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Health Education is a comprehensive course that explores the fundamental principles of promoting health and well-being among individuals and communities. It covers topics such as disease prevention, nutrition, mental health, substance abuse, physical activity, sexual health, and environmental health. Students will learn how to assess health needs, design and implement effective health education programs, and evaluate their outcomes. Emphasis is placed on communication strategies, behavior change theories, and cultural competency to ensure inclusive and impactful health interventions. This course prepares students to become knowledgeable advocates and educators capable of making meaningful contributions to public health initiatives.
Recommended Textbook
Access to Health 13th Edition by
Rebecca J. Donatelle
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27 Chapters
2485 Verified Questions
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Q1) Developing better problem-solving and decision-making skills enhances the emotional dimension of health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q2) Health disparities are differences in the levels of health and disease among specific population groups, such as the low-income or uninsured.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Locus of control may be internal or external.
A)True
B)False Answer: True
Q4) A person who has the attitude, knowledge, skills, and resources to make change possible possesses ambition.
A)True
B)False Answer: False
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Q1) Psychological health encompasses the mental, emotional, social, and spiritual dimensions of health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Which principle described by psychologist Martin Seligman fosters an overall positive attitude by using thinking and behavior techniques to resist negativity?
A) Learned helpfulness
B) Learned pessimism
C) Learned optimism
D) Learned mindfulness
Answer: C
Q3) The term emotional health is often used to describe the "thinking" aspect of psychological health.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
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Q1) Studies have shown that experienced meditators have an increased capacity for A) empathy.
B) falling asleep.
C) analyzing data quickly.
D) expanding the lungs.
Answer: A
Q2) Becoming a more loving person and developing a meaningful philosophy of life are indicators of a person's
A) level of intelligence.
B) sense of beauty.
C) spiritual growth.
D) resiliency.
Answer: C
Q3) Studies have shown a positive relationship between spiritual health and A) physical health.
B) financial status.
C) reputation in the community.
D) status within a religious organization.
Answer: A
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Q1) Tiffany has been under a great deal of stress during the past year and has experienced unexplained weight gain. Which of the following hormones may be linked to her weight gain?
A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinepherine
C) Cortisol
D) Insulin
Q2) Effective coping strategies that can help alleviate daily stress include
A) being realistic and managing your time.
B) resisting change and maintaining the status quo.
C) vowing to avoid repeating mistakes.
D) avoiding exercise to prevent becoming overtired.
Q3) When people use cognitive restructuring, they focus on learning to manage stress by modifying how they think and talk to themselves.
A)True
B)False
Q4) The balance or equilibrium of all body systems is known as homeostasis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Briefly describe each stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
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Q1) NREM Stage 2 is the deepest stage of sleep.
A)True
B)False
Q2) When Ryan gets adequate sleep the night before his basketball games, he has energy to run faster up and down the court. This can be attributed to A) his cognitive ability being restored while he sleeps.
B) increases in his body temperature and caloric expenditure while he sleeps.
C) increases in brain activity while he sleeps.
D) conservation of body energy while he sleeps.
Q3) During NREM sleep, body temperature and energy use drop.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Caffeine contributes to alertness by blocking a certain neurotransmitter in the brain. A)True
B)False
Q5) The obesity epidemic may be due in part to sleep deprivation.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Describe how you can set up your bedroom to encourage sound sleep.
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Q1) An important aspect of effective communication is
A) not expressing feelings.
B) pretending to listen.
C) understanding nonverbal communication.
D) smiling even if you don't feel happy.
Q2) Compare and contrast common facial expressions and speech patterns that differentiate the communication styles of men and women.
Q3) One does not need satisfying relationships to achieve overall health.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Within relationships, power can be defined as the ability to make and implement decisions.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Intimate relationships cannot exist without
A) similar communication styles.
B) closely aligned interests.
C) emotional perspective.
D) emotional availability.
Q6) What are four strategies for coping with a failed relationship? Page 8
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Q1) Dysmenorrhea is the condition involving pain during intercourse.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Where does the male human body store sperm until they reach full maturity?
A) Seminal vesicles
B) Prostate gland
C) Cowper's glands
D) Epididymis
Q3) Menopause signals the beginning of a woman's reproductive years.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Achieving sexual gratification through the infliction of pain or being subject to pain is a variant sexual behavior known as
A) exhibitionism.
B) autoeroticism.
C) voyeurism.
D) sadomasochism.
Q5) In the menstrual cycle, the phase following ovulation is the secretory phase.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) An episiotomy is an incision made in a mother's perineum to speed a baby's exit from the birth canal.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Massaging, fondling, and kissing are forms of "outercourse."
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which health risk is associated with long-term use of Depo-Provera contraceptive injections?
A) Weight gain and obesity
B) Irregular bleeding
C) Loss of bone density
D) Heavier periods
Q4) What is the earliest point after conception that a home pregnancy test can be used to confirm pregnancy?
A) 1 week later
B) 2 weeks later
C) 3 weeks later
D) 4 weeks later
Q5) List at least five early signs of pregnancy.
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Q1) One-third of the calories Americans consume come from
A) fruit.
B) healthy snacks.
C) junk food.
D) vegetables.
Q2) The nine essential amino acids are produced by our bodies.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The most common genetically modified food crops are
A) corn, wheat, and soybeans.
B) soybeans, corn, and cotton.
C) tomatoes, corn, and wheat.
D) oats, wheat, and cotton.
Q4) Colleen has been warned by her nutritionist that taking large amounts of a certain vitamin can be toxic because it accumulates in the liver. Which vitamin?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin B
Q5) List at least three health benefits of a fiber-rich diet.
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Q1) Which type of weight loss surgery involves a procedure that restricts stomach size to limit food intake?
A) Adipose tissue removal
B) Liposuction
C) Gastric banding
D) Gastric bypass
Q2) Exercise metabolic rate refers to the energy expenditure that occurs during physical activity.
A)True
B)False
Q3) What actions can you take to prevent overeating when you dine out? List at least four.
Q4) The most accurate and complete way to determine ideal body weight is to A) measure body composition.
B) record how much you eat per day in a journal.
C) compare bone mass to muscle mass.
D) compare height to weight.
Q5) Susan finds that her hunger spikes in the afternoon and she looks for a snack to fill her up until dinner. What are three tips for sensible snacking?
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Q1) Compulsive exercisers engage in excessive exercise but can calmly deal with days when they cannot complete the amount of exercise they perceive as adequate.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Explain how the media influences a person's sense of body image.
Q3) Eating disorders affect people of all ages.
A)True B)False
Q4) Maintaining a healthy body image contributes to stress. A)True
B)False
Q5) Rita doesn't like the way she looks and complains to her friend Sue that she has the biggest thighs in town. She is ashamed to wear a bathing suit at the beach. Rita has A) succumbed to peer pressure.
B) a negative body image.
C) a bad attitude.
D) improved her self-confidence.
Q6) List at least four behaviors associated with disordered eating.
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Q1) Strong core muscles can
A) improve posture and prevent back pain.
B) prevent injuries to the extremities.
C) prevent pain related to repetitive movements.
D) improve the ability to fight infection.
Q2) A potentially fatal condition resulting from abnormally low body core temperature is A) hypothermia.
B) hyperthermia.
C) hypotension.
D) hypertension.
Q3) Muscular endurance is a muscle's ability to
A) exert force repeatedly or to sustain a contraction for a length of time.
B) contract while moving some type of weight.
C) flex a joint.
D) increase the amount of force exerted in subsequent contractions.
Q4) Aerobic capacity determines the functional status of the cardiorespiratory system.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Men and women are equally likely to have gambling problems.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cycle of addiction begins when a person
A) seeks to escape from unpleasant feelings or situations.
B) is unable to control a behavior that has been harmless in the past.
C) deals with the negative consequences of a behavior or substance.
D) repeatedly denies that a problem exists, despite negative consequences.
Q3) Which of the following is the best example of an addiction?
A) Compulsively clicking your pen during stressful times
B) Depleting the family savings by buying things you do not need
C) Working late for an entire week to meet a deadline
D) Having alcoholic drinks at a friend's wedding
Q4) Which of the following statements is True regarding the biopsychosocial model of addiction?
A) Addiction is caused by hereditary factors.
B) Addiction is caused by a variety of factors operating together.
C) There is no genetic influence on addiction.
D) Cultural expectations can contribute to an addiction.
Q5) Describe five characteristics of a quality addiction treatment program.
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Q1) Alcoholism is directly or indirectly responsible for what percentage of total medical expenses and lost earnings in the United States?
A) More than 20%
B) More than 25%
C) More than 30%
D) More than 35%
Q2) Binge drinking, especially by young adults, has become more of a problem now than in the past.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List five signs or behaviors that indicate a person has a drinking problem.
Q4) Women generally become intoxicated more quickly than men because they
A) have less body fat and higher water content.
B) have thinner blood.
C) have more body fat and lower water content.
D) tend to sip their drinks.
Q5) A standard alcoholic drink contains about 14 grams of pure alcohol.
A)True B)False
Q6) Explain learned behavioral tolerance.
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Q1) When Paul meets his friends for an evening at a smoke-filled bar, he is exposed to secondhand smoke, also known as
A) negligible smoke.
B) mainstream smoke.
C) sidestream smoke.
D) involuntary smoke.
Q2) Inhaling smoke from another person's cigarette, pipe, or cigar is
A) passive smoking.
B) mainstream smoking.
C) smoking without risk.
D) annoying but not dangerous.
Q3) Tolerance develops most rapidly to the effects of which drug?
A) Alcohol
B) Cocaine
C) Marijuana
D) Nicotine
Q4) List at least three ways in which social smokers' behavior differs from regular smokers.
Q5) Describe at least three health risks that apply to women who smoke while taking birth control pills.
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Q1) The opioid-like hormones manufactured by the body that contribute to feelings of well-being are known as endorphins.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The majority of people who abuse painkillers have a prescription for the drug.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Improved mood, increased energy and enhanced alertness are associated with small doses of which type of drugs?
A) Narcotics
B) Cannabinoids
C) Tranquilizers
D) Amphetamines
Q4) The prescription drugs Vicodin, Percodan, Demerol, and OxyContin contain synthetic versions of
A) barbiturates.
B) opioids.
C) steroids.
D) cannabinoids.
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Q1) Which type of blood cells play a primary role in the body's immune response?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Erythrocytes
C) Antigens
D) Antibodies
Q2) Greg has had cold sores most of his life. He is upset because he recently got "another herpes infection," which is now in his eye. Transmission of the herpes virus to his eye most likely occurred by A) autoinoculation.
B) airborne transmission.
C) waterborne transmission. D) ingestion.
Q3) Once a person is infected, the herpes simplex virus remains in certain nerve cells for life.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Untreated chlamydia and gonorrhea in a pregnant woman may result in conjunctivitis in the newborn.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Twins are often studied in behavioral genetics because A) their environment has been similar.
B) they have the same DNA.
C) they will mimic each other's behavior. D) they have many shared memories.
Q2) Traits are inherited via a specific bundle of DNA known as a A) nucleic acid.
B) double helix.
C) chromosome.
D) genome.
Q3) Explain at least four reasons that genetic testing is performed.
Q4) Single-gene disorders are classified according to the type of allele (recessive or dominant) and the type of A) diagnosis.
B) treatment.
C) chromosome. D) karotype.
Q5) There are no risks associated with genetic testing. A)True B)False
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Q1) An angiogram is a procedure that involves inserting a catheter with a balloon at the tip to open clogged arteries.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and the blood vessels that transport nutrients, oxygen, hormones, metabolic wastes, and enzymes throughout the body
A)True
B)False
Q3) All heart arrhythmias are life-threatening and should be treated immediately.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Cardiovascular disease has claimed the lives of more women than men every year since 1984.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Thanks to better identification of early symptoms, hypertension is becoming less common among college students.
A)True
B)False
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Q1) Oral medications are
A) not useful in managing type 2 diabetes.
B) sometimes effective in managing type 2 diabetes.
C) always prescribed in addition to insulin.
D) rarely used to treat diabetes because of significant side effects.
Q2) Insulin injections or infusions are essential for individuals with type 1 diabetes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Describe at least five symptoms of diabetes.
Q4) What are two ways recommended by researchers to reduce your risk for type 2 diabetes?
A) Being physically active and getting adequate sleep
B) Eating small meals and severely restricting calories
C) Adopting a vegetarian diet
D) Reducing stress and taking vitamin supplements
Q5) Excess glucose in the body is stored as glycogen.
A)True B)False
Q6) What is the primary difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?
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Q1) In the United States, men have a 1 in 3 risk of developing some type of cancer over the course of their lifetime.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The minimum SPF necessary for a sunscreen to protect the skin is
A) SPF 10.
B) SPF 15.
C) SPF 20.
D) SPF 45.
Q3) People experiencing chronic, severe stress or who have persistent emotional problems have a higher incidence of cancer than those who don't suffer from these conditions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Jack was told that the tumor in his brain is malignant. This means that the tumor is A) cancerous.
B) contained within the brain.
C) dormant.
D) noncancerous.
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Q1) Which of the following statements is True regarding rheumatoid arthritis?
A) It is an autoimmune disease involving chronic inflammation.
B) It is most common among people who are over age 50.
C) It occurs due to environmental causes; heredity does not play a role.
D) It is caused by the wear and tear of repetitive use.
Q2) Fibromyalgia primarily affects men in their 30s and 40s.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which is the most common type of headache?
A) Cluster
B) Tension
C) Sinus
D) Migraine
Q4) List at least six triggers for migraine headaches.
Q5) Smokers have a higher risk of ulcerative colitis.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Anaphylactic shock is a common side effect of asthma medications.
A)True
B)False Page 25
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Q1) Medical practices or procedures performed with the intention of avoiding possible malpractice suits are known as
A) protective medicine.
B) preventive medicine.
C) defensive medicine.
D) legally sanctioned medicine.
Q2) The Trager Approach is a bodywork technique that aims to restructure the musculoskeletal system by working on patterns of tension held in deep tissue.
A)True
B)False
Q3) List at least five reasons why U.S. health care costs are so high.
Q4) Over-the-counter drugs are safer than prescription drugs because they have fewer side effects and do not cause dependence.
A)True
B)False
Q5) All diet pills that are on the market have been proven safe.
A)True
B)False
Q6) Name five actions you should take to be proactive in your health care.
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Q1) Which of the following behaviors is considered neglecting a child?
A) Physical harm
B) Failure to provide meals on a regular basis
C) Living in a small, cramped apartment
D) Sexual abuse
Q2) Injury done to another person by accident or without premeditation is
A) a noncriminal act.
B) a forgivable offense.
C) intentional injury.
D) unintentional injury
Q3) Based on statistics about campus violence, female students who are victims of rape
A) usually know the perpetrator.
B) usually are off campus when the rape occurred.
C) usually report it.
D) usually are seniors or graduate students.
Q4) List at least four common-sense steps you can take to protect yourself when using social networking or online dating sites.
Q5) Define sexual victimization and give some possible long-term effects.
Q6) List three situations that increase the likelihood of acquaintance rape.
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Q1) Name the five primary factors that affect motor vehicle safety.
Q2) How many American adults suffer from hearing loss?
A) More than 16 million
B) More than 26 million
C) More than 36 million
D) More than 46 million
Q3) Nearly one-half of all motor vehicle fatalities are due to drunk driving.
A)True
B)False
Q4) While legal penalties exist for drunk driving, there are no similar penalties for operating a boat while under the influence of alcohol.
A)True
B)False
Q5) It is wise to wear a life jacket when
A) sailing.
B) motorboating.
C) kayaking.
D) All the choices are correct.
Q6) List at least five safety tips for cyclists.
Q7) List at least three safety tips to prevent boating accidents. Page 29
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Q1) A number lower than 100 on the Air Quality Index (AQI) indicates that air quality is in the moderate or good range.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Each day in the United States, there are how many more people than the day before?
A) 3,000
B) 8,000
C) 13,000
D) 18,000
Q3) What percentage of the Earth's water supply that is available for human use?
A) 1 percent.
B) 2 percent.
C) 5 percent.
D) 10 percent.
Q4) A simple step such as using a travel mug for hot beverages instead of paper coffee cups can make a difference in reducing waste.
A)True B)False
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Q1) Joy is 65 and has been sedentary for most of her life. Now that she is retired, she wants to improve her level of fitness. Explain four ways she will benefit by exercising regularly.
Q2) Aging baby boomers will have a major impact on the economy, housing market, health care system, and Social Security.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The best indicator of successful aging is
A) chronological years.
B) psychological age.
C) quality of life.
D) biological age.
Q4) By the age of 30 the lens of the eye begins to harden.
A)True
B)False
Q5) A diet that includes adequate calcium throughout the adult years can help prevent bone loss.
A)True
B)False
Q6) What type of skin changes occur as a result of aging?
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