Health Assessment
Question Bank
Course Introduction
Health Assessment is a foundational course designed to equip students with the essential knowledge and skills required to systematically collect comprehensive health histories and conduct physical examinations across the lifespan. The course emphasizes the application of clinical reasoning in identifying normal and abnormal findings, as well as the integration of cultural, developmental, and psychosocial factors in health assessment. Through didactic instruction, simulated practice, and hands-on experiences, students learn techniques for gathering subjective and objective data, use of diagnostic tools, effective communication strategies, and accurate documentation. The course prepares learners to apply these competencies in various healthcare settings, facilitating early detection and management of health conditions.
Recommended Textbook
Health Assessment and Physical Examination 5th Edition by Mary Ellen Zator Estes
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1242 Verified Questions
1242 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Critical Thinking And The Nursing Process
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Sample Questions
Q1) The Universal Intellectual Standards (UIS)for critical thinking include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Clarity and logic
B) Aaccuracy and precision
C) Neatness and perfectionism
D) Relevance and fairness
E) Depth and breadth
F) Concentration and discipline
Answer: A,B,D,E
Q2) Related factors are used only with which type of nursing diagnoses?
A) actual nursing diagnoses and syndrome nursing diagnoses
B) syndromes and risk nursing diagnoses
C) actual nursing diagnoses and risk nursing diagnoses
D) syndromes and health promotion diagnoses
Answer: A
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Chapter 2: Communication Techniques And The Patient
Interview
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Sample Questions
Q1) In an interview with a patient who is visually impaired,it is important for the nurse to A) speak loudly and distinctly.
B) touch the patient frequently to emphasize the nurse's presence.
C) use a tone of voice, volume, and inflection appropriate to the message.
D) use simple phrases and closed questions.
Answer: C
Q2) Factors affecting communication during the interview process include which of the following? Select all that apply.
A) Setting
B) Distance
C) Verbal cues
D) Personal space
E) Nonverbal cues
F) Active listening
Answer: A,B,C,D,E,F
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Page 4
Chapter 3: The Complete Health History Including Documentation
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Sample Questions
Q1) After completing the examination of a newly admitted patient,the nurse would document the patient's chief complaint in terms of
A) signs and symptoms.
B) associated manifestations.
C) the health care provider's own words.
D) the nurse's own words.
Answer: A
Q2) The American Heart Association Guidelines (2011)suggests that an individual should do how many minutes of moderate exercise each week?
A) 30 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 90 minutes
D) 150 minutes
Answer: D
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Chapter 4: Developmental Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) Readiness for toilet training is usually evident at which age?
A) 10 to 12 months
B) 12 to 14 months
C) 14 to 18 months
D) 18 to 24 months
Q2) A stressful life event commonly faced by adults in the early middle-adult years includes
A) facing an "empty nest" as children move away.
B) being diagnosed with a chronic health problem such as cancer.
C) adjusting to the possible or actual death of parents and /or life partner.
D) reviewing the experiences, relationships, and events of one's life and accepting one's life and accompanying life choices and outcomes in their entirety (a life review).
Q3) If a 10-month-old has insufficiently achieved the developmental task of standing alone,the child may not be able to
A) pull self to a standing position.
B) walk alone well.
C) bounce when held in a standing position.
D) crawl using the arms to pull the body along the floor.
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Chapter 5: Cultural Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The belief that no culture is either inferior or superior to another and that behavior must be assessed from the cultural context in which it occurs is referred to as
A) cultural diversity.
B) cultural relativism.
C) ethnocentrism.
D) multiculturalism.
Q2) Which of the following societal changes are leading to many different nontraditional families and family configurations? Select all that apply.
A) Increasing rates of divorce and remarriage
B) Increasing support for and recognition of same-sex unions
C) Poor job market and having to move in with their parents
D) Increasing numbers of families facing a poor job market
E) Decreasing numbers of single people choosing to have or adopt children
F) Decreasing numbers of couples in which both parents need to work
Q3) A(n)____________________ group is people who share a unique national or regional origin and social,cultural,and linguistic heritage.
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Chapter 6: Spiritual Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient becomes hostile or uncomfortable when discussing religion and spirituality with the nurse.The nurse's best intervention is to
A) press him for details about why he is so hostile or uncomfortable.
B) offer to pray for him.
C) ask him if he would like you to call a specific religious leader.
D) record that the patient is uncomfortable with such issues, and move on to another topic.
Q2) When conducting a spiritual assessment,you should obtain information about the patient's spiritual beliefs and how those beliefs might
A) conflict with the policies of the health care agency or institution.
B) affect the patient's views of health, illness, and health care.
C) lead to spiritual distress.
D) differ from your personal beliefs.
Q3) An individual who is unsure that God exists is called a(n) A) agnostic.
B) atheist.
C) heretic.
D) pagan.
Q4) Solemn and ceremonial acts that reinforce faith are called
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Chapter 7: Nutritional Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) The three most important nutrients that provide the body with energy are ___________________,___________________,and
Q2) A severe deficiency of carbohydrates may lead to A) dental caries.
B) electrolyte imbalance.
C) problems with body tissue healing.
D) obesity.
Q3) Your patient's low-density lipoprotein level is 180 mg/dL,total cholesterol is 325 mg/dL,and triglycerides are 178 mg/dL.His risk for coronary heart disease is considered to be
A) normal.
B) low.
C) moderate.
D) high.
Q4) There are 9 calories in each gram of A) carbohydrate.
B) fat.
C) protein.
D) fiber.
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Q5) The most common nutrient deficiency in the world is lack of ___________________.
Chapter 8: Physical Examination Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) The key factor in avoiding malpractice claims is to
A) address any concerns or protests before the examination.
B) document completely all examinations, procedures, and injuries.
C) establish a trusting and caring relationship.
D) provide appropriate information during each step of the examination process.
Q2) Which of the following medical products contain latex? Select all that apply.
A) Syringes
B) Thermometers
C) Wound drains
D) Tourniquets
E) Blood pressure cuffs
F) Rubber stoppers on medication vials
Q3) Light palpation is performed by placing the finger pads of your dominant hand on the patient's skin and
A) depressing the skin 4-5 cm.
B) holding your hand and forearm at a right angle to the area being assessed.
C) moving the finger pads using gentle circular motions.
D) moving the finger pads from one area to another without allowing the depressed body surface to rebound to its natural position.
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Page 10
Chapter 9: General Survey, vital Signs, and Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient complains of pain.When caring for this patient,the most important thing the nurse must recall is that
A) administering medications for pain will always lead to addiction.
B) the patient experiencing the pain is the authority on the pain that is being felt.
C) the patient's behavior is always consistent with the amount of pain experienced.
D) the extent of a patient's pain is related specifically to the type of illness the patient has.
Q2) A newly admitted 30-year-old patient has a resting pulse rate of 56.Which question,if answered affirmatively,is most likely to assist in determining the cause of the patient's bradycardia?
A) "Have you exercised in the past hour or so?"
B) "Are you taking digoxin?"
C) "Are you having pain?"
D) "Are you feeling stressed?"
Q3) Poor oral hygiene,allergic rhinitis,or infections such as tonsillitis,sinusitis,or pneumonia can be indicated by bad ____________________.
Q4) A weak,thready pulse can be caused by ____________________ shock.
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Chapter 10: Skin, hair, and Nails
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient relates that she has received a weekly manicure and pedicure in various commercial salons within and outside of the United States for many years.You caution the patient that because standards of sterilizing equipment used in salons vary,she has an increased risk of
A) hepatitis B.
B) Staphylococcus infection.
C) Candidiasis infection.
D) herpes simplex infection.
Q2) Located in subcutaneous tissue,____________________ cells trigger the body's reaction to allergens.
Q3) Which individual should receive further examination to determine the cause of the change in hair distribution?
A) 60-year-old male, who has lost all of the hair on his scalp over the past 15 years.
B) 26-year-old female, who has experienced an increase of facial hair in the past year.
C) 55-year-old male, who has developed coarse dark hairs in his ears and nose.
D) 11-year-old girl, who has recently developed several dark hairs in her axillae and pubic area.
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Chapter 11: Head, neck, and Regional Lymph Nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The posterior cervical lymph nodes are located in the area formed by the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the
A) clavicle and the trapezius muscle.
B) mastoid and the scapula.
C) trachea and the clavicle.
D) trapezius muscle and the mastoid.
Q2) You are caring for a patient admitted with hypoparathyroidism.Of the following signs and symptoms,which would your patient most likely exhibit?
A) laryngeal spasm
B) osteitis fibrosa cystica
C) recurrent nephrolithiasis
D) proximal muscle weakness
Q3) To perform palpation of the lymph nodes,the nurse would face the patient and palpate
A) first one side of the neck, then the other side.
B) following a systematic sequence in a clockwise manner.
C) moving the fingers from side to side, using firm pressure.
D) using the pads and tips of the middle three fingers.
Q4) A(n)_____________________ headache is an example of a vascular headache.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Eyes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lacrimal glands produce ____________________.
Q2) Which finding from an examination of the external eye,eyelids,and lacrimal apparatus is normal?
A) an area of white sclera appears between the upper lid and limbus
B) the eyelids cover the upper portion of the iris
C) both lower eyelids turn outward
D) redness is present in the temporal portion of both eyelids
Q3) The sclerae of a newborn infant with osteogenesis imperfecta are typically described as
A) blue.
B) white with red streaks.
C) white with tiny brown patches.
D) yellow.
Q4) Bilateral protrusion of the globes seen in thyroid disease is called ____________________.
Q5) To examine the macula,the nurse should do which of the following?
A) Ask the patient to avoid looking at the light.
B) Trace an optic artery to its origin.
C) Move the ophthalmoscope about 2 disk diameters temporally.
D) Use the blue filter lens of the ophthalmoscope.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Ears, nose, mouth, and Throat
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Sample Questions
Q1) To evaluate transillumination of a patient's maxillary sinuses,you would place a strong light source under each eye and then observe the red glow
A) in her ear canal.
B) in her nose.
C) on the hard palate in her mouth.
D) over her sinuses.
Q2) To perform the Weber test,you would first strike the tines of a 512 Hz tuning fork on the ulnar border of the palm of your hand and then place the stem firmly
A) against the middle of the forehead.
B) on the patient's jaw.
C) on top of the head over the right ear and then repeat over the left ear.
D) against the patient's right mastoid process.
Q3) A patient's breath smells of acetone,which most likely indicates which of the following?
A) diabetic ketoacidosis
B) fetor hepaticus
C) poor oral hygiene
D) uremia
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Chapter 14: Breasts And Regional Nodes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which associated manifestation in a female with a chief complaint of a lump in the breast and discharge is most likely to be linked with breast cancer?
A) multiple soft, well-defined masses, and tenderness upon palpation
B) fever and breast swelling
C) bruising of the breast tissue and chest wall
D) dimpling of the skin
Q2) According to Tanner's sexual maturity rating for female breast development,the normal breast development in an adolescent female occurring after 10 years of age is characterized initially by a(n)
A) small mound of breast tissue with widening of the areola.
B) enlarged breast.
C) small, elevated nipple.
D) areola flush with the breast contour with a protruding nipple.
Q3) Which finding is normal in the breast of a pregnant woman?
A) localized erythema
B) small, nontender nodule
C) dermatitis of the areola
D) spontaneous discharge of a yellow fluid
Q4) The pigmented area surrounding the nipple is called the
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Chapter 15: Thorax And Lungs
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements is true regarding respirations? Select all that apply.
A) Apnea is the lack of spontaneous respirations for 10 or more seconds.
B) A respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute is termed tachypnea.
C) In the resting adult, the normal respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
D) In stressful situations, the body releases catecholamines that elevate the respiratory rate to supply sufficient oxygen.
E) In central sleep apnea, the respiratory drive is altered, leading to periods of respiratory cessation.
F) In drug overdoses (barbiturates, alcohol, and opiates), bradypnea is a sign Of the drug's depressant effect on the respiratory center.
Q2) To perform anterior thoracic auscultation,you would
A) use the bell of the stethoscope.
B) instruct the patient to breathe deeply and slowly through the nose.
C) shave areas of coarse chest hair to avoid sound distortion.
D) ask the patient to displace the breast tissue when necessary to auscultate the lungs.
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Chapter 16: Heart
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Sample Questions
Q1) The visceral layer,a serous layer that lies against the heart,is also called the ____________________.
Q2) A normal pulsation palpated in the mitral area is the apical impulse,which A) has a large amplitude.
B) can be felt immediately after the first heart sound. C) is often easier to palpate with the patient turned to the right side. D) is present in about 10% of adults.
Q3) The heart muscle (myocardium)receives oxygen from the coronary arterial system.Which vessels comprise the coronary arterial system? Select all that apply.
A) Left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery
B) Circumflex branch of left coronary artery
C) Right branch of pulmonary artery
D) Inferior vena cava
E) Right coronary artery (RCA)
F) Marginal artery
Q4) An obstruction in the left main coronary artery is often referred to as a(n)____________________ because of its lethal effect.
Q5) A healthy adult heart pumps up to ____________________ liters of blood per minute.
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Chapter 17: Peripheral Vasculature And Lymphatic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When palpating for the epitrochlear node,you should place your finger pads
A) in the suprasternal notch in the space between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the trachea.
B) in the axillary area between the pectoral muscles and the latissimus dorsi.
C) along the path of the trochlear nerve.
D) in the groove between the biceps and the triceps muscles, superior to the medial condyle of the humerus.
Q2) When examining a patient,you realize that the patient's lymph nodes are swollen.You hypothesize that the patient has which of the following conditions?
A) lymphoma
B) lymphadenitis
C) lymphadenopathy
D) lymphedema
Q3) Which jugular vein pulsation results from the slow buildup of blood in the right atrium during ventricular contractions?
A) a wave
B) c wave
C) g wave
D) v wave
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Abdomen
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Sample Questions
Q1) The examination of a patient reveals a positive Rovsing's sign,which is abdominal pain felt in the right lower quadrant as you pressed deeply and evenly for 5 seconds
A) in her left lower quadrant (LLQ).
B) in her right lower quadrant (RLQ).
C) directly over her ileocecal valve.
D) in her umbilical area.
Q2) Muscle guarding,or tensing of the rectus muscles,during expiration indicates A) the patient may be anxious.
B) bulging of the aorta.
C) possible pyelonephritis.
D) possible peritonitis.
Q3) A scaphoid abdomen is characterized as a(n)
A) convex symmetrical profile, with maximum height of the abdomen at the umbilicus.
B) convex contour with taut stretching of skin over the abdominal wall.
C) concave symmetrical profile possibly due to flaccid muscles.
D) asymmetrical profile, possibly indicating the presence of a tumor or a bowel obstruction.
Q4) ____________________ bowel sounds indicate decreased motility.
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Chapter 19: Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following describes cartilage? Select all that apply.
A) Dense
B) Resilient
C) Vascular
D) Fibrous
E) Spongy
F) Fragile
Q2) You are caring for an 82-years-old patient who fell in his home and is now complaining of pain in his left hip and leg.To determine the length of your patient's legs,you position him supine with his legs extended and measure from the
A) anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus.
B) posterior iliac spine to the medial malleolus.
C) anterior superior iliac spine to the bottom of the foot.
D) posterior iliac spine to the bottom of the foot.
Q3) The joint angle decreases in
A) abduction.
B) plantar flexion.
C) flexion.
D) retraction.
Q4) The function of the tendon is to ______________________________.
Page 21
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Chapter 20: Mental Status And Neurological Techniques
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Sample Questions
Q1) When a patient makes eight errors within 1.5 minutes while performing serial 7s,the nurse concludes that the patient has which of the following?
A) normal calculation ability
B) confabulation
C) dyscalculia
D) constructional apraxia
Q2) When instructed to touch his nose and then touch your index finger positioned about 18 inches away,Mr.M misjudges the distance and overshoots.This response is referred to as
A) dyssynergy.
B) dysmetria.
C) dysdiadochokinesia.
D) apraxia.
Q3) A patient has difficulty explaining the meaning of the phrase "a stitch in time saves nine." the patient most likely has difficulties with A) thought processes.
B) abstract reasoning.
C) judgment.
D) comprehension.
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Chapter 21: Female Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which activity should a patient avoid 24 to 48 hours before a scheduled physical assessment to prevent affecting the results of the Pap smear and other cultures?
A) ingesting alcohol or smoking
B) taking a tub bath, swimming, or using a hot tub
C) taking birth control pills or other hormones
D) using vaginal sprays, douching, or having coitus
Q2) The uterus is comprised of the ___________________,___________________,___________________,and
Q3) To assess the muscular tone and texture of the perineum using your dominant hand,you would place your
A) index finger in the urethra and instruct the patient to squeeze the vaginal muscles.
B) index finger on one side of the perineum and the thumb on the other.
C) thumb anterior to the perineum and index finger posterior to the perineum.
D) thumb in the vagina and index finger posterior to the perineum.
Q4) Deaths attributed to uterine and cervical cancer have declined by 50% because of the advent of _________________________.
Q5) The urinary meatus is located in the __________________.
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Chapter 22: Male Genitalia
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition requires immediate referral for surgical intervention?
A) orchitis
B) spermatocele
C) testicular torsion
D) cryptorchidism
Q2) The FDA licensed the HPV vaccine,HPV4,for use in males aged 9 through 26 years for prevention of which of the following?
A) herpes
B) genital warts
C) testicular cancer
D) condyloma acuminatum
Q3) Which of the following are characteristics of a femoral hernia? Select all that apply.
A) More common in infants
B) More common in women
C) More common in elderly males
D) Firm or rubbery lump in groin
E) Associated with cough or crying
F) Pain may be severe
Q4) The testicles are suspended by the ____________________.
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Chapter 23: Anus, rectum, and Prostate
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Q1) In the midline over your patient's sacral region,you observe several tiny openings.Which of the following are you most likely to find protruding from these openings?
A) hair
B) moles
C) scaly papules
D) skin tags
Q2) Which of the following are true of the prostate? Select all that apply.
A) Drains into the urethra
B) Consists of glandular tissue and muscle
C) Is controlled by parasympathetic reflex signals
D) Is formed by skeletal muscle
E) Encircles the urethra like a doughnut
F) Produces semen
Q3) After spreading your patient's buttocks with gloved hands to inspect the anal mucosa,you should instruct the patient to
A) take a deep breath, then breathe out slowly and relax.
B) flex both knees and hold tightly with both hands.
C) bear down as if moving the bowels.
D) cough several times.
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Chapter 24: The Pregnant Patient
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Q1) Primary goals for the health examination of the pregnant patient include all of the following,EXCEPT
A) confirming the pregnancy and gestational age.
B) promoting recommended long-term lifestyle changes.
C) evaluating general health as a guide for any needed intervention.
D) providing education on maintaining and promoting the health of mother and fetus.
Q2) Which of the following could indicate a compromised fetus?
A) decrease in fetal movement during the ninth month
B) fluttering movements at 20 weeks
C) no fetal movement by 12 weeks
D) a fetal heart rate of 155
Q3) Widening of the symphysis pubis produces an unsteady gait known as the __________________________.
Q4) Softening of the uterine isthmus occurring at 8 weeks' gestation is called
A) Chadwick's sign.
B) Goodell's sign.
C) Hegar's sign.
D) McDonald's sign.
Q5) Braxton Hicks contractions can begin in the ____________________ trimester.
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Chapter 25: The Pediatric Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) The condition in which an infant has extra fingers or toes is called
A) adactyly.
B) dactylion.
C) polydactyly.
D) syndactyly.
Q2) In an assessment of home safety using the acronym GUNS,what question should you ask related to the letter U?
A) "Are the guns kept unloaded?"
B) "Are there users of alcohol or other drugs in the home?"
C) "Do you understand the danger of keeping guns in the home?"
D) "Is there an urgency to protect yourself?"
Q3) Hydrocephalus is suspected when the circumference of the head of an infant measures above the
A) 75th percentile.
B) 85th percentile.
C) 90th percentile.
D) 95th percentile.
Q4) Seborrheic dermatitis,also known as ____________________,is a result of increased epidermal tissue growth.
Q5) Rapid growth in an adolescent is called a(n)____________________.
Page 27
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Chapter 26: The Older Adult Patient
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which finding is abnormal in an elderly female?
A) small, flat nipples
B) granular breast tissue upon palpation
C) bilateral tenderness
D) firm, stringy ductal tissue around the nipple
Q2) Which of the following patients is most at risk for developing delirium?
A) 50-year-old woman with cholecystitis
B) 19-year-old man with a fractured femur
C) 42-year-old woman having an elective hysterectomy
D) 78-year-old man admitted to an intensive care unit with complications of congestive heart failure
Q3) An 80-year-old man has been experiencing fecal incontinence.Which of the following is the most likely cause of this disorder?
A) denervation of the sensory receptors in the muscles surrounding the rectum
B) increase in the tone of the internal anal sphincter
C) decline in the large bowel transit
D) decrease in intestinal mobility and absorption
Q4) Depression is often caused by decreases in the neurotransmitters ____________________ and _____________________.
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Chapter 27: The Complete Health History And Physical Examination
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Sample Questions
Q1) You would ask the bedridden patient to run the heel of each foot down the shin of the opposite leg and to draw a figure eight in the air with each foot to assess the A) ability to follow directions.
B) cerebellar function.
C) lower extremity flexibility and mobility.
D) lower extremity muscle strength.
Q2) Nail bed color and capillary refill are assessed during which part of the assessment?
A) heart
B) height and weight
C) upper extremities
D) assessed only if patient is short of breath
Q3) One of your measurements yields a reading during physical assessment that seems very doubtful,considering the patient's general condition.If you are still in doubt about the data after rechecking,your best option is to
A) discard the instrument.
B) record the initial reading.
C) discard the reading and go on to the next assessment.
D) seek another qualified nurse to confirm the reading.
To view all questions and flashcards with answers, click on the resource link above. Page 29