeking treatment
D)Risk management plan that is effective and working
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Chapter 12:
Risk Management, Quality Management, and Utilization Management: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Incident reports are covered by the _____ rule of evidence and business record exception, and they may or may not be admitted as evidence.
A)circumstantial
B)hearsay
C)statutory
D)tort
Q2) Which is an outcome-based management function that implements measures to prevent or lessen the effects of risks at the lowest cost?
A)quality management
B)risk management
C)security management
D)utilization management
Q3) Which is an issue associated with HIPAA security?
A)Record destruction is not permitted during the ordinary course of business.
B)Requests for access to the patient record must be processed within one day.
C)The retention of records must be according to federal or state statutes and regulations.
D)The record must be unavailable to health care professionals treating the patient.
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Chapter 13: Information Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Digital imaging in the context of maintaining PHI refers to _____.
A)Electronic indexing of patient records and other documents
B)Photographs taken of patients before and after surgery
C)Scanning a paper document, to be viewed over a server
D)Using fiberoptics in minimally invasive procedures
Q2) Which is an Institute of Medicine core functionality that constitutes an electronic health record?
A)Clinical decision support
B)Dictation and transcription
C)Enforcement of collections
D)Gatekeeping for patients
Q3) A printout of the patient record, which has been maintained in an electronic medium is _____.
A)Considered inadmissible because it is not the actual patient record
B)Entered into evidence with testimony by the custodian of health records
C)Not required to meet foundation, trustworthiness, or accuracy requirements
D)Paper-based, which means it was generated manually by providers
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Chapter 13: Information Systems: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Providers are authorized to operate and practice medicine _____.
A)accreditation organizations
B)county health departments
C)professional associations
D)state licensing agencies
Q2) The electronic health record (EHR) is created as a result of many electronic systems, and the health information manager works in concert with the health care provider's attorney to determine what constitutes the legal health record.Which statement below supports this collaborative process?
A)All aspects of the electronic systems are considered part of the legal health record, regardless of origin.
B)Legal records include documentation of delivery of health care services and exclude electronic systems.
C)Medicolegal requests for the release of health record information are part of the legal health record.
D)Parts of electronic systems and all health care delivery documentation comprise the legal health record.
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse
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Sample Questions
Q1) Compliance programs seek to _____.
A)Enhance health information management functions in organizations
B)Maximize reimbursement from federally funded healthcare programs
C)Prevent and detect conduct that does not conform to applicable laws
D)Punish healthcare providers who engage in illegal billing practices
Q2) Stark I and Stark II laws were passed because _____.
A)False misrepresentations of facts that are relied upon by another were a detriment to others and a departure from reasonable use
B)Increase federal scrutiny caused healthcare organizations to change their methods of operation, such as submitting false claims
C)Physicians were abusing the healthcare system by referring patients to services in which they (or family members) had a financial interest
D)Relators were suing on behalf of the U.S.government expressly to receive a portion of the recovered funds if the lawsuit was successful
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Chapter 14: Health-Care Fraud and Abuse: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Match the examples of fraud and abuse with the appropriate type. Charging for procedures that were not performed
A)Abuse
B)Fraud
Q2) Which allows private plaintiffs to sue on behalf of the U.S government and, as a result, receive a portion of the recovered funds if the case is successful?
A)qui tam actions
B)res gestae
C)respondeat superior
D)subpoena duces tecum
Q3) Match the examples of fraud and abuse with the appropriate type. Erroneously reporting codes (e.g., missing fifth digit)
A)Abuse
B)Fraud
Q4) Which is the penalty for felony violation of mail and wire fraud statutes?
A)$1,000 fine and/or 5-year prison term
B)$5,000 fine and/or 1-year prison term
C)$10,000 fine and/or 5-year prison term
D)$50,000 fine and/or 10-year prison term
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace
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Sample Questions
Q1) A living wage law requires employers to pay _____.
A)Employees the federal minimum wage
B)Health insurance for all employees
C)More than the Federal minimum wage
D)Workers even if illegal aliens
Q2) A statutory employee is defined by _____.
A)Control employer has over work completed
B)Physical location of the employee
C)Tax withholding requirements
D)Type of work performed
Q3) Unemployment insurance is _____.
A)Administered by a third party
B)Covers exempt employees
C)Financed by the federal government
D)Funded through a tax on employers
Q4) An employer is obligated to verify the _____ of employees who are hired to work.
A)Age, gender, and disability status
B)Employment authorization and identity
C)Independent contractor status
D)Medical ability and competency
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Chapter 15: Law and Ethics in the Workplace: Part A
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which legislation protects current and potential employees from discrimination throughout all stages of employment?
A)ADEA
B)EOE Act
C)OSHA
D)WARN
Q2) Which is the employment arrangement that allows the employer to terminate the employee at any time and allows the employee to leave the employer at any time?
A)At-will employment doctrine
B)Code of conduct
C)Quid pro quo
D)Reasonable accommodation
Q3) Which legislation requires employers to provide a 60-day warning period before closing facility or beginning massive layoffs?
A)ADEA
B)EOE Act
C)OSHA
D)WARN
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