Health Assessment Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Health Assessment is a foundational course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to systematically collect, analyze, and interpret patient health data. Emphasizing both theoretical principles and hands-on practice, the course covers techniques in health history taking, physical examination, and the identification of normal and abnormal findings across the lifespan. Students learn to utilize evidence-based assessment tools, communicate effectively with patients, and document their findings accurately. The course prepares students to perform comprehensive and focused assessments, laying the groundwork for clinical decision-making and contributing to the development of individualized care plans.
Recommended Textbook
Seidels Guide to Physical Examination 9th Edition by Jane W. Ball
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26 Chapters
648 Verified Questions
648 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: The History and Interviewing Process
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2604
Sample Questions
Q1) Direct questioning about domestic violence in the home should be:
A) a routine component of history taking with female patients.
B) avoided for fear of offending the woman's partner.
C) conducted only in cases in which there is a history of abuse.
D) used only when the patient is obviously being victimized.
Answer: A
Q2) Information that is needed during the initial interview of a pregnant woman includes all the following except:
A) the gender that the woman hopes the baby will be.
B) past medical history.
C) healthcare practices.
D) the woman's remembering (knowledge) about pregnancy.
Answer: A
Q3) A tool used to screen adolescents for alcoholism is the:
A) CAGE.
B) CRAFFT.
C) PACES.
D) HITS.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Cultural Competency
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18 Verified Questions
18 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) As the healthcare provider, you are informing a patient that he or she has a terminal illness. This discussion is most likely to be discouraged in which cultural group?
A) Navajo Native Americans
B) Dominant Americans
C) First-generation African descendants
D) First-generation European descendants
Answer: A
Q2) Which variables can intrude on successful communication? (Select all that apply.)
A) Social class
B) Gender
C) Stereotype
D) Phenotype
E) Age
Answer: A, B, E
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Chapter 3: Examination Techniques and Equipment
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2606
Sample Questions
Q1) According to the guidelines for Standard Precautions, the caregiver's hands should be washed:
A) only after touching body fluids with ungloved hands and between patient contacts.
B) only after touching blood products with ungloved hands and after caring for infectious patients.
C) only after working with patients who are thought to be infectious.
D) after touching any body fluids or contaminated items, regardless of whether gloves are worn.
Answer: D
Q2) Which technique is commonly used to elicit tenderness arising from the liver, gallbladder, or kidneys?
A) Finger percussion
B) Palmar percussion
C) Fist percussion
D) Forearm percussion
Answer: C
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Chapter 4: Clinical Reasoning
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Positive outcomes depend on the:
A) number of laboratory tests ordered.
B) quality of decisions made.
C) use of pharmacologic modalities.
D) time saved by the use of ancillary personnel.
Q2) Self-analysis assists providers in giving proper context to:
A) history and physical findings.
B) therapeutic options.
C) attitudes, values, and feelings.
D) differential diagnoses.
Q3) A specific test is one that has the ability to:
A) correctly identify those who have the disease.
B) correctly identify those who do not have the disease.
C) be exclusively used to make a diagnosis.
D) exclude competing explanations for another test finding.
Q4) Medical decision making requires a balance between:
A) trust and suspicion.
B) ethical and unethical behavior.
C) remembering and superstition.
D) mechanism and probabilism.
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Chapter 5: Documentation
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A SOAP note is used in which type of recording system?
A) Preventive care
B) Problem oriented
C) Systems review
D) Traditional treatment
Q2) Which is an effective adjunct to document the location of findings during the recording of the physical examination?
A) Relationship to anatomic landmarks
B) Computer graphics
C) Comparison with other patients of same gender and size
D) Comparison to previous examinations using light pen markings
Q3) The position on a clock, topographic notations, and anatomic landmarks:
A) are methods for recording locations of findings.
B) are used for noting disease progression.
C) are ways for recording laboratory study results.
D) should not be used in the legal record.
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Chapter 6: Vital Signs and Pain Assessment
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most frequent cause of serious hypertension in children is:
A) heart disease.
B) liver failure.
C) renal disease.
D) rheumatic fever.
Q2) The perception of pain:
A) is the same across cultures.
B) can be easily assessed in neonates.
C) is predictable with the same circumstances.
D) is affected by emotions and quality of sleep.
Q3) Underestimation of blood pressure will occur if the cuff's width covers:
A) less than half of the upper arm.
B) less than 5 inches of the lower arm.
C) more than two-thirds of the upper arm.
D) more than 4 inches of the lower arm.
Q4) The pyrexia response is triggered by the production and release of:
A) prostaglandins.
B) endogenous pyrogens.
C) hypothalamic enzymes.
D) thyroid hormones.
8
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Chapter 7: Mental Status
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition is considered progressive rather than reversible?
A) Delirium
B) Dementia
C) Depression
D) Anxiety
Q2) You are interviewing a 20-year-old patient with a new-onset psychotic disorder. The patient is apathetic and has disturbed thoughts and language patterns. The nurse recognizes this behavior pattern as consistent with a diagnosis of:
A) depression.
B) autistic disorder.
C) mania.
D) schizophrenia.
Q3) When is the mental status portion of the neurologic system examination performed?
A) During the history-taking process
B) During assessment of cranial nerves and deep tendon reflexes
C) During the time when questions related to memory are asked
D) Continually, throughout the entire interaction with a patient
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9
Chapter 8: Growth, Measurement, and Nutrition
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2611
Sample Questions
Q1) A pregnant woman of normal prepregnancy weight should be expected to gain how much weight per week during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy?
A) 1 pound
B) 3 pounds
C) 2 pounds
D) 4 pounds
Q2) Mrs. Hartzell is a 34-year-old patient who has presented for nutritional counseling because she is a vegetarian. Deficiency of which of the following is a concern in the vegetarian diet?
A) Ascorbic acid
B) Vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
C) Folate
D) Fiber
Q3) The gonads begin to secrete estrogen and testosterone during:
A) infancy.
B) puberty.
C) pregnancy.
D) early adulthood.
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Chapter 9: Skin, Hair, and Nails
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49 Verified Questions
49 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2612
Sample Questions
Q1) Small, minute bruises are called:
A) ecchymoses.
B) petechiae.
C) spider veins.
D) telangiectasias.
Q2) Which cultural group has the lowest incidence of nevi?
A) Native Americans
B) African Americans
C) Mexican Americans
D) Asians
Q3) Brittle nails are typical findings in:
A) adolescents.
B) infants.
C) pregnant women.
D) older adults.
Q4) Skin turgor checks are performed to determine the:
A) temperature of the skin.
B) hydration status.
C) actual age.
D) extent of an ecchymosis.
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Chapter 10: Lymphatic System
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which nodes are most often associated with inflammation?
A) Shotty
B) Movable
C) Fixed
D) Tender
Q2) An organ that is essential to the development of protective immune function in the infant but has little or no demonstrated function in the adult is the:
A) spleen.
B) liver.
C) thymus.
D) pancreas.
Q3) Which disorder is characterized by a single node that is chronically enlarged and nontender in a patient with no other symptoms?
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Streptococcal pharyngitis
C) Mononucleosis
D) Toxoplasmosis
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Chapter 11: Head and Neck
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2614
Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Mathews is a 47-year-old patient who presents for a routine physical examination. On examination, you noted a bruit heard over the thyroid. This is suggestive of:
A) hypothyroidism.
B) hyperthyroidism.
C) thyroid cancer.
D) thyroid cyst.
Q2) Mrs. Britton brings her 16-year-old son in with a complaint that he is not developing correctly into adolescence. Which structures disproportionately enlarge in the male during adolescence?
A) Coronal sutures
B) Hyoid and cricoid cartilages
C) Mandible and maxilla bones
D) Nose and thyroid cartilages
Q3) Which is the best way to position a patient's neck for palpation of the thyroid?
A) Flexed away from the side being examined
B) Flexed directly forward
C) Flexed toward the side being examined
D) Hyperextended directly backward
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Eyes
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2615
Sample Questions
Q1) You observe pupillary response as the patient looks at a distant object and then at an object held 10 cm from the bridge of the nose. You are assessing for:
A) confrontation reaction.
B) accommodation.
C) pupillary light reflex.
D) nystagmus.
Q2) Changes seen in proliferative diabetic retinopathy are the result of:
A) anoxic stimulation.
B) macular damage.
C) papilledema.
D) minute hemorrhages.
Q3) Which may be suggestive of Down syndrome?
A) Drusen bodies
B) Papilledema
C) Narrow palpebral fissures
D) Prominent epicanthal folds
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14
Chapter 13: Ears, Nose, and Throat
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21 Verified Questions
21 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are performing hearing screening tests. Who would be expected to find difficulty in hearing the highest frequencies?
A) A 7-year-old
B) An 18-year-old
C) A 30-year-old
D) A 50-year-old
Q2) You are using a pneumatic attachment on the otoscope while assessing tympanic membrane movement. You gently squeeze the bulb but see no movement of the membrane. Your next action should be to:
A) remove all cerumen from the canal.
B) change to a larger speculum.
C) squeeze the bulb with more force.
D) insert the speculum to a depth of 2 cm.
Q3) When you ask the patient to identify smells, you are assessing cranial nerve __.
Q4) When hearing is evaluated, which cranial nerve is being tested?
A) III
B) IV
C) VIII
D) XII
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Chapter 14: Chest and Lungs
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) An Apgar score of __________ is given to the infant who demonstrates irregular respiratory effort.
Q2) As you take vital signs on Mr. Barrow, age 78 years, you note that his respirations are 40 breaths/min. He has been resting, and his mucosa is pink. In regard to Mr. Barrow's respirations, you would:
A) document his rate as normal.
B) do nothing because his color is pink.
C) note that his rate is below normal.
D) report that he has an above-average rate.
Q3) The best time to observe and count respirations is while:
A) the patient is answering questions.
B) weighing the patient.
C) palpating the pulse.
D) the patient is sleeping.
Q4) In which patient situation would you expect to assess tachypnea?
A) Patient who is depressed
B) Patient who abuses narcotics
C) Patient with metabolic acidosis
D) Patient with myasthenia gravis
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Chapter 15: Heart
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A condition that is likely to present with dizziness and syncope is:
A) bacterial endocarditis.
B) hypertension.
C) sick sinus syndrome.
D) pericarditis.
Q2) Which of the following information belongs in the past medical history section related to heart and blood vessel assessment?
A) Adolescent inguinal hernia
B) Childhood mumps
C) History of bee stings
D) Previous unexplained fever
Q3) Mr. O, age 50 years, comes for his annual health assessment, which is provided by his employer. During your initial history-taking interview, Mr. O mentions that he routinely engages in light exercise. At this time, you should:
A) ask if he makes his own bed daily.
B) have the patient describe his exercise.
C) make a note that he walks each day.
D) record "light exercise" in the history.
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Chapter 16: Blood Vessels
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are risk factors for varicose veins? (Select all that apply.)
A) Gender
B) Alcohol use
C) Lower extremity trauma
D) Increased body mass
E) Hypertension
F) Diabetes
Q2) In infants or small children, a capillary refill time of 4 seconds:
A) is normal.
B) indicates hypervolemia.
C) indicates dehydration or hypovolemic shock.
D) indicates renal artery stenosis.
Q3) You are performing a physical examination on a 46-year-old male patient. His examination findings include the following: positive peripheral edema, holosystolic murmur in the tricuspid region, and a pulsatile liver. His diagnosis is:
A) an aortic aneurysm.
B) an arteriovenous fistula.
C) tricuspid stenosis.
D) tricuspid regurgitation.
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Chapter 17: Breasts and Axillae
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When examining axillary lymph nodes, the patient's arm is:
A) raised fully above the head.
B) extended at the side.
C) flexed at the elbow.
D) crossed over the chest.
Q2) If your patient has nipple discharge, you will most likely need a:
A) Vacutainer tube.
B) glass slide and fixative.
C) specimen jar with formaldehyde.
D) tape strip to test pH.
Q3) Most women with breast cancer:
A) possess the BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene.
B) risk increases with aging.
C) have a mother who had breast cancer.
D) continue to menstruate after age 52.
Q4) When conducting a clinical breast examination, the examiner should:
A) forgo the examination if the patient has had a recent mammogram.
B) keep the patient's breasts completely covered to respect modesty.
C) dim the lights to minimize anxiety.
D) inspect both breasts simultaneously.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Abdomen
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When using the bimanual technique for palpating the abdomen, you should:
A) push down with the bottom hand and the other hand on top.
B) push down with the top hand and concentrate on sensation with the bottom hand.
C) place the hands side by side and push equally.
D) place one hand anteriorly and the other hand posteriorly, squeezing the hands together.
Q2) The family history of a patient with diarrhea and abdominal pain should include inquiry about cystic fibrosis because it is:
A) a common genetic disorder.
B) one cause of malabsorption syndrome.
C) a curable condition with medical intervention.
D) the most frequent cause of diarrhea in general practice.
Q3) Percussion of the abdomen begins with establishing:
A) liver dullness.
B) spleen dullness.
C) gastric bubble tympany.
D) overall dullness and tympany in all quadrants.
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Page 20
Chapter 19: Female Genitalia
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2622
Sample Questions
Q1) The pelvic joint that separates most appreciably during late pregnancy is the:
A) sacroiliac.
B) symphysis.
C) sacrococcygeal.
D) iliofemoral.
Q2) Mrs. Robinson, a 49-year-old patient, presents to the office complaining of missing her menstrual period. She asks about menopause. You explain to her that the conventional definition of menopause is:
A) the first day of the last menstrual period.
B) 1 year with no menses.
C) the last day of the last menstrual period.
D) the cessation of ovulation.
Q3) Pregnancy-related cervical changes include:
A) flattening and lengthening.
B) thinning and reddening.
C) hardening and pallor.
D) softening and bluish coloring.
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21
Chapter 20: Male Genitalia
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cancer in young men ages 15 to 30 years is:
A) testicular.
B) penile.
C) prostate.
D) anal.
Q2) A characteristic related to syphilis or diabetic neuropathy is testicular:
A) dropping, with asymmetry.
B) enlargement.
C) insensitivity to painful stimulation.
D) recession into the abdomen.
Q3) You are inspecting the genitalia of an uncircumcised adult male. The foreskin is tight and cannot be easily retracted. You should:
A) chart the finding as paraphimosis.
B) inquire about previous penile infections.
C) retract the foreskin firmly.
D) transilluminate the glans.
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Chapter 21: Anus, Rectum, and Prostate
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26 Verified Questions
26 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2624
Sample Questions
Q1) Pinworms and Candida may both cause:
A) constipation.
B) hemorrhoids.
C) perirectal irritation.
D) perirectal protrusion.
Q2) The prostatic sulcus:
A) divides the right and left lateral lobes.
B) is the site of the seminal vesicle emergence.
C) refers to the anterior aspect of the prostate.
D) secretes clear viscous mucus.
Q3) Mr. Dunn is a 62-year-old man who has presented for a routine annual examination. On examination of the prostate you note a hard, irregular, painless nodule and obliteration of the median sulcus. These are signs of:
A) benign prostatic hypertrophy.
B) cancer of the prostate.
C) long-standing prostatitis.
D) swelling as a result of aging.
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23
Chapter 22: Musculoskeletal System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2625
Sample Questions
Q1) Risk factors for sports-related injuries include:
A) competing in colder climates.
B) previous fracture.
C) history of recent weight loss.
D) failure to warm up before activity.
Q2) Carpal tunnel syndrome would result in:
A) a negative Tinel sign.
B) a negative Phalen test.
C) reduced abduction of the thumb.
D) palm tingling.
Q3) Long bones in children have growth plates known as: A) epiphyses.
B) epicondyles.
C) synovium.
D) fossae.
Q4) The tibia, fibula, and talus articulate to form the: A) ankle.
B) knee.
C) hip.
D) pelvis.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Neurologic System
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2626
Sample Questions
Q1) Diabetic peripheral neuropathy will likely produce:
A) hyperactive ankle reflexes.
B) diminished pain sensation.
C) exaggerated vibratory sense.
D) hypersensitive temperature perception.
Q2) It is especially important to test for ankle clonus if:
A) deep tendon reflexes are hyperactive.
B) deep tendon reflexes are hypoactive.
C) the Romberg sign is positive.
D) the patient has peripheral neuropathy.
Q3) If a patient cannot shrug his or her shoulders against resistance, which cranial nerve (CN) requires further evaluation?
A) CN I, olfactory
B) CN V, trigeminal
C) CN IX, glossopharyngeal
D) CN XI, spinal accessory
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25
Chapter 24: Sports Participation Evaluation
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Sample Questions
Q1) You are conducting a preparticipation physical examination for a 10-year-old girl with Down syndrome who will be playing basketball. She has slight torticollis and mild ankle clonus. Which additional diagnostic test would be required for her?
A) Cervical spine radiography
B) Visual acuity
C) Mini-Mental State Examination
D) Nerve conduction studies
Q2) One of the most important aspects to consider in the orthopedic screening examination is:
A) muscle contraction.
B) flexibility.
C) symmetry.
D) balance.
Q3) A parent is advised to restrict contact sports participation for their child. An example of a sport in which this child could participate is:
A) hockey.
B) roller skating.
C) riflery.
D) skateboarding.
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Putting it All Together
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common method for estimating gestational age of a newborn is to assess:
A) middle finger length.
B) creases on the sole of the foot.
C) umbilical placement.
D) visual acuity.
Q2) Which position is most likely the most comfortable for a patient who is 6 months pregnant?
A) Side-lying
B) Lithotomy
C) Prone
D) Flexed-knee
Q3) To promote a child's cooperation during your examination, your approach to the examination should be to:
A) ask the parent to give the child a bottle during the examination.
B) sing songs with the child during the examination.
C) conduct the physical examination on the child while the parent is holding the child.
D) let the child play with examination room equipment to feel more comfortable.
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Chapter 26: Emergency or Life-Threatening Situations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clear or amber drainage from the nose or ears of a blunt trauma patient may indicate:
A) epiglottitis.
B) a retropharyngeal abscess.
C) a basilar skull fracture.
D) a perforated tympanic membrane.
Q2) If trauma above the clavicle is suspected, it is important to:
A) test range of motion of the neck.
B) remove any headgear.
C) arrange for neck extension x-ray studies.
D) stabilize the neck in a neutral position.
Q3) The term status epilepticus is defined as:
A) convulsive activity uncontrolled by medication.
B) nonconvulsive brain wave disturbance, with psychomotor dysfunction.
C) prolonged seizures that occur without recovery of consciousness.
D) seizures that result in hypotension, pallor, and prolonged diaphoresis.
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