Health Assessment and Pathophysiology
Exam Preparation Guide
Course Introduction
Health Assessment and Pathophysiology is a foundational course designed to equip students with the knowledge and skills necessary to perform comprehensive health assessments and understand the underlying mechanisms of disease processes. The course emphasizes the integration of physical examination techniques with a thorough understanding of normal and abnormal physiological functions, allowing students to recognize deviations from health and their clinical significance. Through lectures, case studies, and hands-on practice, students explore the etiology, pathogenesis, and clinical manifestations of common illnesses, laying the groundwork for effective patient care and problem-solving in clinical settings.
Recommended Textbook
Pathophysiology 6th Edition by
Jacquelyn L. Banasik
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54 Chapters
1199 Verified Questions
1199 Flashcards
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Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is swabbing a patient's throat to test for streptococcal pharyngitis.The nurse must understand that tests such as this differ in the probability that they will be positive for a condition when applied to a person with the condition; this probability is termed sensitivity.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) C.Q.was recently exposed to group A hemolytic Streptococcus and subsequently developed a pharyngeal infection.His clinic examination reveals an oral temperature of 102.3°F,skin rash,dysphagia,and reddened throat mucosa with multiple pustules.He complains of sore throat,malaise,and joint stiffness.A throat culture is positive for Streptococcus,and antibiotics have been prescribed.The etiology of C.Q.'s disease is A) a sore throat.
B) streptococcal infection.
C) genetic susceptibility.
D) pharyngitis.
Answer: B
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Page 3
Chapter 2: Homeostasis, Allostasis, and Adaptive
Responses to Stressors
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone may increase during stress,leading to (Select all that apply.)
A) decreased urinary output.
B) increased blood potassium.
C) increased sodium retention.
D) increased blood volume.
E) decreased blood pressure.
Answer: A,C,D
Q2) Persistence of the alarm stage will ultimately result in
A) stress reduction.
B) permanent damage and death.
C) movement into the resistance stage.
D) exhaustion of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: B
Q3) Allostasis is best defined as
A) steady-state.
B) a state of equilibrium, of balance within the organism.
C) the process by which the body heals following disease.
D) the overall process of adaptive change necessary to maintain survival and well-being.
Answer: D
Page 4
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Chapter 3: Cell Structure and Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The benefit of glycolysis is that this second stage of catabolism supplies
A) ATP to meet energy needs of the body.
B) pyruvate to the citric acid cycle.
C) energy for oxidative phosphorylation.
D) lactate during anaerobic conditions.
Answer: B
Q2) The resting membrane potential in nerve and skeletal muscle is determined primarily by
A) extracellular sodium ion concentration.
B) the ratio of intracellular to extracellular potassium ions.
C) activation of voltage-gated sodium channels.
D) activity of energy-dependent membrane pumps.
Answer: B
Q3) Phospholipids spontaneously form lipid bilayers,because they are A) polar.
B) charged.
C) insoluble.
D) amphipathic.
Answer: D
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Page 5
Chapter 4: Cell Injury, Aging, and Death
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Sample Questions
Q1) The cellular response indicative of injury because of faulty metabolism is
A) hydropic swelling.
B) lactate production.
C) metaplasia.
D) intracellular accumulations.
Q2) Viruses differ from most bacteria in that they (Select all that apply.)
A) enter the host cell.
B) directly produce free radicals.
C) use the host's metabolic processes to survive and replicate.
D) do not induce an immune response.
E) do not produce toxins.
Q3) An increase in organ size and function caused by increased workload is termed A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) metaplasia
D) inflammation.
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Chapter 5: Genome Structure, Regulation, and Tissue
Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The differences in structure and function of cells in different body tissues are resulting from
A) gene differences in tissue cells.
B) expression of tissue-specific genes.
C) transcriptional controls.
D) translation of amino acids to proteins.
Q2) Which tissue type is categorized as epithelial?
A) Tendons and ligaments
B) Blood cells
C) Blood vessel endothelium
D) Cartilage
Q3) The primary role of genes is to A) code for reproduction.
B) direct the synthesis of proteins.
C) determine differentiation.
D) determine cellular apoptosis.
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Chapter 6: Genetic and Developmental Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Cystic fibrosis is a single-gene disorder that primarily affects
A) brain and heart.
B) kidney and adrenals.
C) lungs and pancreas.
D) liver and intestine.
Q2) The risk period for maternal rubella infection leading to congenital problems begins A) prior to conception.
B) during the last trimester.
C) at birth.
D) all through pregnancy.
Q3) The parents of a child with PKU are concerned about the risk of transmitting the disorder in future pregnancies.The correct assessment of the risk is
A) each child has a 25% chance of being a carrier.
B) each child has a 25% chance of being affected.
C) since one child is already affected, the next three children will be unaffected.
D) one cannot predict the risk for future pregnancies.
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Chapter 7: Neoplasia
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Sample Questions
Q1) After surgery to remove a lung tumor,your patient is scheduled for chemotherapy,which will
A) selectively kill tumor cells.
B) stimulate immune cells to fight the cancer.
C) have minimal side effects.
D) kill rapidly dividing cells.
Q2) Proto-oncogenes
A) are the same as oncogenes.
B) are normal cellular genes that promote growth.
C) lead to abnormal tumor-suppressor genes.
D) result from severe mutational events.
Q3) Characteristics of telomerase include (Select all that apply.)
A) repairs the end caps of chromosomes.
B) contributes to cancer cell immortality.
C) is deficient in cancer cells.
D) activity allows a cell to replicate indefinitely.
Q4) In general,a cancer cell that is more tissue-specific differentiated is more likely to be aggressive.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 8: Infectious Processes
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dietary zinc is an important defense against infection,because it maintains (Select all that apply.)
A) natural killer cell function.
B) lymphocyte activity.
C) antioxidant activity.
D) neutrophil activity.
E) complement activity.
Q2) Risk of infection is increased in (Select all that apply.)
A) use of corticosteroids.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) spleen removal.
D) stomach removal.
E) stress.
Q3) The term used to describe fungal infections is A) sepsis.
B) mycoses.
C) amebiasis.
D) Chlamydia.
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Chapter 9: Inflammation and Immunity
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Sample Questions
Q1) Passive immunity is provided by (Select all that apply.)
A) transfer of preformed human antibodies.
B) injection of human immune globulin.
C) injection with preformed animal antibodies.
D) vaccines with dead or altered organisms.
E) active infections.
Q2) Functions of antibodies include (Select all that apply.)
A) antigen agglutination.
B) antigen precipitation.
C) opsonization.
D) phagocytosis.
E) complement activation.
Q3) Characteristics of complement include (Select all that apply.)
A) stimulating chemotaxis.
B) lysing target cells.
C) having multiple plasma proteins.
D) being synthesized in the bone marrow.
E) enhancing phagocytosis.
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11
Chapter 10: Alterations in Immune Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Autoimmune diseases result from (Select all that apply.)
A) overactive immune function.
B) increase in self-tolerance.
C) failure of the immune system to differentiate self and nonself molecules.
D) communicable infections.
Q2) Certain autoimmune diseases are associated with the presence of specific proteins on a person's cells.These proteins are called ________ proteins.
A) complement
B) antibody receptor
C) HLA or MHC
D) TCR or BCR
Q3) Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most involved in type II hypersensitivity reactions.
A)True
B)False
Q4) A primary effector cell of the type I hypersensitivity response is
A) monocytes.
B) mast cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) cytotoxic cells.
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Chapter 11: Malignant Disorders of White Blood Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) The patient is a 12-year-old boy diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL).As part of treatment,the patient must undergo several weeks of chemotherapy.The most serious complication of chemotherapy is A) vomiting.
B) anemia.
C) alopecia.
D) infection.
Q2) The Philadelphia chromosome is a balanced chromosome translocation that forms a new gene called A) bcr-abl.
B) Rb.
C) p53.
D) ARA-c.
Q3) In general,the best prognosis for long-term disease-free survival occurs with A) ALL (acute lymphoid leukemia).
B) CLL (chronic lymphoid leukemia).
C) AML (acute myeloid leukemia).
D) CML (chronic myeloid leukemia).
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13
Chapter 12: HIV Disease and Aids
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Sample Questions
Q1) The clinical latency period after HIV infection is a time when no A) viral replication occurs.
B) decline in CD4 lymphocytes occurs.
C) virus is detectable in the blood.
D) significant symptoms of immunodeficiency occur.
Q2) HIV replicates very quickly from the onset of infection.What is the major site of HIV replication?
A) Vaginal mucosa
B) Anal mucosa
C) GI tract
D) Respiratory tract
Q3) A nurse who works in an assisted living facility is preparing to teach the residents about safe sex practices.What resident criteria should the nurse take into consideration when creating a teaching plan? (Select all that apply.)
A) Age
B) Ethnicity
C) Culture
D) Sexual preference
E) Mobility status
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Page 14
Chapter 13: Alterations in Oxygen Transport
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Sample Questions
Q1) Vaccination for pneumococcal pneumonia should be performed before 1 year of age in patients with sickle cell anemia.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The arterial oxygen content (CaO )for a patient with PaO 100 mm Hg,SaO 95%,and hemoglobin 15 g/dL is _____ mL oxygen/dL.
A) 19.4
B) 1909.8
C) 210
D) 21.05
Q3) Most carbon dioxide is transported in the bloodstream as A) carboxyhemoglobin.
B) bicarbonate ion.
C) dissolved carbon dioxide.
D) carbonic acid.
Q4) Which condition is associated with an elevated reticulocyte count?
A) Renal disease
B) Aplastic anemia
C) Hypertension
D) Hemolytic anemia
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Chapter 14: Alterations in Homeostasis and Blood Coagulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)is a measure of the integrity of A) the extrinsic pathway.
B) the intrinsic pathway.
C) factor VIII synthesis.
D) plasminogen.
Q2) A cause of thrombocytopenia includes A) hypoxemia.
B) reduced erythropoietin.
C) chemotherapy.
D) secondary polycythemia.
Q3) What is involved in the release of plasminogen activators? (Select all that apply.)
A) Factor X
B) Factor XII
C) HMWK
D) Kallikrein
E) Thrombin
Q4) Hemophilia B is also known as Christmas disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: Alterations in Blood Flow
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Sample Questions
Q1) Peripheral edema is a result of
A) arterial insufficiency.
B) venous thrombosis.
C) hypertension.
D) atherosclerosis.
Q2) Which changes in the circulatory system occur in the older adult? (Select all that apply.)
A) Increased baroreceptor function
B) Increased response to hypertensive stimuli
C) Increased systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
D) Decreased afterload
E) Decreased elasticity of vessel walls
Q3) What is the effect on resistance if the radius of a vessel is halved?
A) Resistance doubles.
B) Resistance decreases by a factor of 16.
C) Resistance decreases by half.
D) Resistance increases by a factor of 16.
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Chapter 16: Alterations in Blood Pressure
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Sample Questions
Q1) The prevalence of high blood pressure is higher in A) non-Hispanic white adults.
B) Mexican-American adults.
C) non-Hispanic black adults.
D) Asian children.
Q2) Orthostatic hypotension is a risk factor for (Select all that apply.)
A) stroke.
B) cognitive impairment.
C) death.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) urinary retention.
Q3) A patient presents to the emergency department with a diastolic blood pressure of 132 mm Hg,retinopathy,and symptoms of an ischemic stroke.This symptomology is likely the result of
A) arthrosclerosis.
B) angina.
C) myocardial infarction.
D) hypertensive crisis.
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Chapter 17: Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which physiologic change increases cardiac work but does not enhance cardiac output?
A) Increased preload
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased contractility
D) Increased afterload
Q2) While caring for a geriatric patient,the changes in the heart that may be expected include
A) increased oxygen consumption.
B) increased coronary artery blood flow.
C) decreased response to an elevated heart rate.
D) cardiomyopathy.
Q3) Creatine phosphate is
A) a waste product of cellular metabolism.
B) synthesized when ATP levels are high.
C) enzymatically degraded to form creatine kinase.
D) an indicator of myocardial cell damage.
Q4) A standard ECG has 13 leads.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 18: Alterations in Cardiac Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Acute coronary syndrome in the presence of thrombosis may present as (Select all that apply.)
A) unstable angina.
B) MI.
C) sudden cardiac arrest.
D) bleeding.
E) hypovolemia.
Q2) A patient with significant aortic stenosis is likely to experience A) syncope.
B) hypertension.
C) increased pulse pressure.
D) peripheral edema.
Q3) What compensatory sign would be expected during periods of physical exertion in a patient with limited ventricular stroke volume?
A) Hypotension
B) Bradycardia
C) Aortic regurgitation
D) Tachycardia
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Chapter 19: Heart Failure and Dysrhythmias: Common
Sequelae of Cardiac Diseases
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Q1) A patient with forward effects of heart failure may present with which symptoms? (Select all that apply.)
A) Impaired memory
B) Mental fatigue
C) Stupor
D) Confusion
E) Aggression
Q2) The majority of tachydysrhythmias are believed to occur because of A) triggered activity.
B) enhanced automaticity.
C) defective gap junctions.
D) reentry mechanisms.
Q3) Cor pulmonale refers to A) biventricular failure.
B) left ventricular hypertrophy secondary to lung disease.
C) right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to pulmonary hypertension.
D) right ventricular failure secondary to right ventricular infarction.
Q4) Chronic elevation of myocardial wall tension results in atrophy.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Shock
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Sample Questions
Q1) A type of shock that includes brain trauma that results in depression of the vasomotor center is cardiogenic.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Lactated Ringer solution and normal saline are commonly used crystalloid solutions that contain electrolytes.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Sepsis has been recently redefined as
A) a systemic infection with viable organisms in the bloodstream.
B) a systemic inflammatory response to ischemia.
C) a systemic inflammatory response to infection.
D) severe hypotension in an infected patient.
Q4) Improvement in a patient with septic shock is indicated by an increase in A) cardiac output.
B) SvO<sub>2</sub>.
C) systemic vascular resistance.
D) serum lactate level.
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Chapter 21: Respiratory Function and Alterations in Gas Exchange
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Sample Questions
Q1) Secondary pulmonary hypertension is most often caused by A) increased pulmonary blood flow.
B) increased pulmonary vascular resistance.
C) increased left atrial pressure.
D) decreased alveolar compliance.
Q2) The amount of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximal expiration is called the A) residual volume.
B) functional residual capacity.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) vital capacity.
Q3) The central chemoreceptors for respiratory control are A) located in the carotid artery.
B) responsive primarily to changes in pH and CO .
C) responsive primarily to hypoxemia.
D) less important than the peripheral chemoreceptors in maintaining respiration.
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Chapter 22: Obstructive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The assessment findings of a 5-year-old with a history of asthma include extreme shortness of breath,nasal flaring,coughing,pulsus paradoxus,and use of accessory respiratory muscles.There is no wheezing and the chest is silent in many areas.How should you interpret your assessment?
A) The child probably has consolidated pneumonia; oxygen should be started immediately.
B) Since there is not wheezing, asthma is the problem, but oxygen should be started immediately anyway.
C) The signs and symptoms are consistent with asthma; start oxygen and then check to see that your stethoscope is working properly.
D) The child may be having such a severe asthma episode that the airways are closed, so start oxygen and get the doctor immediately.
Q2) Characteristics of asthma include (Select all that apply.)
A) chronic inflammatory disorder.
B) airway hyperresponsiveness.
C) alveolar collapse.
D) genetic susceptibility.
E) airway remodeling.
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Chapter 23: Restrictive Pulmonary Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome is A) prematurity.
B) lack of surfactant.
C) maternal illegal drug use during pregnancy.
D) umbilical cord compression.
Q2) Common characteristics of sarcoidosis include (Select all that apply.)
A) presence of CD4<sup>+</sup> T cells.
B) a non-productive cough.
C) leukocytosis.
D) granulomas in multiple body systems.
E) fatigue, weight loss, and fever.
Q3) Clinical manifestations of pleural effusion include (Select all that apply.)
A) dyspnea.
B) sharp pain in expiration.
C) productive cough.
D) diminished breath sounds.
E) a tracheal shift, if large.
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Chapter 24: Fluid and Electrolyte Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Sample Questions
Q1) How do clinical conditions that increase vascular permeability cause edema?
A) Through altering the negative charge on the capillary basement membrane, which enables excessive fluid to accumulate in the interstitial compartment
B) By causing movement of fluid from the vascular compartment into the intracellular compartment, which leads to cell swelling
C) Through leakage of vascular fluid into the interstitial fluid, which increases interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
D) By allowing plasma proteins to leak into the interstitial fluid, which draws in excess fluid by increasing the interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
Q2) Excessive antidiuretic hormone (ADH)secretion can cause _____ concentration.
A) increased serum sodium
B) decreased serum sodium
C) increased serum potassium
D) decreased serum potassium
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Chapter 25: Acid-Base Homeostasis and Imbalances
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Q1) A patient has been hospitalized several times in 6 months with severe ECV depletion and hypokalemia resulting from chronic laxative abuse.Which blood gas results should be relayed to the physician?
A) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO normal, bicarbonate normal
B) pH in high part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO high, bicarbonate high
C) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO low, bicarbonate low
D) pH in low part of normal range, PaO normal, PaCO normal, bicarbonate normal
Q2) Respiratory acidosis may be caused by A) hyperventilation.
B) massive blood transfusion.
C) tissue hypoxia.
D) hypoventilation.
Q3) The finding of ketones in the blood suggests that a person may have A) metabolic acidosis.
B) metabolic alkalosis.
C) respiratory acidosis.
D) respiratory alkalosis.
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Chapter 26: Renal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Hormones that increase sodium reabsorption from the tubular fluid include (Select all that apply.)
A) aldosterone.
B) atrial natriuretic peptide.
C) antidiuretic hormone.
D) urodilatin.
E) angiotensin II.
Q2) The primary function of the vasa recta is to
A) secrete renin.
B) reabsorb NaCl.
C) reabsorb interstitial fluid.
D) secrete urea.
Q3) The glucose transporter in the proximal tubule
A) has no transport maximum.
B) does not depend on sodium reabsorption.
C) is ATP-dependent.
D) may be saturated at high filtered glucose loads.
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28
Chapter 27: Intrarenal Disorders
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Q1) The consequence of an upper urinary tract obstruction in a single ureter is
A) kidney stone formation.
B) hydronephrosis.
C) dilation of the urethra.
D) anuria.
Q2) Hyperlipidemia occurs in nephrotic syndrome because
A) hepatocytes synthesize excessive lipids.
B) lipids are not excreted in the urine.
C) body fats are catabolized.
D) muscles stop burning triglycerides for energy.
Q3) A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically experience A) fever.
B) oliguria.
C) edema.
D) hypertension.
Q4) The organism most commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis is A) Streptococcus.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Klebsiella.
D) Enterobacter.
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Chapter 28: Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
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Q1) The diet for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)should include (Select all that apply.)
A) high carbohydrates and fats.
B) low sodium and potassium.
C) high protein.
D) low phosphorous.
E) high calorie.
Q2) In patients with polycystic kidney disease,renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons.At what point will a patient reach end-stage renal disease?
A) Greater than 15%
B) Greater than 25% nephron loss
C) Greater than 50% nephron loss
D) Greater than 90% nephron loss
Q3) Hypotension is both a cause of chronic kidney disease and a result of chronic kidney disease.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 29: Disorders of the Lower Urinary Tract
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Sample Questions
Q1) The direct cause of stress incontinence is
A) the effect of aging.
B) pelvic muscle weakness.
C) neurologic conditions.
D) detrusor muscle overactivity.
Q2) Cystitis symptoms include (Select all that apply.)
A) CVA tenderness.
B) suprapubic pain.
C) dysuria.
D) fever.
Q3) Vesicoureteral reflux is associated with A) increased serum creatinine.
B) recurrent cystitis.
C) polycystic renal disease.
D) proteinuria.
Q4) Urinary retention with consistent or intermittent dribbling of urine is called A) mixed incontinence.
B) enuresis.
C) stress incontinence.
D) overflow incontinence.
Page 31
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Chapter 30: Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The activation of sperm after they enter the vagina is called A) flagellation.
B) ejaculation.
C) emission.
D) capacitation.
Q2) In males,pituitary luteinizing hormone (LH)
A) induces Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone.
B) induces Sertoli cells to produce sperm.
C) stimulates ejaculation of semen.
D) has no known reproductive function.
Q3) Production of LH occurs in response to serum levels of A) estrogen.
B) prostate-specific antigen.
C) cortisol.
D) testosterone.
Q4) An important function of the scrotum is to
A) regulate the temperature of the testes.
B) provide support to the prostate gland.
C) regulate blood supply to the penis.
D) supply antibacterial secretions.
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Chapter 31: Alterations in Male Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of urinary obstruction in male newborns and infants is urethral valves.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The pathology report for a patient with penile cancer has this statement: The tumor involves the shaft of the penis.The cancer is at what stage?
A) Stage I
B) Stage II
C) Stage III
D) Stage IV
Q3) Erection requires the release of nitrous oxide into the corpus cavernosum during sexual stimulation.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Sudden,severe testicular pain is indicative of
A) prostatitis.
B) testicular cancer.
C) testicular torsion.
D) epididymitis.
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Chapter 32: Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Q1) The heartbeat becomes audible through a stethoscope during which phase of fetal development?
A) First trimester
B) Second trimester
C) Third trimester
D) Parturition
Q2) Before the onset of menstruation,water retention and breast swelling are thought to be high levels of ________ stimulating the secretory cells of the breast.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) hCG
D) oxytocin
Q3) The hormone released from the posterior pituitary gland during the milk ejection reflex is
A) gonadotropin.
B) prolactin.
C) vasopressin.
D) oxytocin.
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34
Chapter 33: Alterations in Female Genital and Reproductive Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Excessive vomiting in pregnant women is known as A) placenta previa.
B) hyperemesis gravidarum.
C) abruptio placentae.
D) spontaneous abortion.
Q2) Treatment of a uterine prolapse may involve the insertion of a(n)________ to hold the uterus in place.
A) catheter.
B) IUD.
C) pessary.
D) endopelvic mesh implant.
Q3) Infection by ________ accounts for nearly half of all reported cases of vulvovaginitis.
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Candida albicans
C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D) Pseudomonas
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Page 35
Chapter 34: Sexually Transmitted Infections
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Q1) A long asymptomatic latent phase is characteristic of which of the following sexually transmitted infections?
A) Gonorrhea
B) Syphilis
C) Chlamydia
D) Hepatitis B
Q2) The organism most commonly associated with pelvic inflammatory disease is
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
B) Treponema pallidum.
C) Escherichia coli.
D) Pseudomonas.
Q3) The Centers for Disease Control estimate that there are ________ new sexually transmitted infections every year.
A) 300,000
B) 1.3 million
C) 19 million
D) 17 billion
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Page 36
Chapter 35: Gastrointestinal Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carbohydrates are absorbed in the form of A) polysaccharides.
B) disaccharides.
C) monosaccharides.
D) monoglycerides.
Q2) Most of the parasympathetic innervation of the GI tract is supplied by the A) hypoglossal nerves.
B) enteric nervous system.
C) vagus nerves.
D) celiac ganglia.
Q3) The action of bile is to A) emulsify fats.
B) digest cellulose.
C) convert sucrose.
D) release free amino acids.
Q4) Which statement regarding pepsin is true?
A) It is secreted by parietal cells in gastric pits.
B) It is secreted as an inactive proenzyme.
C) It accomplishes most of the digestion of dietary protein.
D) It is permanently denatured by a pH less than 4.0.
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Chapter 36: Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Premature infants are at greater risk for developing A) necrotizing enterocolitis.
B) pseudomembranous colitis.
C) appendicitis.
D) diverticular disease.
Q2) A patient with chronic gastritis would likely be tested for
A) Helicobacter pylori.
B) occult blood.
C) lymphocytes.
D) herpes simplex.
Q3) What clinical finding would suggest an esophageal cause of a client's report of dysphagia?
A) Nasal regurgitation
B) Airway obstruction with swallowing
C) Chest pain during meals
D) Coughing when swallowing
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Chapter 37: Alterations in Function of the Gallbladder and Exocrine Pancreas
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chronic cholecystitis can lead to (Select all that apply.)
A) biliary sepsis.
B) calcified gallbladder.
C) porcelain gallbladder.
D) cirrhosis.
E) diabetes mellitus.
Q2) Patients who may be at risk for development of cholesterol gallstones include (Select all that apply.)
A) high spinal cord injuries.
B) patients receiving total parenteral nutrition.
C) patients receiving chemotherapy.
D) patients with rapid weight loss.
E) pregnant women.
Q3) Chronic pancreatitis may lead to
A) diabetes mellitus.
B) Crohn disease.
C) gallstones.
D) celiac sprue.
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Chapter 38: Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) Liver transaminase elevations in which aspartate aminotransferase (AST)is markedly greater than alanine aminotransferase (ALT)is characteristic of A) viral hepatitis.
B) alcohol-induced injury.
C) cirrhosis.
D) acetaminophen toxicity.
Q2) A patient admitted with bleeding related to esophageal varices could be expected to receive a continuous intravenous infusion of A) glucose.
B) octreotide acetate.
C) anticoagulants.
D) proton pump inhibitors.
Q3) A viral hepatitis screen with positive hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)should be interpreted as ________ hepatitis B.
A) recovered from
B) immunity to C) chronic active
D) acute
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Chapter 39: Endocrine Physiology and Mechanisms of
Hypothalamic-Pituitary Regulation
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thyroid hormones are derived from A) peptides.
B) tyrosine amino acids.
C) globulin.
D) catecholamines.
Q2) It is true that lipid-soluble hormones are
A) transported in a free state in the bloodstream.
B) bound to receptors on the plasma membranes of target cells.
C) diffused through cell membranes to activate intracellular receptors.
D) activated by second-messenger cascades within the target cell.
Q3) An example of a lipid-soluble hormone is A) catecholamine.
B) thyroid hormone.
C) peptide hormone.
D) pituitary hormone.
Q4) An example of a secondary endocrine disorder is
A) pituitary hyposecretion of TSH.
B) adrenal insufficiency following adrenalectomy.
C) congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
D) pheochromocytoma.
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Chapter 40: Disorders of Endocrine Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Propylthiouracil may be used to treat hyperthyroidism,because it
A) destroys thyroid gland cells.
B) inhibits the release of TSH.
C) suppresses production of autoantibodies.
D) inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
Q2) Diabetes insipidus is a condition that
A) results from inadequate ADH secretion.
B) is characterized by oliguria.
C) is associated with anterior pituitary dysfunction.
D) leads to glycosuria.
Q3) The formation of active vitamin D
A) occurs in the skin.
B) is impaired in renal failure.
C) is dependent on oral intake of vitamin D.
D) is necessary for normal potassium metabolism.
Q4) A thyroid gland that grows larger than normal is known as A) cretinism.
B) myxedema.
C) goiter.
D) colloidosis.
42
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Chapter 41: Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) The underlying pathogenic mechanism for type 1 diabetes is
A) pancreatic b-cell destruction.
B) lack of insulin receptors.
C) lack of exercise and chronic overeating.
D) impaired glucose transport into cells.
Q2) Which are complications of diabetes mellitus that are microvascular? (Select all that apply.)
A) Cardiovascular disease
B) Retinopathy
C) Nephropathy
D) Neuropathy
E) Stroke
Q3) The therapies that would be appropriate for a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus include (Select all that apply.)
A) carbohydrate counting.
B) high-protein diet.
C) daily exercise.
D) insulin.
E) oral hypoglycemic agents.
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Page 43
Chapter 42: Alterations in Metabolism and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) The postoperative energy requirement can increase ____ above BMR.
A) 7%.
B) 10% to 35%.
C) 15% to 30%.
D) 50%.
Q2) Which condition is associated with an increase in basal metabolic rate?
A) Aging
B) Fever
C) Obesity
D) Starvation
Q3) An immobile patient should be treated with an extra ________ g of protein daily.
A) 2 to 4
B) 4 to 6
C) 7 to 9
D) 10 to 15
Q4) What patient is most at risk for severe protein malnutrition?
A) A postsurgical patient who has been NPO for 3 days
B) A postburn patient who has a deep partial-thickness burn
C) A febrile patient who has had a temperature of 102.6°F for 3 days
D) An immobile patient who has been in skeletal traction for 1 week
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Chapter 43: Structure and Function of the Nervous System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Neurons with one dendrite and one axon are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) dipolar.
D) multipolar.
Q2) The primary function of the central nervous system is to
A) process information to be relayed to muscles and glands.
B) serve the afferent sensory system.
C) serve the efferent motor system.
D) mediate involuntary functions.
Q3) The peripheral nervous system contains a total of ____ nerves.
A) 12
B) 31
C) 24
D) 86
Q4) The ________ protects the soft tissue of the brain.
A) dural septa
B) dura
C) falx cerebri
D) tentorium cerebella
Page 45
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Chapter 44: Acute Disorders of Brain Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A severe complication of elevated intracranial pressure is A) Cushing reflex.
B) brain herniation.
C) burr hole.
D) hydrocephalus.
Q2) The first indication of brain compression from increasing intracranial pressure (ICP)may be
A) decorticate posturing.
B) absence of verbalization.
C) sluggish pupil response to light.
D) Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13.
Q3) Secondary injury after head trauma refers to A) brain injury resulting from the initial trauma.
B) focal areas of bleeding.
C) brain injury resulting from the body's response to tissue damage.
D) injury as a result of medical therapy.
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Chapter 45: Chronic Disorders of Neurologic Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which are common causes of acquired parkinsonism? (Select all that apply.)
A) Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons
B) History of infection
C) History of intoxication
D) History of trauma
E) Seizure disorder
Q2) _________ is a form of spina bifida in which a saclike cyst filled with CSF protrudes through the spinal defect but does not involve the spinal cord.
A) Spina bifida occulta
B) Meningocele
C) Myelomeningocele
D) Meningomyelocele
Q3) Ascending paralysis with no loss of sensation is characteristic of A) multiple sclerosis.
B) Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) myasthenia gravis.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
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Chapter 46: Alterations in Special Sensory Function
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Sample Questions
Q1) A vestibular disorder that is manifested by the sensation of motion without actual motion is referred to as
A) equilibrium.
B) nystagmus.
C) vertigo.
D) effusion.
Q2) It is true that a conductive hearing loss
A) cannot be corrected.
B) is as a result of damage to hair cells in the inner ear.
C) usually results from chronic exposure to loud noise.
D) is because of dysfunction of outer and middle ear structures.
Q3) A sudden onset of eye pain and impaired vision associated with pupil dilation is characteristic of
A) narrow-angle glaucoma.
B) open-angle glaucoma.
C) cataract.
D) retinal detachment.
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Chapter 47: Pain
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Sample Questions
Q1) Most sensory afferent pain fibers enter the spinal cord by way of the ________ nerve roots.
A) anterior
B) posterior
C) C fiber
D) anterolateral
Q2) Pain is thought of as
A) a subjective experience that is difficult to measure objectively.
B) associated with changes in vital signs reflecting its intensity.
C) experienced in the same way by all individuals.
D) always the result of tissue damage that activates nociceptors.
Q3) The ________ is the level of painful stimulation required to be perceived.
A) perception
B) tolerance
C) expression
D) threshold
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Chapter 48: Neurobiology of Psychotic Illnesses
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Sample Questions
Q1) In youth,it is estimated that ____ will be diagnosed with serious mental illness between the ages of 13 and 18 years.
A) 5%
B) 26.2%
C) 46.3%
D) 75%
Q2) ________ is a term used to describe a serious and debilitating mental state.
A) Psychosis
B) Schizophrenia
C) Major depressive disorder
D) Dysthymia
Q3) Lithium is used to manage mania because it
A) inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin activity in the brain.
B) is a CNS sedative.
C) is converted to catecholamines within the brain.
D) blocks D receptors in the brain.
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Chapter 49: Neurobiology of Nonpsychotic Illnesses
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Q1) A patient who experiences sudden-onset,acute fearfulness for no apparent reason has a disorder called
A) generalized anxiety disorder.
B) phobia.
C) panic disorder.
D) posttraumatic stress disorder.
Q2) In individuals dealing with obsessive-compulsive disorder,____ are most bothered by both obsessions and compulsions.
A) 20%
B) 28%
C) 50%
D) 90%
Q3) The first-line treatment for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)is
A) adrenergic blockers.
B) benzodiazepines
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
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Chapter 50: Structure and Function of the Musculoskeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The correct sequence of bone healing following fracture is
A) hematoma formation, callous formation, fibrocartilage formation, ossification, remodeling.
B) hematoma formation, callous formation, fibrocartilage formation, remodeling, ossification.
C) callous formation, hematoma formation, fibrocartilage formation, ossification, remodeling.
D) hematoma formation, fibrocartilage formation, callous formation, ossification, remodeling.
Q2) Articular cartilage is avascular and A) completely incapable of regeneration. B) nonliving.
C) nourished by synovial fluid.
D) rarely damaged.
Q3) The epiphyseal plate
A) provides support to long bones.
B) prevents overactivity of osteoblasts.
C) allows for continued bone lengthening during maturation.
D) has an unknown function.
Page 52
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Chapter 51: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Trauma, Infection, and Disease
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Q1) The pathophysiology of osteomalacia involves
A) increased osteoclast activity.
B) collagen breakdown in the bone matrix.
C) crowding of cells in the osteoid.
D) inadequate mineralization in the osteoid.
Q2) Manifestations of fibromyalgia often include (Select all that apply.)
A) generalized pain.
B) sensitivity to heat.
C) headaches.
D) fatigue.
E) sleep disturbance.
Q3) Inflammation of the sacs that overlie bony prominences is called
A) epicondylitis.
B) arthritis.
C) tendinitis.
D) bursitis.
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Chapter 52: Alterations in Musculoskeletal Function:
Rheumatic Disorders
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Q1) Signs/symptoms of Lyme disease include (Select all that apply.)
A) fever and chills.
B) migratory rash.
C) arthritic pain.
D) headache.
E) myalgia.
Q2) Gouty arthritis is a complication of
A) group A streptococcal infection.
B) autoimmune destruction of joint collagen.
C) excessive production of urea.
D) inadequate renal excretion of uric acid.
Q3) "Tell me again the name of that chemical that makes crystals when my gout flares up," asks the client.The nurse's best response is
A) calcium phosphate.
B) urea.
C) uric acid.
D) beta-hydroxybutyric acid.
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Page 54
Chapter 53: Alterations in the Integumentary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) A post-infective painful neuralgia can occur as a complication of A) shingles.
B) herpes simplex.
C) impetigo.
D) verrucae.
Q2) Atopic dermatitis (eczema)is caused by
A) parasitic infestation of the skin.
B) superficial staphylococcal infection.
C) superficial fungal infection.
D) contact with skin allergens.
Q3) A topical therapy that would tend to dry the skin because it is an astringent is A) lotion.
B) gel.
C) cream.
D) ointments.
Q4) Onycholysis is characterized by A) silvery plaques on the skin.
B) itching, oozing rash.
C) destruction of the nails.
D) whitish coating on the tongue.
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Chapter 54: Burn Injuries
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Sample Questions
Q1) The majority of electrical burns in children are caused by
A) playing with electrical outlets.
B) playing with defective electrical cords.
C) biting on extension cords.
D) putting fingers in electrical sockets.
Q2) The time between the end of burn shock and closure of the burn to less than 20% of total body surface area is called the ________ phase.
A) postshock
B) rehabilitation
C) critical
D) emergent
Q3) Burn shock is the direct result of A) hypovolemia.
B) cardiac depression.
C) infection.
D) increased capillary permeability.
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56