Health Assessment and Promotion Exam Review
Course Introduction
Health Assessment and Promotion is a foundational course that equips students with the knowledge and skills to systematically evaluate the health status of individuals across the lifespan. Emphasizing both theoretical and practical aspects, the course covers techniques for conducting comprehensive health histories, physical examinations, and risk assessments. Students learn to interpret assessment findings and apply evidence-based strategies to promote health, prevent disease, and support wellness within diverse populations. The course also explores cultural, environmental, and psychosocial influences on health, fostering a holistic approach to patient care and health promotion in both community and clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Genetics and Genomics in Nursing and Health Care 2nd Edition by Theresa A. Beery
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20 Chapters
432 Verified Questions
432 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/study-set/201 Page 2
Chapter 1: DNA Structure and Function
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2914
Sample Questions
Q1) What is the purpose of a chromosome centromere?
A)Connecting sister chromatids to form a chromosome
B)Preventing the chromosome arm tips from unraveling
C)Allowing chromatids to separate during DNA replication
D)Ensuring that DNA replication proceeds only in the 3'-to-5' direction
Answer: A
Q2) A person's karyotype shows 44 autosomes and one X chromosome. What is the best interpretation of this karyotype?
A)The karyotype is aneuploid, and the individual has only one allele for each of the genes on the X chromosome.
B)The karyotype is aneuploid, and the individual is experiencing the pathologic condition of haploidy.
C)The karyotype is euploid, making the individual a genotypic female and a phenotypic male.
D)The karyotype is euploid, making the individual a genotypic male and a phenotypic female.
Answer: A
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Protein Synthesis
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31 Verified Questions
31 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the expected outcome when a person (twin A) experiences a large deletion of DNA in one of his noncoding regions and his monozygotic twin (twin B) doesnot?
A)DNA identification of each twin will be more specific.
B)Only their somatic cells will remain identical at all loci.
C)Only their germline cells will remain identical at all loci.
D)They will now be dizygotic twins instead of monozygotic twins.
Answer: A
Q2) How does a "codon" participate in protein synthesis?
A)Carrying amino acid for peptide bond attachment
B)Ensuring that ribosomal RNA is securely wrapped around the mature mRNA
C)Preventing microRNA from binding to mRNA and prematurely degrading it
D)Indicating which amino acid is to be placed within the growing protein chain
Answer: D
Q3) How does the process of polyadenylation affect protein synthesis?
A)Binding to the antisense DNA strand to prevent inappropriate transcription
B)Promoting attachment of ribosomes to the correct end of messenger RNA
C)Linking the exons into the mature messenger RNA
D)Signaling the termination of mRNA translation
Answer: D
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Genetic Influence on Cell Division, Differentiation,
and
Gametogenesis
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32 Verified Questions
32 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do transcription factors influence cell division?
A)They directly transmit external signals to the cell's nucleus.
B)Transcription factors regulate the expression of genes involved in cell division.
C)Loss or inactivation of transcription factors degrades suppressor gene protein products.
D)Transcription factors are enzymes that activate promitotic substances by adding a phosphate group to the chemical structure.
Answer: B
Q2) Why is fertilization of a polar body unlikely to lead to normal embryonic and fetal development?
A)The resulting zygote would be 4N instead of 2N.
B)The lack of cytoplasm would inhibit cellular reproduction.
C)The polar body has spent too long of a time trapped in meiosis I.
D)The resulting zygote would be smaller, which increases the risk for apoptosis.
Answer: B
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5
Chapter 4: Patterns of Inheritance
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36 Verified Questions
36 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Agirl of normal stature is born to two parents with achondroplasia who have very short stature, especially disproportionately short arms and legs. What is theprobability (by Punnett square analysis) that any pregnancy this girl eventually has will result in the birth of an infant with achondroplasia if her partner also has normal stature?
A)Three out of four (75%)
B)Two out of four (50%)
C)One out of four (25%)
D)Zero out of four (0%)
Q2) If a man with classic hemophilia (X-linked recessive) has children with a woman who is a carrier for the disorder, what is the expected risk pattern?
A)All sons will be unaffected; all daughters will be carriers.
B)All sons will be carriers; all daughters will be affected.
C)All sons have a 50% risk of the disorder; daughters will all either be affected or carriers.
D)All sons will be carriers; daughters have a 50% chance of being a carrier and a 50% chance of being unaffected.
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6
Chapter 5: Epigenetic Influences on Gene Expression
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) In fragile X syndrome, only noncoding regions within the gene for a protein that directs and maintains brain development are heavily methylated, resulting indecreasedcognitive ability and behavioral problems. What is the most likely mechanism of this abnormal expression?
A)Increased microRNA molecules reducing the synthesis of the gene product
B)Failure of the methylated regions to undergo translation
C)Suppression of the "splicing out" action for introns
D)Suppression of promoter function
Q2) How is eating a diet high in broccoli thought to reduce cancer risk?
A)Increasing the excretion rate of foods known to be methyl donors
B)Increasing histone acetylation, turning on anticancer genes
C)Decreasing the rate of microDNA synthesis and activity
D)Decreasing the exposure of carcinogens to nuclear DNA
Q3) Which term or phrase is used to describe the ability of the environment to cause different phenotypes to develop from the same genotype?
A)Developmental plasticity
B)Histone modification
C)Phenotype variability
D)Nutrigenomics
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Page 7
Chapter 6: Autosomal Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which syndrome or condition represents monosomy?
A)Cri du chat
B)Patau syndrome
C)Turner syndrome
D)Robertsonian translocation
Q2) What is the most likely explanation for a baby boy to have Tay-Sachs disease when the child's mother is not a carrier for the problem, but the father is a carrier?
A)The mother is not really the biological parent of this child.
B)The mother's normal gene allele is not expressed, and the father's Tay-Sachs allele is expressed.
C)A new mutation occurred in the father's sperm in which the Tay-Sachs gene has become dominant.
D)The father's Tay-Sachs gene has been translocated from its usual locus to the Y chromosome and thus is expressed in any male child.
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Chapter 7: Sex Chromosome and Mitochondrial Inheritance and Disorders
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why is the incidence of an extra Y chromosome in the general population unknown?
A)The phenotype is that of a normal male.
B)Most conceptions with 47,XYY are spontaneously aborted.
C)The life expectancy for males with 47,XYY is often short.
D)The majority of males with this sex chromosome abnormality are institutionalized.
Q2) Which clinical feature in a newborn baby girl suggests the possibility of Turner syndrome?
A)Absence of Babinski reflex
B)Presence of a webbed neck
C)Presence of epicanthal folds
D)Absence of irises of both eyes
Q3) Which feature is common among people who have Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) or a karyotype with 47,XXX but not among people who have Down syndrome or Edward syndrome?
A)Severely reduced cognition
B)Cleft palate
C)Tall stature
D)Infertility
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Chapter 8: Family History and Pedigree Construction
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20 Verified Questions
20 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) When constructing a pedigree around a specific health problem, what is the minimal number of generations needed to accurately assess the presence or absence ofa genetic factor in disease development?
A)One
B)Two
C)Three
D)Four
Q2) Lois has Alzheimer's disease. She and her daughter Linda provided care for Lois's mother Leona when she had severe Alzheimer's disease. Now Linda, age 57, is showingsigns of impaired memory. Linda's daughter Lucy is pregnant with her first child and has contacted a genetic counselor to discuss Alzheimer's risk in her family. Who in this family is the proband?
A)Leona
B)Lois
C)Linda
D)Lucy
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Chapter 9: Congenital Anomalies, Basic Dysmorphology, and
Genetic Assessment
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best action to take when you observe the presence of a smooth philtrum on a young child?
A)Obtain a genetics referral as soon as possible.
B)Assess for the presence of any other dysmorphic features.
C)Document the finding in the medical record as the only action.
D)Gently explain to the parents that this finding is cause for concern.
Q2) Which term is used to describe the condition of widely spaced eyes?
A)Hypertelorism
B)Hypotelorism
C)Hyperoculoci
D)Hypo-oculoci
Q3) When geneticists assess dysmorphology, what do they consider?
A)The "gestalt"
B)The general feel and overall appearance of the patient
C)Specific dysmorphic features, such as the shape of the face and the position of the ears
D)All of the above
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Page 11
Chapter 10: Enzyme and Collagen Disorders
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) If a man with Gaucher type 1 has children with a woman who is a carrier for the disorder, what is the expected risk pattern?
A)All sons will be unaffected; all daughters will be carriers.
B)All sons will be carriers; all daughters will be affected.
C)All children will have one mutated allele and will at least be carriers; each child of either gender has a 50% risk of having the disease.
D)Each child of either gender has a 50% risk of being a carrier, a 25% risk of having the disease, and a 25% risk of neither being a carrier nor having the disease.
Q2) Why does a person with Hurler syndrome have an enlarged abdomen?
A)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the lysosomes within the liver cells.
B)The excess mucopolysaccharides accumulate inside the cells of the liver and the spleen.
C)The excess glycosaminoglycans weaken the muscles of the abdomen, and all contents move forward.
D)The excess glycosaminoglycans cause the person to develop type 2 diabetes, with greatly increased abdominal fat.
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Page 12
Chapter 11: Common Childhood-Onset Genetic Disorders
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34 Verified Questions
34 Flashcards
Source URL: https://quizplus.com/quiz/2924
Sample Questions
Q1) Zoe, a 20-year-old woman, shows signs of mild muscle weakness. She has two first cousins on her mother's side who died of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy (DMD).Whichexplanation regarding Zoe's situation is most likely?
A)Zoe is a heterozygote showing partial expression
B)Zoe and her cousins shared similar environmental risks.
C)The muscle weakness is related to Zoe's lack of exercise in her "girly-girl" lifestyle.
D)Zoe is homozygous for DMD, with a defective dystrophin gene inherited from both parents.
Q2) Which result of genetic/genomic variation has the most support as a cause of asthma?
A)Decreased resistance to infectious microorganisms
B)Early childhood exposures to inhalation irritants (air pollution)
C)Increased inflammatory responses to environmental triggers
D)Mutations in frontal-lobe genes controlling attention-getting behavior
Q3) Which specific type of genetic problem causes sickle cell disease?
A)Deletion of an exon
B)Deletion of an intron
C)Unbalanced translocation
D)Single-nucleotide polymorphism
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Common Adult-Onset Disorders
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25 Verified Questions
25 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Why do the clinical signs and symptoms of hereditary hemochromatosis not appear until middle adulthood?
A)The adult over 50 has had more exposures to environmental insults over time.
B)Prolonged dietary exposure to toxins produces clinical symptoms.
C)Hereditary hemochromatosis has age-related penetrance.
D)Stored iron builds up over time, causing organ damage.
Q2) Which statement is true regarding age-related macular degeneration (AMD)?
A)It is the most common cause of peripheral vision impairment among the elderly.
B)It is transmitted in an autosomal-recessive pattern of inheritance.
C)Smoking increases the risk in those who are genetically susceptible.
D)Predictive genetic testing can identify the genes that cause AMD.
Q3) What factors increase the clinical severity of -1 antitrypsin (ATT) deficiency?
1) Whether or not the person smokes
2) Whether or not the person uses alcohol
3) The severity of disease in affected relatives
4) The specific alleles of the genes inherited
A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 4 only
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Chapter 13: Cardiovascular Disorders
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23 Verified Questions
23 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which lethal cardiac arrhythmia can occur as a complication of long QT syndrome?
A)Atrial node reentry tachycardia
B)Prolonged atrial fibrillation
C)Mitral valve prolapse
D)Torsade de pointes
Q2) Why is determining the genetic contribution to the onset of stroke difficult?
A)Stroke classification and phenotype remain heterogeneous.
B)Comorbidities mask the symptoms and delay the diagnosis.
C)Environmental risk factors have equal contribution to the problem.
D)Often the person with a stroke cannot provide accurate family information.
Q3) Which statement about atrial fibrillation is correct?
A)It is the most common genetic cardiac disorder worldwide.
B)A variety of different genes can contribute to its expression.
C)It is found exclusively in adults over 60 years old.
D)When severe, it leads to long QT syndrome.
Q4) Which ethnic group is at higher risk for stroke caused by factor V Leiden?
A)Ashkenazi Jews
B)African Americans
C)Caucasians from Northern Europe
D)French Canadians from the Quebec area
Page 15
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Chapter 14: The Genetics of Cancer
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30 Verified Questions
30 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which statement best describes the role of tumor suppressor genes in cancer development?
A)Tumor suppressor genes control or modify the activity of oncogenes, reducing the risk for cancer development.
B)The presence of tumor suppressor genes increases the risk for gene damage by environmental carcinogens.
C)Tumor suppressor genes reduce/suppress immune function, increasing the risk for cancer development.
D)Tumor suppressor genes are a type of oncogene that is only active in germline cells and tissues.
Q2) Mutations in which of the following genes are now known to greatly increase the risk for developing breast cancer? Select all that apply.
A)APC
B)CDH1
C)CHEK2
D)DCC
E) PALB2
F) PTEN
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Page 16
Chapter 15: Genetic Contributions to Psychiatric and Behavioral Disorders
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15 Verified Questions
15 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is the best description of the genetic contribution to the onset of autism?
A)Autism spectrum is caused by a single-gene mutation in most, but not all, cases.
B)Exposure to a teratogen can be a cause of autism spectrum in many cases.
C)Known causes of autism spectrum include copy-number variants and chromosomal problems.
D)Autism spectrum disorders have a much stronger environmental input than genetic input to expression of the phenotype.
Q2) At what point in human development is the phenotype of schizophrenia most likely to manifest?
A)Between birth and 10 years
B)At the onset of puberty
C)At adolescence or early adulthood
D)With the onset of the physical decline associated with older age
Q3) What is meant by the phrase "behavioral genetics"?
A)Identification of the single gene that corresponds to a specific undesired behavior
B)An area of research aimed at controlling behavior by genetic manipulation
C)The study of the behavior of genes in diverse settings
D)The examination of gene variants that influence behaviors
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Chapter 16: Genetic and Genomic Testing
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14 Verified Questions
14 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Under which condition can preimplantation genetic testing be performed?
A)During in vitro fertilization
B)Between 4 to 6 weeks' gestation
C)When paternity is unknown
D)When an ultrasound indicates the fetus has a structural abnormality
Q2) How is the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) helpful in the process of genetic testing?
A)Preserving genetic material within a sample so that more sophisticated tests can be performed as they become available with future technologic advancements
B)Separating exons from introns and establishing which DNA strand is the "sense" strand
C)Determining whether a small amount of DNA is paternal or maternal in origin
D)Increasing the amount of DNA being tested, thus promoting accuracy
Q3) When is fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) most likely to be used?
A)To find a gene associated with a particular disease
B)To determine whether a stillborn infant has trisomy 13
C)To determine the carrier status of a child whose sister has cystic fibrosis
D)To establish a diagnosis for a possible adult-onset single-gene disorder
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Chapter 17: Assessing Genomic Variation in Drug Response
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17 Verified Questions
17 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with a fractured elbow in the emergency department states that he needs morphine for pain rather than codeine because the last time he had a painfulinjury,codeine was not effective in managing his pain. What is the nurse's best response or action?
A)Ask the patient how much alcohol he ingests daily.
B)Communicate this information to the admitting physician.
C)Alert the health-care provider that this patient is "drug-seeking."
D)Reassure the patient that he will receive progressively higher dosages of codeine until his pain is controlled.
Q2) Which processes of drug response are most subject to genetic variation?
A)Drug dissolution in body fluids and drug binding to plasma proteins
B)Rates of drug movement into and through the gastrointestinal tract
C)Drug activation or deactivation and duration of drug actions
D)Drug binding with receptors and drug blocking of receptors
Q3) What is the expected heart-rate response when a patient is taking a drug that is an adrenaline antagonist?
A)Heart rate is unchanged.
B)Heart rate decreases.
C)Heart rate increases.
D)Heart rate is irregular.
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Chapter 18: Health Professionals and Genomic Care
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11 Verified Questions
11 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Awoman's family history for breast cancer includes two paternal aunts who developed breast cancer before age 45. Which genetics professional would be most appropriatefor assistance in helping this patient understand the health risk posed by this family history?
A)Medical geneticist
B)Genetic counselor
C)Clinical geneticist
D)Clinical laboratory geneticist
Q2) Which genetics professional has the defined responsibility for overseeing the work in a cytogenetic laboratory?
A)Clinical laboratory geneticist
B)Genetic laboratory technician
C)Cytogenetics technician
D)Medical geneticist
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Chapter
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9 Verified Questions
9 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) What should be told to the patient who has been found to have a genetic mutation that increases the risk for colon cancer and says he does not want any of hisfamilytoknow about this result?
A)"It is required by law that you inform your siblings and your children about this result so that they also can be tested and monitored for colon cancer."
B)"It is not necessary to tell your siblings because they are adults, but you should tell your children so that they can be tested before they decide to have children of their own."
C)"It is not required that you tell anyone about this result; however, because your siblings and children may also be at risk for colon cancer, you should think about how this information might help them."
D)"It is your decision to determine with whom, if anyone, you share this test result; however, if you do not tell any of your family members and they get colon cancer, you would be responsible for their development of the disease."
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Chapter 20: Genetic and Genomic Variation
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12 Verified Questions
12 Flashcards
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Sample Questions
Q1) Asmall group of people left their homeland and set sail for a tropical island. They settled there, and their descendants lived for many generations. Unfortunately,a relatively high proportion of this new population is afflicted with an autosomal-recessive disease. What would explain this?
A)They encouraged immigration of people from the mainland.
B)An unidentified environmental radiation source was present on the island.
C)One of the original group members had the gene mutation from conception.
D)Their lack of genetic diversity made them more vulnerable to new mutations.
Q2) Why are people of Ashkenazi Jewish descent more likely to be carriers of the mutations that cause Tay-Sachs and Gaucher disease?
A)The environment of Eastern Europe increased their risk of developing a mutation.
B)The common diet shared by these people has reduced their genetic diversity.
C)Bottleneck effects have reduced the genetic diversity in this population.
D)Being heterozygous for these diseases allowed them to survive cholera.
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