Health Assessment Exam Bank
Course Introduction
Health Assessment is an essential course that equips students with the foundational knowledge and practical skills necessary to conduct comprehensive and systematic evaluations of patients' health across the lifespan. The course focuses on developing proficiency in obtaining health histories, performing physical examinations, and integrating findings to formulate accurate clinical judgments. Emphasis is placed on effective communication, cultural competence, and evidence-based techniques to identify normal and abnormal findings in various body systems. Through lectures, demonstrations, and hands-on practice, students learn to apply the nursing process and critical thinking to assess individuals, promote health, and recognize early signs of illness, ultimately supporting safe and effective patient care.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology The Biologic Basis for Disease in Adults and Children 8th Edition by
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50 Chapters
1557 Verified Questions
1557 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/2337
Page 2
Kathryn L. McCance
Chapter 1: Cellular Biology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46432
Sample Questions
Q1) What is passive transport dependent on? (Select all that apply.)
A)Semipermeable barrier membrane
B)The process of osmosis
C)Diffusion as a driving force
D)A living host
E)Hydrostatic pressure
Answer: A, B, C, E
Q2) Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized?
A)Paracrine
B)Autocrine
C)Neurotransmitter
D)Hormone
Answer: A
Q3) What transports potassium and sodium across plasma membranes?
A)Passive electrolyte channels
B)Coupled channels
C)Adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) enzyme
D)Diffusion
Answer: C
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Chapter 2: Altered Cellular and Tissue Biology: Environmental Agents
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
A)Coagulative
B)Liquefactive
C)Caseous
D)Gangrene
Answer: B
Q2) Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing which compensatory process?
A)Atrophy
B)Metaplasia
C)Hyperplasia
D)Dysplasia
Answer: C
Q3) What is dysplasia?
A)Abnormal increase in the number of a specific cell type
B)True adaptive process at the cellular level
C)Modification in the shape of a specific cell type
D)Lack of oxygen at the cellular level
Answer: C
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Chapter
Acids and Bases
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A third of the body's fluid is contained in the extracellular interstitial fluid spaces that include what? (Select all that apply.)
A)Urine
B)Intraocular fluids
C)Lymph
D)Blood plasma
E)Sweat
Answer: A, B, C, E
Q2) Which groups are at risk for fluid imbalance? (Select all that apply.)
A)Women
B)Infants
C)Men
D)Obese persons
E)Older adults
Answer: B, D, E
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Chapter 4: Genes and Genetic Diseases
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35 Verified Questions
35 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant with what history?
A)Have a history of chronic illness
B)Have a family history of genetic disorders
C)Have experienced in vitro fertilization
D)Had a late menarche
Q2) In somatic cell gene therapy, what type of vector is most commonly used to alter a specific set of an individual's somatic cells?
A)Virus
B)Bacteria
C)RNA polymerase
D)Recombinant DNA
Q3) In DNA replication, what does the enzyme DNA polymerase do?
A)Travel along the single DNA strand, adding the correct nucleotide to the new strand
B)Move along the double strand of DNA to unwind the nucleotides of the double helix
C)Hold the double strand apart while the correct nucleotides are added to the strand
D)Transport the double strand of DNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm for protein formation
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Chapter 5: Genes, Environment-Lifestyle, and Common Diseases
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27 Verified Questions
27 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are the two most important risk factors for type 2 diabetes?
A)Autoantibodies and human leukocyte antigen associations
B)Autoantibodies and obesity
C)Obesity and positive family history
D)HLA associations and positive family history
Q2) Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism when raised by a nonalcoholic parent?
A)Twofold
B)Threefold
C)Fourfold
D)Tenfold
Q3) Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
A)Sodium intake
B)Physical inactivity
C)Psychosocial stress
D)Obesity
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Epigenetics and Disease
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is most likely the shape of the face of a child diagnosed with Russell-Silver syndrome?
A)Round
B)Square
C)Triangular
D)Elongated
Q2) Which statement is true regarding the embryonic development of stem cells?
A)They are already differentiated.
B)They are referred to as housekeeping genes.
C)They already demonstrate DNA sequencing.
D)They are said to be totipotent.
Q3) Which term refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
A)Activated
B)Altered
C)Mutated
D)Imprinted
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Chapter 7: Innate Immunity: Inflammation and Wound Healing
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46 Verified Questions
46 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What effect does the process of histamine binding to the histamine-2 (H ) receptor have on inflammation?
A)Inhibition
B)Activation
C)Acceleration
D)Termination
Q2) What is the function of opsonization related to the complement cascade?
A)To tag pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages
B)To process pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity
C)To destroy glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisms
D)To promote anaphylatoxic activity, resulting in mast cell degranulation
Q3) Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids, as well as lactic acid?
A)Optic tears
B)Oral saliva
C)Sweat gland perspiration
D)Sebaceous gland sebum
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Chapter 8: Adaptive Immunity
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38 Verified Questions
38 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cell has the ability to recognize antigens presented by the MHC class I molecules?
A)T cytotoxic
B)CD 4
C)CD 8
D)T helper
Q2) Where are antibodies produced?
A)Helper T lymphocytes
B)Thymus gland
C)Plasma cells
D)Bone marrow
Q3) In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
A)Thymus gland
B)Regional lymph nodes
C)Bone marrow
D)Spleen
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Page 10
Chapter 9: Alterations in Immunity and Inflammation
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41 Verified Questions
41 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement is true concerning an atopic individual?
A)They tend to produce less IgE.
B)They tend to produce more Fc receptors.
C)They tend to attract very few mast cells.
D)They tend to produce very high levels of IgM.
Q2) How is hypersensitivity best defined?
A)A disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens
B)An immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person
C)An altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease
D)An undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens
Q3) In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of what?
A)Cytotoxic T cells
B)Natural killer cells
C)Complement activation
D)Degranulation of mast cells
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Chapter 10: Infection
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29 Verified Questions
29 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements are true regarding viruses? (Select all that apply.)
A)Viruses are very complex microorganisms.
B)Viruses are referred to as eukaryotes.
C)Viruses are capable of producing messenger RNA (mRNA).
D)Viruses penetrate plasma membranes via endocytosis.
E)Viruses are capable of uncoating cytoplasmic nucleocapsid.
Q2) Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Helicobacter pylori
D)Treponema pallidum
Q3) How is toxigenicity defined?
A)The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host
B)The pathogen's ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin
C)The ability of an agent to produce disease
D)The potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms required to kill the host
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Chapter 11: Stress and Disease
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22 Verified Questions
22 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A severely stressed patient has hypoglycemia each time the patient's blood glucose is checked. The healthcare professional should order laboratory tests to measure which hormone in the patient's blood?
A)Epinephrine
B)Norepinephrine
C)Cortisol
D)Growth hormone
Q2) A student asks the healthcare professional how immunity is decreased by stress. The professional responds that during a stress response, the helper T (Th) 1 response is suppressed by which hormone?
A)ACTH
B)Cortisol
C)Prolactin
D)Growth hormone
Q3) Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?
A)Prefrontal cortex
B)Anterior pituitary
C)Limbic system
D)Hypothalamus
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Cancer Biology
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42 Verified Questions
42 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) By what process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals?
A)Proto-oncogene
B)Autocrine stimulation
C)Reliance on caretaker genes
D)Pleomorphology
Q2) Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to do what?
A)Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply
B)Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors
C)Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
D)Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use
Q3) What cellular characteristics are affected by anaplasia? (Select all that apply.)
A)Size
B)Ability to differentiate
C)Life expectancy
D)Tissue structure
E)Shape
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14
Chapter 13: Cancer Epidemiology
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17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The healthcare professional teaches a community group that alcohol consumption has been proven to be a consistent risk factor in the development of which major cancers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Colorectal
B)Kidney
C)Breast
D)Esophageal
E)Pancreatic
Q2) The healthcare professional advises clients to make which personal lifestyle choices in order to likely reduce the risk for developing cancer? (Select all that apply.)
A)Avoiding crowds
B)Wearing a hat while golfing
C)Eating a strict vegetarian diet
D)Having regular health screenings
E)Staying indoors during smog alerts
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Chapter 14: Cancer in Children
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16 Verified Questions
16 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Currently, what percentage of children with cancer can be cured?
A)40%
B)50%
C)60%
D)85%
Q2) Prenatal exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) can result in which type of cancer?
A)Breast cancer
B)Leukemia
C)Vaginal cancer
D)Lymphoma
Q3) Which intervention has the greatest effect on a child's mortality rate when diagnosed with cancer?
A)Age at the time of diagnosis
B)Participation in clinical trials
C)Proximity to a major cancer treatment center
D)Parental involvement in the treatment planning
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Structure and Function of the Neurologic System
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which type of axon transmits a nerve impulse at the highest rate?
A)Large nonmyelinated
B)Large myelinated
C)Small nonmyelinated
D)Small myelinated
Q2) Which cranial nerves contain parasympathetic nerves? (Select all that apply.)
A)I (olfactory)
B)III (oculomotor)
C)VII (facial)
D)IX (glossopharyngeal)
E)X (vagus)
Q3) What part of the brain mediates the physical expression of emotions?
A)Hypothalamus
B)Basal ganglia
C)Medulla oblongata
D)Subthalamus
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Chapter 16: Pain, Temperature Regulation, Sleep, and Sensory Function
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45 Verified Questions
45 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Where in the CNS does a person's learned pain response occur?
A)Cerebral cortex
B)Frontal lobe
C)Thalamus
D)Limbic system
Q2) A healthcare professional is trying to lower a patient's body temperature by convection. What action by the professional will accomplish this?
A)Lower the temperature in the patient's room.
B)Place the patient in a cooling blanket.
C)Obtain a fan and set it to blow over the patient.
D)Place cold moist towels over the patient.
Q3) Which neuropeptide dysfunction is linked to narcolepsy?
A)Prostaglandin D
B)L-tryptophan
C)Hypocretins
D)Growth factors
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18
Chapter 17: Alterations in Cognitive Systems, Cerebral
Hemodynamics, and Motor Function
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44 Verified Questions
44 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Antipsychotic drugs cause tardive dyskinesia by mimicking the effects of an increase of what?
A)Dopamine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Norepinephrine
D)Acetylcholine
Q2) Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of what part of the brain?
A)Ventricles
B)Tissue
C)Neurons
D)Meninges
Q3) What is the most common infratentorial brain disease process that results in the direct destruction of the reticulating activation system (RAS)?
A)Cerebrovascular disease
B)Demyelinating disease
C)Neoplasms
D)Abscesses
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Page 19
Chapter 18: Disorders of the Central and Peripheral Nervous
Systems and the Neuromuscular Junction
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33 Verified Questions
33 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which cerebral vascular hemorrhage causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?
A)Intracranial
B)Subarachnoid
C)Epidural
D)Subdural
Q2) In adults, how are most intracranial tumors located?
A)Infratentorially
B)Supratentorially
C)Laterally
D)Posterolaterally
Q3) In children, how are most intracranial tumors located?
A)Infratentorially
B)Supratentorially
C)Laterally
D)Posterolaterally
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20
Chapter 19: Neurobiology of Schizophrenia, Mood Disorders, and Anxiety Disorders
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19 Verified Questions
19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion?
A)Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when given dexamethasone.
B)Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level, despite the administration of exogenous corticosteroids.
C)Individuals with depression show that persistently elevated plasma cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression.
D)Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed.
Q2) A patient has started on clozapine. The healthcare professional educates the patient that this drug blocks which neurotransmitter receptor?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Gamma-aminobutyric acid
C)Serotonin
D)Dopamine
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Chapter 20: Alterations of Neurologic Function in Children
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19 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gait disturbances and instability are characteristic of which form of cerebral palsy?
A)Spastic
B)Dystonic
C)Ataxic
D)Biochemical
Q2) A child has phenylketonuria (PKU). The healthcare professional educates the parents on the special diet needed, telling them that children with PKU are unable to synthesize what?
A)Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
B)Renin, erythropoietin, and antidiuretic hormone
C)Aldosterone, cortisol, and androgens
D)Neurotransmitters gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) and acetylcholine
Q3) A baby demonstrates asymmetric pathological reflexes and microcephaly at a 9-month checkup. The baby appeared normal at birth. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
A)Determine the baby's risk for developing an HIV infection since birth.
B)Assess the baby for other signs of child abuse or neglect.
C)Ask the mother if she uses drugs or alcohol in excess.
D)Perform spinal cord imaging and other diagnostic studies.
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Mechanisms of Hormonal Regulation
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the control of calcium in cells important?
A)It is controlled by the calcium negative-feedback loop.
B)It is continuously synthesized.
C)It acts as a second messenger.
D)It carries lipid-soluble hormones in the bloodstream.
Q2) To ensure optimal thyroid health and function, which mineral does the health care professional advise a nutrition class to include in the daily diet?
A)Iron
B)Zinc
C)Iodide
D)Copper
Q3) What are the effects of aging on pancreatic cells?
A)Pancreatic cells are replaced by fibrotic cells.
B)Increased insulin production is typical.
C)Beta cell function decreases.
D)No appreciable change occurs on pancreatic cells.
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Chapter 22: Alterations of Hormonal Regulation
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40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient has acromegaly. What assessment by the healthcare professional would be most important?
A)Skin condition
B)Sleep patterns
C)Bowel function
D)Range of motion
Q2) Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake?
A)Biguanide (metformin)
B)Sulfonylureas (glyburide)
C)Meglitinides (glinides)
D)a-Glycosidase inhibitor (miglitol)
Q3) What is diabetes insipidus a result of?
A)Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion
B)Antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion
C)Insulin hyposecretion
D)Insulin hypersecretion
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Chapter 23: Obesity and Disorders of Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) A family is concerned that their most elderly member is not eating. What information about the anorexia of aging does the health care professional provide the family?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Usually there is a direct cause that can be treated successfully.
B)Is not related to age-related changes and signifies illness
C)Decreases in saliva and the sense of taste are contributing factors.
D)Age-related loss of appetite is common finding.
E)Social stimulation at meals might promote better eating habits.
Q2) A severely malnourished patient is in the hospital to improve nutrition. On the second day, the patient reports palpitations and difficulty breathing. After placing the patient on a cardiac monitor, what action does the health care professional take next?
A)Take the patient's temperature.
B)Have lab drawn for electrolyte levels.
C)Cancel the patient's next meal.
D)Facilitate a chest x-ray.
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Chapter 24: Structure and Function of the Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The initial reproductive structures of the male and female embryos appear the same until which week of gestation?
A)Third
B)Seventh
C)Twentieth
D)Thirtieth
Q2) Testosterone is believed to have a role in what? (Select all that apply.)
A)Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
B)Libido levels
C)Acne development
D)Altered cholesterol metabolism
E)Thinning of the larynx
Q3) The Skene glands are located on either side of which structure?
A)Introitus
B)Urinary meatus
C)Clitoris
D)Vestibule
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Page 26
Chapter 25: Alterations of the Female Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A woman's chart reveals she has superficial breast cysts. What assessment finding does the healthcare professional correlate with this condition?
A)Hard, painful lump
B)Reddened skin surrounding the lump
C)Squishy feeling and easily palpated
D)Dimpling on the surface of the breast
Q2) A woman has been diagnosed with compartment II primary amenorrhea. The healthcare professional helps prepare the woman for what type of diagnostic testing?
A)Genetic testing
B)CT scan of the anterior pituitary
C)Blood work for hypothalamic function
D)Vaginal speculum exam
Q3) Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
A)Premenstrual syndrome
B)Abnormal uterine bleeding
C)Polycystic ovary syndrome
D)Primary dysmenorrhea
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Chapter 26: Alterations of the Male Reproductive System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In the 95% of boys with delayed puberty, the problem is caused by which condition?
A)Disruption in the hypothalamus
B)Disruption of the pituitary
C)Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
D)Physiologic hormonal delays
Q2) Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening?
A)15 to 35 year olds
B)20 to 45 year olds
C)30 to 55 year olds
D)45 to 70 year olds
Q3) What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?
A)Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
B)Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.
C)Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
D)Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.
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Chapter 27: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus?
A)Unbound in the blood via the placenta
B)Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta
C)By direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes exposed to maternal body fluids
D)Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process
Q2) How does an established gonococcal infection usually express itself in newborns?
A)Generalized skin rash 4 to 6 days after birth
B)Systemic infection with fever
C)Bilateral corneal ulceration
D)Yellow vaginal or penile discharge approximately 10 days after birth
Q3) What unique factor causes adolescent girls to have a high risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
A)They are in an experimental phase and believe they are resistant to developing STIs.
B)The position of susceptible cells on the adolescent cervix is different than in older women.
C)The length of the vaginal canal is short in adolescents
D)In adolescent girls, the anus to the vaginal introitus is in close proximity.
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Chapter 28: Structure and Function of the Hematologic System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statements about plasma proteins are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A)Provide clotting factors.
B)Transport triglycerides.
C)Synthesize complement proteins.
D)Create hydrostatic pressure.
E)Transport cholesterol.
Q2) Which hemoglobin is made from oxidized ferric iron (Fe³ ) and lacks the ability to bind oxygen?
A)Deoxyhemoglobin
B)Oxyhemoglobin
C)Methemoglobin
D)Glycosylated hemoglobin
Q3) Which characteristics allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers? (Select all that apply.)
A)Permanent shape
B)Compactness
C)Reversible deformability
D)Presence of hyperactive mitochondria
E)Biconcavity
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Chapter 29: Alterations of Erythrocytes, Platelets, and Hemostatic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these classified as a megaloblastic anemia?
A)Iron deficiency
B)Pernicious
C)Sideroblastic
D)Hemolytic
Q2) What does the student learn about warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A)Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia occurs primarily in children.
B)It is self-limiting and rarely produces hemolysis.
C)Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
D)Immunoglobulin M coats erythrocytes and binds them to receptors on monocytes.
Q3) A patient has hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias. What condition does the healthcare professional prepare to teach the patient about?
A)Aplastic anemia
B)Pernicious anemia
C)Hereditary hemochromatosis
D)Immune thrombocytopenia purpura
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Chapter 30: Alterations of Leukocyte and Lymphoid
Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which description is consistent with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
A)Defects exist in the ras oncogene, TP53 tumor-suppressor gene, and INK4A, the gene encoding a cell-cycle regulatory protein.
B)Leukocytosis and a predominance of blast cells characterize the bone marrow and peripheral blood. As the immature blasts increase, they replace normal myelocytic cells, megakaryocytes, and erythrocytes.
C)B cells fail to mature into plasma cells that synthesize immunoglobulins.
D)The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL1.
Q2) What are the clinical manifestations of advanced non-African Burkitt lymphoma?
(Select all that apply.)
A)Abdominal swelling
B)Night sweats
C)Fever
D)Weight gain
E)Dementia
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Chapter 31: Alterations of Hematologic Function in Children
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46462
Sample Questions
Q1) What are the common triggers for sickle cell crisis? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fever
B)Infection
C)Dehydration
D)Alkalosis
E)Exposure to the cold
Q2) A healthcare professional is teaching a community group about inherited disorders. What pattern of inheritance does the professional describe for sickle cell disease?
A)Inherited X-linked recessive disorder
B)Inherited autosomal recessive disorder
C)Disorder initiated by hypoxemia and acidosis
D)Disorder that is diagnosed equally in men and women
Q3) Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
A)V
B)VIII
C)IX
D)X
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Chapter 32: Structure and Function of the Cardiovascular and Lymphatic Systems
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39 Verified Questions
39 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46463
Sample Questions
Q1) A healthcare professional is caring for a patient who has a delay in electrical activity reaching the ventricle as seen on ECG. What ECG finding would the healthcare professional associate with this problem?
A)A prolonged ST interval
B)Variability in measurement with heart rate
C)PR interval measuring 0.28 sec
D)A QRS complex measuring 0.08 sec
Q2) The healthcare professional explains to a student that the amount of volume of blood in the heart is directly related to the _____ of contraction.
A)Pressure
B)Strength
C)Viscosity
D)Speed
Q3) What is the most important negative inotropic agent?
A)Norepinephrine
B)Epinephrine
C)Acetylcholine
D)Dopamine
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Chapter 33: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function
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43 Verified Questions
43 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46464
Sample Questions
Q1) A person wishes to reduce the risk of developing varicose veins. What does the health care professional advise this person? (Select all that apply.)
A)Avoid standing for long periods of time.
B)Maintain a healthy weight.
C)Drink plenty of fluids.
D)Wear compression stockings.
E)Choose a job that involves sitting.
Q2) A healthcare professions student learns which facts about mitral valve stenosis? (Select all that apply.)
A)It is an uncommon valvular disorder.
B)It mostly affects women.
C)May result from genetic factors
D)Most cases are asymptomatic.
E)Symptoms tend to be vague.
Q3) What cardiac pathologic condition contributes to ventricular remodeling?
A)Left ventricular hypertrophy
B)Right ventricular failure
C)Myocardial ischemia
D)Contractile dysfunction
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35
Chapter 34: Alterations of Cardiovascular Function in Children
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A 9-year-old child has a blood pressure of 112/72 mmHg in the school nurse's office. What action by the school nurse is most appropriate?
A)Inform the parents the child might be dehydrated.
B)Note the normal finding in the child's records.
C)Calculate the child's Body Mass Index.
D)Refer the child for medication.
Q2) Which event triggers congenital heart defects that cause acyanotic congestive heart failure?
A)Right-to-left shunts
B)Left-to-right shunts
C)Obstructive lesions
D)Mixed lesions
Q3) The student studying pathophysiology learns which fact about circulation at birth?
A)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance fall.
B)Gas exchange shifts from the placenta to the lung.
C)Systemic resistance falls and pulmonary resistance rises.
D)Systemic resistance and pulmonary resistance rise.
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Structure and Function of the Pulmonary System
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46466
Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these cause the airway epithelium to constrict? (Select all that apply.)
A)Histamines
B)Prostaglandins
C)Alveolar alkalosis
D)Alveolar acidosis
E)Serotonin
Q2) Which structures secrete surfactant?
A)Type I alveolar cells
B)Type II alveolar cells
C)Alveolar macrophages
D)Stretch receptors
Q3) The student asks the professor to explain what characteristic is demonstrated by lungs with decreased compliance?
A)Difficult deflation
B)Easy inflation
C)Stiffness
D)Inability to diffuse oxygen
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Alterations of Pulmonary Function
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47 Verified Questions
47 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism?
A)Decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
B)Increased partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO )
C)Stimulation of stretch or J-receptors
D)Fatigue of the intercostal muscles and diaphragm
Q2) Which structure(s) in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) release inflammatory mediators such as proteolytic enzymes, oxygen-free radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and platelet-activating factor?
A)Complement cascade
B)Mast cells
C)Macrophages
D)Neutrophils
Q3) In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of which mechanism?
A)Compression on the pores of Kohn, thus preventing collateral ventilation
B)Increased capillary permeability, which causes alveoli to fill with fluid
C)Inactivation of surfactant and the impairment of type II alveolar cells
D)Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure that forces fluid into the alveoli
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Page 38
Chapter 37: Alterations of Pulmonary Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46468
Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement by the professor best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A)An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
B)A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging
C)A respiratory disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
D)A pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Q2) What are the clinical manifestations of bacterial pneumonia in children? (Select all that apply.)
A)Fever with chills
B)Productive cough
C)Dyspnea
D)Respiratory alkalosis
E)Malaise
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Chapter 38: Structure and Function of the Renal and Urologic Systems
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What are blood vessels of the kidneys innervated by?
A)Vagus nerve
B)Sympathetic nervous system
C)Somatic nervous system
D)Parasympathetic nervous system
Q2) Which renal change is found in older adults?
A)Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
B)Sharp decline in renal blood flow
C)Decrease in the number of nephrons
D)Decrease in urine output
Q3) What is the functional unit of the kidney called?
A)Glomerulus
B)Nephron
C)Collecting duct
D)Pyramid
Q4) Which process makes it possible for ureters to be transplanted successfully?
A)Compensatory hypertrophy
B)Erythropoietin secretion
C)Peristalsis
D)Collateral circulation
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Chapter 39: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46470
Sample Questions
Q1) Goodpasture syndrome is an example of which of these?
A)Antiglomerular basement membrane disease
B)Acute glomerulonephritis
C)Chronic glomerulonephritis
D)Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Q2) A female patient has been diagnosed with an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. What self-care measure does the healthcare provider teach the patient that is specific to this type of infection?
A)Drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
B)Take medication if you have a fever.
C)Rest as much as you can in the next few days.
D)After using the bathroom, wipe from front to back.
Q3) A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who could have either pyelonephritis or cystitis. Which differentiating sign would assist the professional in making this diagnosis?
A)Difficulty starting the stream of urine
B)Spasmodic pain that radiates to the groin
C)Increased glomerular filtration rate
D)Urinalysis confirmation of white blood cell casts
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Page 41
Chapter 40: Alterations of Renal and Urinary Tract Function in Children
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24 Verified Questions
24 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46471
Sample Questions
Q1) Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Streptococcus
C)Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D)Haemophilus
Q2) The excretion of urea is low in infants because of which features? (Select all that apply.)
A)Medullary nephrons with comparatively short loops
B)Immature tubular transport capacity impairing the excretion of urea
C)High anabolic state
D)Dilute urine as a result of the immaturity of an infant's glomeruli
E)Available protein used for physical growth
Q3) In immunoglobulin G (IgG) nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis, IgG is deposited in which location?
A)Juxtamedullary nephrons
B)Glomerulus basement membranes
C)Mesangium of the glomerular capillaries
D)Parietal epithelium
Page 42
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Chapter 41: Structure and Function of the Digestive System
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The process of conjugation of bilirubin in the liver is best described as which transformation?
A)Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen
B)Unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin into conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin
C)Conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into unconjugated (fat-soluble) bilirubin
D)Conjugated (water-soluble) bilirubin into urobilinogen
Q2) Glucose transport enhances the absorption of which electrolyte?
A)Sodium
B)Phosphate
C)Potassium
D)Chloride
Q3) Saliva contains which immunoglobulin (Ig)?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
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Chapter 42: Alterations of Digestive Function
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34 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A person who has cholera (Vibrio cholerae) would be expected to have which type of diarrhea?
A)Osmotic
B)Secretory
C)Small volume
D)Motility
Q2) Antiemetic agents, such as domperidone and metoclopramide, are antagonists for which receptors?
A)5-Hydroxytryptamine (5-HT) serotonin
B)Histamine-2
C)Acetylcholine
D)Dopamine
Q3) A student asks the healthcare professional to explain the pathophysiologic process of alcoholic cirrhosis. What statement by the professional would not be consistent with complete knowledge about this process?
A)Inflammation and damage leading to cirrhosis begin in the bile canaliculi.
B)Alcohol is transformed to acetaldehyde, which promotes liver fibrosis.
C)Mitochondrial function is impaired, decreasing oxidation of fatty acids.
D)Acetaldehyde inhibits export of proteins from the liver.
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Page 44
Chapter 43: Alterations of Digestive Function in Children
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28 Verified Questions
28 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A child has cystic fibrosis (CF). Which medication does the healthcare professional teach the parents about?
A)Salt tablets
B)Pancreatic enzymes
C)Antihypertensives
D)Antibiotics
Q2) Which situations are often associated with possible causes of failure to thrive (FTT) in infants? (Select all that apply.)
A)Gastroesophageal reflux
B)Living in poverty
C)Feeding difficulties
D)Incorrect formula preparation
E)Child neglect
Q3) Increased gastrin secretion by the mother in the last trimester of pregnancy may cause which condition in the infant?
A)Pyloric stenosis
B)Meconium ileus
C)Esophageal atresia
D)Galactosemia
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Chapter 44: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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37 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which glucoprotein is believed to inhibit calcium phosphate precipitation and play a part in bone resorption by recruiting osteoclasts?
A)Osteocalcin
B)Osteonectin
C)Laminin
D)Osteopontin
Q2) What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
A)Small channels called canaliculi
B)Osteocytes within the lacunae
C)Tiny spaces within the lacunae
D)Haversian system
Q3) Which term is used to identify a functional muscle contraction in which the muscle contracts but the limb does not move?
A)Isotonic
B)Isometric
C)Eccentric
D)Concentric
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Page 46
Chapter 45: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function
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40 Verified Questions
40 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?
A)Purine
B)Pyrimidine
C)Vitamin E
D)Amino acid
Q2) A patient in the clinic had a femur x-ray that was read as having a "moth-eaten" appearance. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?
A)Limb-salvaging surgery
B)Amputation
C)Oral bisphosphonates
D)Calcium and vitamin D supplements
Q3) By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost?
A)30%
B)40%
C)50%
D)60%
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Page 47
Chapter 46: Alterations of Musculoskeletal Function in Children
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Rhabdomyosarcoma can develop in which type of muscle?
A)Cardiac
B)Smooth
C)Involuntary
D)Striated
Q2) A healthcare professional wants to estimate the total mass of muscle in a patient's body. What serum laboratory test should the professional evaluate?
A)Albumin
B)Blood urea nitrogen
C)Creatinine
D)Creatine
Q3) Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
A)Heads of the femur
B)Distal femurs
C)Heads of the humerus
D)Distal tibias
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Chapter 47: Structure, Function, and Disorders of the Integument
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37 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46478
Sample Questions
Q1) In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin (Ig) is associated with an immediate reaction?
A)IgA
B)IgE
C)IgG
D)IgM
Q2) The healthcare professional educates a community group that chickenpox (varicella) may be followed years later by which disorder?
A)Erysipelas
B)Cytomegalovirus
C)Warts
D)Herpes zoster
Q3) A patient was hospitalized with frostbite and is receiving ibuprofen. The patient asks the healthcare professional to explain the rationale for the drug. What is the best response?
A)Treating fever
B)Preventing plate aggregation
C)Reducing pain
D)Inhibiting prostaglandins
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Chapter 48: Alterations of the Integument in Children
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26 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46479
Sample Questions
Q1) A parent reports a child has skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the parent about?
A)Supportive care only
B)Oral griseofulvin
C)Topical corticosteroids
D)Topical mupirocin
Q2) Which acne lesions are classified as inflammatory? (Select all that apply.)
A)Closed comedones
B)Opened comedones
C)Nodules
D)Papules
E)Pustules
Q3) Which leukocytes are elevated in atopic dermatitis?
A)Eosinophils
B)Neutrophils
C)Basophils
D)Monocytes
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Chapter 49: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns in
Adults
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23 Verified Questions
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Sample Questions
Q1) In septic shock, which mediators are antiinflammatory? (Select all that apply.)
A)Interleukin (IL)-4 (IL-4)
B)IL-10
C)IL-13
D)Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
E)Prostaglandin
Q2) The student learns that which mechanism causes organ injury in primary multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?
A)Impaired immune response
B)Impaired glucose use
C)Impaired perfusion
D)Impaired ventilation
Q3) For which type of shock would antihistamines and corticosteroids be prescribed?
A)Septic
B)Anaphylactic
C)Hypovolemic
D)Cardiogenic
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Page 51
Chapter 50: Shock, Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and Burns
in Children
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23 Verified Questions
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Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/46481
Sample Questions
Q1) Which information does the professor teach the class regarding how a child's body compensates for cardiogenic shock? (Select all that apply.)
A)Splanchnic arteries are constricted to divert blood from the skin, kidneys, and gut to the heart and brain.
B)Peripheral blood vessels are constricted to raise blood pressure.
C)Adrenergic responses produce tachycardia to increase cardiac output.
D)The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is stimulated when renal function decreases.
E)Compensation prevents the child from developing hepatic or mesenteric failure.
Q2) A child has a burn injury. What does the healthcare provider assess for when determining the child's chance of surviving?
A)Immunosuppression
B)Hypermetabolism
C)Inhalation injury
D)Hypertrophic scarring
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