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Health Informatics is an interdisciplinary field that focuses on the effective use of information technology to organize, analyze, manage, and utilize health data for better patient care, research, and healthcare administration. This course explores the principles of health information systems, electronic health records, data standards, healthcare data analytics, and the ethical, legal, and security challenges in the digital health environment. Students will gain practical skills in evaluating and implementing informatics solutions and learn how technology is transforming decision-making, communication, and collaboration in contemporary healthcare settings.
Recommended Textbook
Health Information Management of a Strategic Resource 4th Edition by Mervat Abdelhak
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17 Chapters
1064 Verified Questions
1064 Flashcards
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77 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which amendment to the Social Security Act of 1935 established the Medicare program?
A) Hill-Burton Act
B) Health Insurance for the Aged Act
C) Kerr-Mills Medical Assistance Program
D) Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act
Answer: B
Q2) Which publication communicated the goals and objectives for promoting health and preventing disease in the United States?
A) Conditions of Participation
B) Medicare Handbook
C) Healthy People: 2010
D) Flexner Report
Answer: C
Q3) The CEO is employed by and is directly responsible to the:
A) Governing body.
B) Joint conference committee.
C) Medical staff organization.
D) Executive committee.
Answer: A
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50 Verified Questions
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Q1) Which requirements apply to certifying health care facilities for the treatment of Medicare and Medicaid patients?
A) Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act
B) Omnibus Reconciliation Act
C) Conditions of Participation
D) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Answer: C
Q2) To provide continued health care to the public, a health care organization must demonstrate compliance with state licensing regulations.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) The earliest medical records in the United States had some characteristics of a business record.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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53 Verified Questions
53 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Makes health care information instantly accessible between government entities
A)HL7
B)DICOM
C)NCPDP
D)IEEE 1073
E)CHI
F)RxNorm
G)SNOMED
H)ASTM 1384
I)LOINC
J)HIPAA transactions
Answer: E
Q2) Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services contracts with quality improvement organizations to ensure that patients get the right care at the right time.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
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126 Verified Questions
126 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which is secondary health care data?
A) Measles immunization: 3/12/89
B) 23 nosocomial infections
C) KCl 500 mg daily
D) BP 120/80
Q2) Referring to the information below, what data type is sex?
Coding Scheme
Sex
1 = female
2 = male
Q3) When an application is performed using both the old and new computer system for a period, it is called _________________________.
Q4) Administrators of health care organizations use internal and external data for benchmarking.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Data uniformity is one characteristic of a health care data set.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Distinguish between primary and secondary data.
Page 6
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Sample Questions
Q1) Name one use of secondary data.
Q2) Successful selection and implementation of electronic health records requires that key barriers be addressed. Identify three barriers.
Q3) Infrastructure refers to ____________________________________________________________.
Q4) Authorized users can access transcribed radiology reports and digital diagnostic images in radiology databases by a Web server using web browser.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Internet-derived technologies are used in applications that communicate:
A) Between individuals in separate organizations using the public transport.
B) Between individuals and published Web sites of all kinds using public transport.
C) Internal and external applications using public transport and institutional Intranets.
D) All of the above.
Q6) Contrast a decision-support and an executive information system.
Q7) Computer processing of a natural language is called
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical reference terminology
A)ICD 9 CM
B)ICD 10
C)CPT
D)NOC
E)NDC
F)SNOMED CT
G)DSM
H)DRG
I)LOINC
J)SNOP
Q2) GEMS is a translation dictionary to convert International Classification of Diseases, 9th edition, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM) data to International Classification of Diseases, 9th edition, Clinical Modification/Procedure Coding System (ICD-9-CM/PCS) data.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which terminology is more specific, ICD or SNOMED?
Q4) List the five axes used by the LOINC naming nomenclature.
Q5) List five characteristics of useful clinical terminologies.
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of malware is:
A) An attachment to an e-mail message.
B) A Web site that is collecting personal information without permission of the user.
C) A macro that is operating on a computer without permission of the user.
D) None of the above.
Q2) A point-of-care health information system includes bedside workstations, biomedical devices, and local area networks (LANs).
A)True
B)False
Q3) A wireless network can be secured with the use of:
A) Wired equivalent privacy protocol.
B) A firewall.
C) A virtual private network.
D) All of the above.
Q4) List one reason why health care information systems have been able to expand in both scope and presence in most health care organizations.
Q5) Explain what S-HTTP refers to.
Q6) List one difference between thick-client and thin-client computers.
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59 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a data dictionary notation for a data element, the label describes which of the following?
A) The project
B) The data name
C) The data entry type
D) The data value or meaning
Q2) Criteria for evaluating vendor responses to request for proposals (RFPs) should encompass each of the following considerations except:
A) RFP distribution considerations.
B) Hardware and software considerations.
C) Vendor considerations.
D) Economic considerations.
Q3) Entity-relationship diagrams (ERDs) should be developed whether the information system is to be developed in-house or purchased from a vendor.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Attributes describe both entities and relationships in a database.
A)True
B)False

10
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Sample Questions
Q1) Defines and describes all system features
A)Training manual
B)User manual
Q2) The term server has more than one possible meaning.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Peaks and valleys work flow
A)Project
B)Operations
Q4) Not "start date" and "end date" focused
A)Project
B)Operations
Q5) Which of the following factors has been found to be most important in making a system implementation as success: perceived usefulness or ease of use?
Q6) Contains exercises and evaluations
A)Training manual
B)User manual
Q7) Computer systems are tools used to accomplish business functions.
A)True
B)False Page 11
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which denominator is appropriate for computing the maternal death rate?
A) Total discharges (including deaths) of all patients
B) Total discharges (including deaths) of obstetrical patients
C) Total deaths of obstetrical patients
D) Total discharges of surgical patients
Q2) The _________________________ demonstrates how values are spread around the mean and is the square root of the variance.
Q3) A whole number divided in 100 parts is a ____________________.
Q4) The standard deviation is the most common measure of variation and is represented by the symbol S.
A)True
B)False
Q5) What is the major disadvantage of the range?
A) Based on ordinal data only
B) Based on percentages
C) Based on extreme values and ignores all other values
D) Based on small values and ignores all other values
Q6) The ____________________ denotes the middlemost value when the values are arranged in numerical order.
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75 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Validity
A)Faulty memory
B)The tendency to select persons under frequent medical care
C)The tendency to ask questions differently or probe more if it is known that the person has the disease
D)Quantifies the amount of risk due to a certain characteristic IRe-IRo
E)The ability of a test instrument to measure what it is supposed to measure
F)Identified by pre-existing records developed in the past
G)Accumulated period of time each person is in the study
H)Percent of all true noncases correctly identified
I)Percent of all true cases correctly identified
J)Reliability between more than one research assistant or observer
K)Examples: all new employees within a hospital, all new students in the first grade
L)The tendency for a certain disease to get a different opinion by different evaluators
Q2) Outcomes research focuses on measures of mortality.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) Identifying potentially compensable events is one step in:
A) Establishing clinical practice guidelines.
B) Financial planning to meet legal obligations.
C) Managing patient length of stay.
D) Negotiating managed care contracts.
Q2) The purpose of credentialing is to assign physicians to a unit of the medical staff organization.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A highly reliable measure will identify a large number of random errors.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The mortality rate has been determined to be the most reliable clinical outcome measure.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Accreditation refers to the credentialing process for an individual health professional.
A)True
B)False

Page 15
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Q1) Each of the following is a required component of an approved hospital cancer program except:
A) Cancer committee.
B) Cancer registry.
C) Cancer conferences.
D) Cancer control.
Q2) Comprehensive data for performance indicators must be obtained from:
A) Various structures of the health care industry.
B) Distribution of data across multiple providers.
C) Benchmarks or standards of care.
D) Correlations between treatments.
Q3) Coded and administrative data are used by public health agencies for:
A) Reimbursing health services provided.
B) Planning related to health care services.
C) Tracking and preventing disability and disease.
D) Pay for performance.
Q4) Staging of neoplasms is recorded at the time of initial diagnosis and treatment.
A)True
B)False
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Sample Questions
Q1) In a malpractice action against a hospital, the hospital is the defendant.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Minors who are married, living away from home, responsible for their own support, and who the law recognizes as being able to make their own decisions and agreements are generally called ____________________.
Q3) The statute of limitations refers to which one of these choices?
A) Those who practice direct health care
B) All licensed physicians
C) The time during which a lawsuit may be initiated
D) The time required for the retention of health records
Q4) Personal health information used for patient treatment is subject to the minimum necessary provision of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
A)True
B)False
Q5) In setting facility policies for patient access to their health information, name the two most important sources of law that the health information management (HIM) professional should consult.
Q6) The U.S. Bill of Rights is a source of ____________________ law.
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Sample Questions
Q1) All the following fall under provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act EXCEPT:
A) Overtime pay
B) Child labor
C) Collective bargaining
D) Working hours
Q2) What is the primary purpose of a progressive preventive disciplinary process?
Q3) What do all job evaluation approaches have in common?
Q4) Which of the following are potential outcomes of a job analysis?
A) Eliminating obsolete or irrelevant job requirements
B) Providing data useful for fair compensation management
C) Identifying key employee selection criteria
D) All of the above
Q5) The major purpose of suspension as a disciplinary measure is to punish the employee for his or her conduct.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What does the Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act make illegal?
Q7) Name three reasons why job analysis is useful.
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Q8) What are some constraints that arise in recruitment that affect the size of the applicant pool?

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Q1) Project management is a skill set that emphasizes planning and implementing a specific objective.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The color red is rarely used in offices because it can cause headaches and increase blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Departmental productivity standards help employees understand expected job performance.
A)True
B)False
Q4) In reengineering processes that do not contribute to achieving an organization's goals are called value-added activities.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Effective strategic planning requires environmental forecasting.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Saint Elsewhere Community Hospital is considering investing $90,000 in new transcription equipment to replace its present equipment, which is completely depreciated and outmoded. An alternative to this investment is a long-term contract with a local transcription firm to perform the transcription service. It is expected that the hospital would save $20,000 per year in operating costs if the transcription was performed internally. The expected and depreciable life of the equipment is 6 years. Assuming that Saint Elsewhere can borrow or invest money at 8%, calculate the payback year.
Q2) If an organization wants to know how long the collection period is that it is extending to its debtors on average, it would likely calculate the long-term debt ratio.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which of the following is a performance measure?
A) Operating margin ratio
B) Capitalization ratio
C) Accounts receivable turnover ratio
D) Total asset ratio
Q4) What is the major difference between a balance sheet and an income statement (or statement of revenues and expenses)?
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