Health Assessment and Pathophysiology
Textbook Exam Questions
Course Introduction
This course provides an integrated approach to understanding normal health assessment and the underlying mechanisms of disease (pathophysiology) across the lifespan. Students will develop comprehensive health assessment skills, including history taking, physical examination, and interpretation of findings. Emphasis is placed on correlating clinical manifestations with physiologic and pathophysiologic processes to enhance critical thinking and diagnostic reasoning. Through case studies and laboratory experiences, learners will apply theoretical knowledge to practice, preparing them to identify deviations from health and contribute to effective patient care management.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 5th Edition by Copstead
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54 Chapters
1230 Verified Questions
1230 Flashcards
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient with high blood pressure who is otherwise healthy is counseled to restrict sodium intake.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: B
Q2) A 17-year-old college-bound student receives a vaccine against an organism that causes meningitis.This is an example of
A) primary prevention.
B) secondary prevention.
C) tertiary prevention.
D) disease treatment.
Answer: A
Q3) A disease that is native to a particular region is called A) epidemic.
B) endemic.
C) pandemic.
D) ethnographic.
Answer: B
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Chapter 2: Homeostasis and Adaptive Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary adaptive purpose of the substances produced in the alarm stage is A) energy and repair.
B) invoke resting state.
C) produce exhaustion.
D) set a new baseline steady state.
Answer: A
Q2) Indicators that an individual is experiencing high stress include all the following except A) tachycardia.
B) diaphoresis.
C) increased peripheral resistance.
D) pupil constriction.
Answer: D
Q3) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Gap junctions are connecting channels that allow passage of small molecules from one cell to the next and are especially important for
A) distance signaling.
B) tissues requiring synchronized function.
C) communication within a cell.
D) passage of large molecules.
Answer: B
Q2) An increase in extracellular potassium ion from 4.0 to 6.0 mEq/L would
A) hyperpolarize the resting membrane potential.
B) make it more difficult to reach threshold and produce an action potential.
C) hypopolarize the resting membrane potential.
D) alter the threshold potential.
Answer: C
Q3) Repolarization of a neuron after a depolarizing action potential is due to A) activation of the Na<sup>+</sup>-K<sup>+</sup> pump.
B) influx of calcium.
C) efflux of potassium.
D) influx of sodium.
Answer: C
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) Metaplasia is
A) the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another.
B) the transformation of a cell type to malignancy.
C) an irreversible cellular adaptation.
D) the disorganization of cells into various sizes, shapes, and arrangements.
Q2) Necrotic death of brain tissue usually produces _____ necrosis.
A) coagulative
B) caseous
C) liquefactive
D) fat
Q3) Coagulative necrosis is caused by
A) dissolving of dead cells and cyst formation.
B) trauma or pancreatitis.
C) lung tissue damage.
D) interrupted blood supply.
Q4) Apoptosis is a process that results in cellular A) atrophy.
B) death.
C) proliferation.
D) mutation.
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important difference between skeletal and cardiac muscle is that
A) cardiac muscle is not striated.
B) only skeletal muscle is dependent upon actin-myosin cross-bridging.
C) calcium does not leave the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac cells.
D) cardiac muscle has calcium channels on the cell surface for calcium entry.
Q2) Characteristics of smooth muscle include
A) being under voluntary control.
B) having striations.
C) contraction being short-lived.
D) being found in blood vessels.
Q3) In DNA replication DNA polymerase functions to
A) pry DNA apart.
B) unwind and separate the DNA strands.
C) prevent tangling of DNA strands as they unwind.
D) match appropriate bases to the template base.
E) proofread the newly developed DNA for errors in base pairing.
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7
Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
Q2) A fetus is most vulnerable to environmental teratogens during A) birth.
B) conception.
C) the first trimester.
D) the last trimester.
Q3) Results of biochemical tests indicate an infant has phenylketonuria (PKU).The parents ask what PKU means.Correct responses would include all the following except PKU
A) is an enzyme deficiency resulting in the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
B) is an inborn error of metabolism.
C) results from a chromosome abnormality called nondisjunction.
D) is transmitted as an autosomal recessive disorder.
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8
Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hypermetabolic state leading to cachexia in terminal cancer is thought to be due to
A) tumor necrosis factor.
B) angiogenesis.
C) loss of ATP production.
D) pain medications.
Q2) A patient with metastatic lung cancer wants to know her chances for survival.Which response is correct?
A) "Lung cancer is always fatal."
B) "Lung cancer has about a 15% survival rate."
C) "Lung cancer is highly curable when diagnosed early."
D) "Lung cancer death rate has decreased significantly, as with all other cancers."
Q3) In general, a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is ____ (more/less)likely to be aggressive.
Q4) Proto-oncogenes
A) are the same as oncogenes.
B) are normal cellular genes that promote growth.
C) lead to abnormal tumor suppressor genes
D) result from severe mutational events.
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common method of disease transmission is A) airborne.
B) droplet.
C) vector.
D) inoculant.
Q2) A characteristic of some bacteria is
A) intracellular parasite.
B) composed of RNA or DNA.
C) contains cell wall endotoxin.
D) cannot replicate extracellularly.
Q3) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
Q4) The term infectivity is defined as the ability to A) cause disease.
B) spread.
C) cause very severe disease.
D) invade and multiply.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Leukocytosis with a "shift to the left" refers to
A) elevated segmented neutrophils.
B) elevated immature neutrophils.
C) decreased monocytes.
D) decreased immature neutrophils.
Q2) The membrane attack complex formed by complement is similar in function to A) CD4<sup>+</sup>.
B) granzymes.
C) gp120.
D) perforin.
Q3) Passive immunity is provided by
A) transfer of preformed human antibodies.
B) injection of human immune globulin.
C) injection with preformed animal antibodies.
D) vaccines with dead or altered organisms.
E) active infections.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) An important mediator of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is A) complement.
B) antigen-antibody immune complexes.
C) T cells.
D) histamine.
Q2) Which disorder is considered a primary immunodeficiency disease?
A) HIV/AIDS
B) Malnutrition immunodeficiency
C) Cancer immunodeficiency
D) Radiation immunodeficiency
Q3) Patients with immunodeficiency disorders are usually first identified because they A) run high fevers.
B) have unusually high WBC counts.
C) develop brain infections.
D) develop recurrent infections.
Q4) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type ____ hypersensitivity reactions.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Renal insufficiency is a common complication of which disease?
A) Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
B) Chronic lymphoid leukemia (CLL)
C) Myeloma
D) Hodgkin disease
Q2) The only known curative treatment for CML is _____ bone marrow transplantation from a suitable donor.
Q3) A patient is diagnosed with myeloma.The nurse teaches the patient about the multiple tumor sites that can develop with this cancer.The possible tumor sites in myeloma include the
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) stomach.
D) pancreas.
E) kidneys.
Q4) What is the correct definition of complete remission (CR)of leukemia?
A) CR is the absence of leukemic cells in the blood.
B) CR is less than 5% blasts in marrow and normal CBC values.
C) CR is absence of leukemic cells regardless of CBC values.
D) CR is less than 5% leukemic cells in the blood.
Page 13
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Chapter 12: HIV Disease and AIDS
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which drugs are used for the management of HIV?
A) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B) DNA polymerase inhibitors
C) Protease inhibitors
D) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
E) CD4 analogs
Q2) In which type of cells is the CD4 found?
A) T cells
B) Microglial cells
C) Retinal cells
D) Cervical cells
E) Pacemaker cells
Q3) Which HIV-positive patient should be given a diagnosis of AIDS?
A) One who has a CD4 count of 300/µl
B) One who has neuropathy
C) One who has Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) One who has genital herpes
Q4) Cleaning dirty needles prior to use helps prevent the spread of HIV.When using bleach, the user must rinse out all the blood first and then fill the needle and syringe with full-strength bleach three times for ____ to ____ seconds.
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) What is necessary for red blood cell production?
A) Phosphate
B) Iron
C) Magnesium
D) Calcium
Q2) A low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)and mean corpuscular volume (MCV)are characteristic of which type of anemia?
A) Vitamin B12 deficiency
B) Folate deficiency
C) Iron deficiency
D) Erythropoietin deficiency
Q3) The most appropriate treatment for secondary polycythemia is
A) volume expansion with saline.
B) measures to improve oxygenation.
C) phlebotomy.
D) chemotherapy.
Q4) The anemia resulting from a deficiency of either vitamin B (cobalamin)or folate is caused by a disruption in DNA synthesis of the blast cells in the bone marrow that produces very large abnormal bone marrow cells called ________.
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Widespread activation of the clotting cascade secondary to massive trauma is called
A) hemophilia B.
B) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
C) Hageman disease.
D) idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.
Q2) The megakaryocyte is a precursor to A) factor IX.
B) white blood cells.
C) red blood cells.
D) platelets.
Q3) A cause of thrombocytopenia includes A) hypoxemia.
B) reduced erythropoietin.
C) chemotherapy.
D) secondary polycythemia.
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as ________ disease.
Q5) The ________ is responsible for the synthesis of coagulation factors, with the exception of part of factor VIII.
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which condition enhances lymphatic flow?
A) Increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
B) Increased colloid osmotic pressure
C) Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
D) Increased capillary oncotic pressure
Q2) The movement of blood through the vascular system is opposed by the force of
A) viscosity.
B) the vessel length.
C) the vessel radius.
D) resistance.
Q3) What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
A) Resistance doubles.
B) Resistance decreases by a factor of 16.
C) Resistance decreases by half.
D) Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
Q4) Venules are composed of ________ tissue.
Q5) The smallest vessels of the vascular system and the lymphatic vessels are commonly referred to as the ________.
Q6) A(n)________ is a stationary blood clot formed within a vessel or a chamber of the heart.
Page 17
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q2) Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for A) stroke.
B) cognitive impairment.
C) death.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) urinary retention.
Q3) Hypertension with a specific, identifiable cause is known as _____ hypertension.
A) primary
B) orthostatic
C) secondary
D) malignant
Q4) The ingestion of certain drugs, foods, or chemicals can lead to ____________.
Q5) The most commonly recognized outcome of hypertension is ____________.
Q6) ________ damage is a function of both the stage of hypertension and its duration.
Page 18
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Parasympathetic stimulation of the heart generally leads to a decrease in heart rate, because acetylcholine
A) increases intracellular cAMP levels and opens calcium channels.
B) opens potassium channels allowing potassium ion efflux.
C) binds and blocks b receptors on the cell membrane.
D) inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels in the membrane.
Q2) Myocardial cells are connected by gap junctions enabling them to A) all be stimulated simultaneously.
B) function as a coordinated syncytium.
C) be affected by the autonomic nervous system.
D) share ATP.
Q3) Blood is transported from the right ventricle to the lungs by the A) pulmonary veins.
B) aorta.
C) pulmonary artery.
D) bronchial arteries.
Q4) The R wave is responsible for ________ depolarization.
Q5) A standard ECG has ________ leads.
Q6) A requirement for rhythmicity is that the cell membrane has channels that automatically open during phase ________.
Page 19
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Primary treatment for myocardial infarction (MI)is directed at
A) protecting the heart from further ischemia.
B) decreasing myocardial oxygen demands.
C) reducing heart rate and blood pressure.
D) activating the parasympathetic system.
Q2) While hospitalized, an elderly patient with a history of myocardial infarction was noted to have high levels of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).What is the significance of this finding?
A) Increased LDL levels are associated with increased risk of coronary artery disease.
B) Measures to decrease LDL levels in the elderly would be unlikely to affect the progression of this disease.
C) Increased LDL levels are indicative of moderate alcohol intake, and patients should be advised to abstain.
D) Elevated LDL levels are an expected finding in the elderly and therefore are not particularly significant.
Q3) A reduction in _________ production after birth contributes to the heart's closure and constriction in patent ductus arteriosus.
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lusitropic impairment refers to A) poor contractile force.
B) impaired diastolic relaxation.
C) altered action potential conduction rate.
D) altered automaticity.
Q2) A patient is exhibiting severe dyspnea and anxiety.The patient also has bubbly crackles in all lung fields with pink, frothy sputum.This patient is most likely experiencing A) right-sided heart failure.
B) cardiomyopathy.
C) a medication reaction.
D) acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
Q3) The most common causes of heart failure are A) myocardial ischemia.
B) hypertension.
C) dilated cardiomyopathy.
D) high-fat diet.
E) urinary retention.
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in ________.
Q5) First-degree block is identified by a prolonged ________.
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) A patient experiences anaphylactic shock.The nurse expects to observe which signs and symptoms in the patient?
A) Stupor
B) Hypotension
C) Urticaria
D) Angioedema
E) Wheezing
Q2) Positive inotropic drugs work by increasing
A) contractility.
B) cardiac output.
C) tissue perfusion.
D) myocardial oxygen demand.
E) vascular resistance.
Q3) Sepsis has been recently redefined as
A) a systemic infection with viable organisms in the bloodstream.
B) a systemic inflammatory response to ischemia.
C) a systemic inflammatory response to infection.
D) severe hypotension in an infected patient.
Q4) Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used ________ solutions that contain electrolytes.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Shifts in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve represent the A) effect of carbonic anhydrase on the uptake of CO .
B) ability of blood to pick up more CO when PaO is low.
C) amount of hydrogen in solution in the blood.
D) changes in hemoglobin affinity for oxygen.
Q2) An increase in filtration of fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the interstitium occurs with ________ pressure.
A) increased capillary colloid
B) increased capillary hydrostatic
C) decreased capillary hydrostatic
D) decreased interstitial colloid
Q3) The peripheral chemoreceptors
A) are located in the medulla oblongata.
B) lead to hypoventilation when stimulated.
C) respond to the arterial oxygen level.
D) are unresponsive to pH and CO levels.
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23
Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The hyper-secretion of mucus resulting for chronic bronchitis is the result of A) recurrent infection.
B) destruction of alveolar septa.
C) reduced inflammation.
D) barrel chest.
Q2) COPD leads to a barrel chest, because it causes
A) pulmonary edema.
B) muscle atrophy.
C) prolonged inspiration.
D) air trapping.
Q3) Which assessment would support a diagnosis of type A COPD rather than type B COPD
A) Copious sputum, dyspnea, cor pulmonale
B) Noisy breath sounds, fatigue, high PaO , overweight
C) Normal PaO , scant sputum, accessory muscle use, barrel chest
D) Barrel chest, productive cough, cyanosis, very decreased PaO
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24
Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neuromuscular disorders impair lung function primarily due to A) inflammatory events in the lung.
B) secondary pneumonia.
C) weak muscles of respiration.
D) inactivity secondary to the disorder.
Q2) Which clinical manifestation is not likely the result of a tuberculosis infection?
A) Productive cough
B) Low-grade fever
C) Night sweats
D) Cyanosis
Q3) The organism that causes pulmonary tuberculosis is
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
B) Haemophilus tuberculosis.
C) Tuberculosis tuberculoci.
D) Mycococcidio tuberculosis.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) Manifestations from sodium imbalances occur primarily due to A) cellular fluid shifts.
B) vascular collapse.
C) hyperosmolarity.
D) hypervolemia.
Q2) Which electrolyte imbalances cause increased neuromuscular excitability?
A) Hypokalemia and hyperphosphatemia
B) Hyperkalemia and hypophosphatemia
C) Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia
D) Hypercalcemia and hypermagnesemia
Q3) Which change in a patient's assessment has the greatest urgency?
A) Serum potassium concentration is decreasing; abdominal distention, but denies any difficulty breathing
B) Serum calcium concentration is decreasing; reports constipation; is alert and denies any discomfort
C) Serum calcium concentration is increasing; reports constipation; is alert and denies any discomfort
D) Serum potassium concentration is increasing; has developed cardiac dysrhythmias, but denies any difficulty breathing
Page 26
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of
A) carbonic acid deficit.
B) metabolic acid deficit.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) carbonic acid excess.
Q2) Emesis causes
A) respiratory acidosis.
B) respiratory alkalosis.
C) metabolic acidosis.
D) metabolic alkalosis.
Q3) Respiratory acidosis is associated with A) increased carbonic acid. B) hypokalemia.
C) increased neuromuscular excitability.
D) increased pH.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The glomerular filtration rate is most accurately reflected in the A) blood urea nitrogen level.
B) urinary output.
C) serum osmolality.
D) serum creatinine level.
Q2) The blood urea nitrogen (BUN)level is affected by A) protein intake.
B) fat intake.
C) fluid intake.
D) catabolism.
E) renal function.
Q3) Serious renal impairment generally does not occur until ____ of the total nephrons have been damaged
A) 20%
B) 40%
C) 60%
D) 80%
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) A common component of renal calculi is
A) calcium.
B) cholesterol.
C) creatinine.
D) urobilirubin.
Q2) The infection frequently associated with development of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis is
A) pneumonia.
B) throat infection.
C) endocarditis.
D) urinary tract infection.
Q3) The type of glomerulonephritis which is most likely to result in a swift decline in renal function that then progresses to acute kidney injury is
A) acute glomerulonephritis.
B) crescentic glomerulonephritis.
C) post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
D) chronic glomerulonephritis.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) What problem is a patient likely to experience in end-stage renal disease?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Polyuria and nocturia
C) Uremia
D) Hematuria
Q2) The most common cause of intrinsic kidney injury is _____ injury.
A) glomerular
B) tubular
C) interstitial
D) vascular
Q3) The best intervention for acute kidney injury (AKI)is ________.
Q4) The most common agent resulting in nephrotoxicity and subsequent acute tubular necrosis (ATN)in hospitalized patients is
A) contrast media.
B) antibiotics.
C) cancer chemotherapy.
D) recreational drugs.
Q5) ________ is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) Urge incontinence is often due to A) aging.
B) bladder infections.
C) obesity.
D) prostate enlargement.
E) diuretics.
Q2) Which group is at the highest risk for urinary tract infection?
A) Infants and children
B) Sexually active women
C) Adult males
D) Patients taking diuretics
Q3) In addition to renal colic pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include A) hematuria.
B) postrenal renal failure.
C) urinary urgency.
D) proteinuria.
Q4) Infection can lead to bladder ________ formation.
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The male penis is innervated by the ________ nerve.
A) sciatic
B) sacral
C) pudendal
D) caudal
Q2) Characteristics of declining reproductive function in the aged male include
A) decline in sperm production.
B) reduced testosterone production.
C) shrinking testes.
D) increased penile sensation.
E) reduction in size of the penis.
Q3) The main function of the prostate is to A) produce sperm.
B) produce seminal fluid to support sperm.
C) secrete male hormones.
D) provide innervation for erection.
Q4) The _________ nervous system mediates the process of ejaculation.
Q5) The thick covering of the ovum is called the ________.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is
Q2) Sexual impotence is rarely due to A) drug side effects.
B) psychological factors.
C) primary causes.
D) vascular diseases.
Q3) Sudden, severe testicular pain is indicative of A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
Q4) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the ________ during sexual stimulation.
Q5) The condition in which the urethra opens on the dorsal aspect of the penis is known as A) hypospadias.
B) urethral fistula. C) epispadias.
D) priapism.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) At the midpoint of the menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs in response to the A) increase in progesterone.
B) increase in luteinizing hormone and FSH.
C) decrease in estrogen.
D) decrease in gonadotropin.
Q2) During the first 2 weeks of the menstrual cycle, the endometrium proliferates under the influence of
A) estrogen.
B) testosterone.
C) progesterone.
D) hCG.
Q3) Which organs are part of the female reproductive tract?
A) Ovaries
B) Uterus
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Urethra
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Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The HPV vaccine is recommended for 11- to 12-year-old girls, but can be administered to girls as young as _____ years of age.
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
Q2) What reproductive tract disorder is most likely to be associated with urinary stress incontinence?
A) Rectocele
B) Menopause
C) Cystocele
D) Cervicitis
Q3) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)is due to A) endometrial inflammation.
B) reproductive tract malignancies.
C) endometrial fibroid tumors.
D) absent or diminished levels of progesterone.
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Sample Questions
Q1) A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Hepatitis B
Q2) What systemic infections are potentially transmitted by sexual contact?
A) Cytomegalovirus
B) Hepatitis A
C) Hepatitis B
D) HIV
E) Herpes simplex virus
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
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Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Q1) Which are major pairs of salivary glands?
A) Parotid
B) Parietal
C) Submandibular
D) Sublingual
E) Pituitary
Q2) Which enzyme assists with protein digestion?
A) Amylase
B) Chymotrypsin
C) Lactase
D) Lipase
Q3) Brush-border enzymes are produced by ________ cells.
A) pancreatic acinar
B) gastric mucosa
C) intestinal epithelial
D) goblet
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Page 37
Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Q1) Rupture of esophageal varices is a complication of cirrhosis with portal hypertension and carries a high ________ rate.
A) cure
B) morbidity
C) insurance
D) mortality
Q2) Epigastric pain that is relieved by food is suggestive of A) pancreatitis.
B) cardiac angina.
C) gastric ulcer.
D) dysphagia.
Q3) An early indicator of colon cancer is A) rectal pain.
B) bloody diarrhea.
C) a change in bowel habits.
D) jaundice.
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) The definitive treatment for cholecystitis is A) lithotripsy of stones.
B) chemical dissolution of stones.
C) antibiotics and anti-inflammatories.
D) cholecystectomy.
Q2) The most challenging aspect of treatment for chronic pancreatitis is A) pancreatectomy.
B) strict dietary avoidance of fats.
C) abstinence from alcohol.
D) pain control.
Q3) Most gallstones are composed of A) bile.
B) cholesterol.
C) calcium.
D) uric acid salts.
Q4) Normal bile is composed of A) water, electrolytes, and organic solutes. B) proteins.
C) bile acids.
D) phospholipids.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) What laboratory data would support a diagnosis of hemochromatosis?
A) Deficient protease inhibitor
B) Elevated ferritin
C) Elevated urine copper
D) Positive antinuclear antibody
Q2) A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of
A) glucose.
B) octreotide acetate.
C) anticoagulants.
D) proton pump inhibitors.
Q3) An increased urine bilirubin is associated with A) an increased indirect serum bilirubin.
B) hemolytic reactions.
C) Gilbert syndrome.
D) hepatitis.
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) An example of a lipid-soluble hormone is A) catecholamine.
B) thyroid hormone.
C) peptide hormone.
D) pituitary hormone.
Q2) Which hormone is highly bound to carrier proteins in the bloodstream?
A) Thyroid hormones
B) Insulin
C) Glucagon
D) Parathyroid hormone
Q3) It is true that lipid-soluble hormones are
A) transported in a free state in the bloodstream.
B) bound to receptors on the plasma membranes of target cells.
C) diffused through cell membranes to activate intracellular receptors.
D) activated by second-messenger cascades within the target cell.
Q4) The tightness of the hormone-receptor bond is known as A) specificity.
B) affinity.
C) half-life.
D) set point.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Q1) In comparison to triiodothyronine (T ), the hormone thyroxine (T )
A) has greater biological activity.
B) is more abundant in the circulation.
C) has a shorter half-life.
D) binds to nuclear receptors with greater affinity.
Q2) Calcitonin is produced by thyroid parafollicular cells and increases bone formation by
A) homeostasis.
B) osteoclasts.
C) reabsorption.
D) osteoblasts.
Q3) Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism, because it
A) destroys thyroid gland cells.
B) inhibits the release of TSH.
C) suppresses production of autoantibodies.
D) inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are clinical findings usually associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Polyuria
B) Polydipsia
C) Polyphagia
D) Obesity
E) Weight gain
Q2) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular?
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q3) A clinical finding consistent with a hypoglycemic reaction is
A) acetone breath.
B) warm, dry skin.
C) tremors.
D) hyperventilation.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The metabolic response to physiologic stress is characterized by A) loss of somatic protein.
B) preservation of visceral protein.
C) body weight less than 80% of ideal.
D) stress-induced protein catabolism.
Q2) The nutritional effects of cancer can be severe and result in A) malnutrition.
B) anorexia.
C) cachexia.
D) catabolism.
Q3) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6° F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
Q4) Acute physiologic stress is associated with A) preferential use of glycogen.
B) catabolism of body proteins.
C) decreased basal metabolic rate.
D) conservation of body energy stores.
Page 44
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Q1) Voluntary fine-motor movements are produced by activation of the _____ tract(s).
A) dorsal horn-lemniscal
B) lateral corticospinal
C) spinothalamic
D) medial brainstem
Q2) The pathologic process called hydrocephalus would be manifested by _____ ventricular size.
A) decreased CSF, increased B) increased CSF, increased C) decreased CSF, decreased D) increased CSF, decreased
Q3) The integrity of the blood-brain barrier is maintained in part by CNS cells called A) ganglia.
B) leptocytes.
C) neurocytes.
D) astrocytes.
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which brain disorders are a cause of acute brain injury?
A) Seizure disorders
B) Brain trauma
C) Dementias
D) Brain hemorrhage
E) Central nervous system infections.
Q2) A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is
A) Cushing reflex.
B) brain herniation.
C) burr hole.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q3) Stroke is the leading cause of disability in the United States.Among the long-term survivors, the most common disability is
A) inability to perform ADLs.
B) aphasia.
C) clinical depression.
D) hemiparesis.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Orthostatic hypotension may be a manifestation of A) Alzheimer disease.
B) multiple sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
Q2) A patient who experiences early symptoms of muscle twitching, cramping, and stiffness of the hands may be demonstrating signs of A) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
C) Parkinson disease.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q3) It is recommended that women of childbearing age take folic acid daily for prevention of A) neural tube defects.
B) seizure disorders.
C) cerebral palsy. D) hydrocephalus.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hearing loss associated with aminoglycosides is known as A) sensorineural.
B) conductive.
C) presbycusis.
D) otosclerosis.
Q2) Expected management of acute otitis media includes
A) surgical removal of debris in the middle ear.
B) placement of ventilation tubes in the tympanic membrane.
C) antibiotic therapy.
D) adenoidectomy.
Q3) A sudden onset of eye pain and impaired vision associated with pupil dilation is characteristic of
A) narrow-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) cataract.
D) retinal detachment.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Referred pain may be perceived at some distance from the area of tissue injury, but generally felt
A) on the same side of the body.
B) with slightly less intensity.
C) within the same dermatome.
D) within 10 to 15 cm area.
Q2) Pain is thought of as
A) a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively.
B) associated with changes in vital signs reflecting its intensity.
C) experienced in the same way by all individuals.
D) always the result of tissue damage that activates nociceptors.
Q3) Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) C fiber
D) anterolateral
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lithium is used to manage mania because it
A) inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity in the brain.
B) is a CNS sedative.
C) is converted to catecholamines within the brain.
D) blocks D<sub>2</sub> receptors in the brain.
Q2) An elderly patient is taking antipsychotic drugs and begins to develop involuntary chewing motions.The patient is likely exhibiting signs of A) dementia.
B) Parkinson disease.
C) tardive dyskinesia.
D) dysthymia.
Q3) Mania and depression are both characterized by A) high energy and hyperactivity.
B) poor appetite.
C) hopelessness.
D) altered decision-making ability.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) Tachycardia is a common finding in individuals with A) panic attacks.
B) generalized anxiety disorder.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.
Q2) As many as ____ of children in the United States aged 3 to 17 years are affected by some type of neurodevelopmental disorder.
A) 5%
B) 12%
C) 25%
D) 30%
Q3) The fearful expectation of panic anxiety is known as A) a nervous breakdown.
B) anticipatory anxiety.
C) a phobia.
D) avoidance anxiety
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The electrolyte that must be present in cellular cytoplasm for muscle contraction to occur is
A) potassium.
B) sodium.
C) magnesium.
D) calcium.
Q2) Skeletal changes with increased age include
A) hypertrophy of cartilage.
B) decreased bone mass.
C) imbalance in bone resorption and formation.
D) loss of bone marrow.
E) dehydration of intervertebral disks.
Q3) It is true that articular cartilage
A) is comprised of mostly protein.
B) dries out with aging.
C) spreads weight load.
D) needs synovial fluid lubrication.
E) has limited regeneration ability.
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Sample Questions
Q1) The complication which is not likely to result from a compound, transverse fracture of the tibia and fibula is A) bone infection.
B) fat emboli.
C) air embolus.
D) compartment syndrome.
Q2) Compartment syndrome occurs secondary to A) bone infarction.
B) soft-tissue damage.
C) muscle necrosis.
D) breakdown of RBCs.
Q3) A fracture in which bone breaks into two or more fragments is referred to as A) comminuted.
B) open.
C) greenstick.
D) stress.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function: Rheumatic Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Enteropathic arthritis is associated with A) irritable bowel syndrome.
B) inflammatory bowel disease.
C) chronic constipation.
D) chronic diarrhea.
Q2) The chief pathologic features of osteoarthritis are
A) stress fractures of the epiphysis, inflammation of the diaphysis, and accumulation of excessive synovial fluid.
B) autoimmune damage to the synovium, destruction of articular cartilage by pannus, and thickening of synovial fluid.
C) degeneration of articular cartilage, destruction of the bone under the cartilage, and thickening of the synovium.
D) thinning of the joint capsule, resorption of bone, excessive formation of new bone, and formation of bone spurs.
Q3) Ankylosing spondylitis causes
A) intervertebral joint fusion.
B) instability of synovial joints.
C) costal cartilage degeneration.
D) temporomandibular joint degeneration.
Page 54
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Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Psoriasis is characterized by A) silvery scale on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) thickened, discolored nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
Q2) Scleroderma is characterized by
A) large, weeping, open sores.
B) thickening and decreased elasticity of the skin.
C) butterfly rash on the face.
D) hair loss and ulcer formation on the extremities.
Q3) What is the most common, benign form of skin cancer?
A) Basal
B) Squamous
C) Melanoma
D) Actinic keratosis
Q4) Shingles is caused by the same virus that causes A) measles.
B) mumps.
C) chicken pox.
D) rubella.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The third element essential to survival after major burn injury is
A) excision of the burn followed by skin grafting.
B) frequent wound debridement to encourage wound healing.
C) hyperbaric oxygen therapy.
D) continuous topical antibiotic therapy.
Q2) The first priority when rescuing a burned individual is
A) establishing a patent airway.
B) removing his or her clothing.
C) eliminating the source of the burn.
D) covering the wounds with wet sheets.
Q3) The goal of nutritional support of the burned individual is to A) limit the glucose available to infectious organisms.
B) create a positive nitrogen balance.
C) protect the kidney from excessive protein intake.
D) avoid hyperlipidemia.
Q4) The most common cause of burn injuries in children is A) house fires.
B) cigarette burns.
C) scalding with hot water.
D) contact with chemical agents.
56
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