Health and Wellness Final Exam Questions
Course Introduction
Health and Wellness is an interdisciplinary course that explores the physical, mental, emotional, social, and environmental factors that influence individual and community well-being. Students examine concepts related to nutrition, exercise, stress management, disease prevention, and healthy lifestyle choices, while also considering the impact of societal norms, culture, and access to healthcare. Through interactive activities, assessments, and evidence-based resources, the course empowers students to make informed decisions, develop healthy habits, and cultivate lifelong well-being for themselves and those around them.
Recommended Textbook
Nutrition for Health and Healthcare 6th Edition by Linda Kelly DeBruyne
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Overview of Nutrition and Health
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Sample Questions
Q1) A client consumes the following foods from the grain group of the USDA Food Patterns: 1/2 cup oatmeal, 2 slices of bread, 3 cups popped popcorn, and 1 cup pasta. How many ounce equivalents did the client consume?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: C
Q2) Which health claim linking nutrients and food constituents to disease is not reliable?
A) Calcium reduces osteoporosis risk.
B) Zinc enhances immune system response.
C) Folate reduces neural tube defects risk.
D) Vegetables reduce cancer risk.
E) Sodium reduces hypertension risk.
Answer: E
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Chapter 2: Digestion and Absorption
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Sample Questions
Q1) Fiber functions to:
A) aid in the absorption of vitamins.
B) produce GI bacteria.
C) stimulate the GI tract muscles.
D) stimulate the absorption of nutrients.
E) increase water absorption by the digestive tract.
Answer: C
Q2) Bacteria in the colon protect people from some infections.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Immediately before passing into the large intestine, the food mass must pass though the:
A) pyloric sphincter.
B) lower esophageal sphincter.
C) ileocecal valve.
D) bolus.
E) colon.
Answer: C
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Page 4
Chapter 3: Carbohydrates
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Sample Questions
Q1) glucagon
A)a hormone secreted by the pancreas in response to high blood glucose; promotes cellular glucose uptake
B)a hormone that is secreted by special cells in the pancreas in response to low blood glucose concentration; elicits release of glucose from storage
C)a measure of the extent to which a food raises the blood glucose concentration and elicits an insulin response, as compared with pure glucose
D)the more common type of diabetes in which the cells resist insulin
E)indigestible food components that readily dissolve in water and often impart gummy or gel-like characteristics to foods
F)having a gel-like consistency
G)the tough, fibrous structures of fruits, vegetables, and grains; indigestible food components that do not dissolve in water
Answer: B
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Chapter 4: Lipids
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following is a rich source of monounsaturated fat?
A) olive oil
B) coconut oil
C) sunflower oil
D) corn oil
E) cottonseed oil
Q2) Which of the following is packaged with fatty acids to make a triglyceride?
A) glycerol
B) glycogen
C) glucose
D) sucrose
E) an antioxidant
Q3) Visible fats include the fats in:
A) fried foods.
B) steak.
C) biscuits.
D) sour cream.
E) ice cream.
Q4) Describe the various functions of fat in the human body.
Q5) What is meant by saturation of a fatty acid?
Page 6
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Chapter 5: Protein
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Sample Questions
Q1) Kwashiorkor most frequently develops among:
A) older adults.
B) newborns.
C) newly weaned children.
D) adolescents.
E) women.
Q2) How many grams of protein are in a 6-ounce serving of rib eye steak?
A) 18
B) 24
C) 42
D) 60
E) 100
Q3) What happens when the diet lacks an essential amino acid?
A) Proteins will be made but they will be limited in that particular amino acid.
B) The body will synthesize it.
C) A person's health will not be affected as long as carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate.
D) Protein synthesis will be limited.
E) Fatty acids will be substituted for the missing amino acid.
Q4) Explain the difference between an essential and a nonessential amino acid.
Page 7
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Chapter 6: Energy Balance and Body Composition
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of the following statements would you be least likely to tell your client regarding metabolic rate?
A) BMR is measured after a 12-hour fast.
B) RMR is higher than BMR.
C) RMR represents only that energy needed for life-sustaining processes.
D) BMR is increased during growth.
E) BMR is typically expressed as kcalories per kilogram of body weight per hour.
Q2) The part of a triglyceride that can be made into glucose is:
A) the saturated fatty acids.
B) the medium-chain fatty acids.
C) the unsaturated fatty acids.
D) the long-chain fatty acids.
E) the glycerol backbone.
Q3) less than 18.5
A)normal BMI
B)obese BMI
C)overweight BMI
D)underweight BMI
E)waist size (in inches) indicating risk in men
F)waist size (in inches) indicating risk in women
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Chapter 7: Weight Management - Overweight and Underweight
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Sample Questions
Q1) Basal metabolism remains elevated for how long after intense and prolonged activity?
A) 30 minutes
B) 2-3 days
C) several hours
D) only a few minutes
E) indefinitely
Q2) Sarah is trying to lose 10 pounds. Which of the following would you suggest?
A) Reduce your kcalorie intake by 100-200 kcalories a day and engage in 15 minutes of exercise per day.
B) Ask your physician for a prescription for orlistat.
C) Replace two meals a day with a bowl of cereal.
D) Reduce your kcalorie intake by 300-500 kcalories a day and engage in at least 250 minutes of physical activity per week.
E) Cut carbohydrates completely from your diet and apply fat-burning cream to your skin daily.
Q3) Discuss the role of environmental stimuli in the development of obesity.
Q4) Describe the roles of the built environment and food deserts in the development of obesity.
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Chapter 8: The Vitamins
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Sample Questions
Q1) Thiamin is involved in:
A) formation of red blood cells.
B) blood coagulation.
C) collagen formation.
D) energy metabolism.
E) cell division.
Q2) Among the following, the best food sources for the water-soluble vitamins are:
A) butter and vegetable oils.
B) oranges and cereals.
C) sugar and cornstarch.
D) egg yolks and apples.
E) soy and potatoes.
Q3) The best way to reap the benefits of phytochemicals is by:
A) eating a variety of plant foods.
B) taking a variety of supplements.
C) increasing your consumption of animal foods.
D) frequently consuming manufactured functional foods.
E) avoiding eggs.
Q4) Identify factors that can place people at risk for vitamin E deficiency and explain why.
Page 10
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Chapter 9: Water and the Minerals
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which of these foods are richest in potassium?
A) fresh fruits and vegetables
B) milk and dairy products
C) meats and meat substitutes
D) bread and cereals
E) fatty fish
Q2) Which of the following is a poor food source of iron?
A) dried fruits
B) enriched cereals
C) legumes
D) cheese
E) clams
Q3) Which of the following foods provide the least amount of bioavailable calcium?
A) milk
B) sardines
C) cheddar cheese
D) spinach
E) turnip greens
Q4) Discuss the role of sodium in fluid balance and describe how it affects blood pressure.
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Chapter 10: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Pregnancy and Infancy
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Sample Questions
Q1) Carrie can best prepare to breastfeed her infant after delivery by performing which step?
A) Routinely applying lotion to her nipples
B) Acquiring two nursing bras with flaps that open in the front
C) Using a breast pump four times daily to stimulate the letdown reflex
D) Regularly washing her breasts with soap and warm water
E) Applying a warm wash cloth to each breast for several minutes a day
Q2) In order to best protect herself against dehydration, a lactating woman is advised to drink ____ of fluid per day.
A) 2-3 cups
B) 8 cups
C) 9-10 cups
D) 13 cups
E) 20-22 cups
Q3) Because weight loss during pregnancy is not recommended, even obese women are advised to gain between 25 and 35 pounds for the best chance of delivering a healthy infant.
A)True
B)False
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Q4) What can maternity facilities do to encourage women to breastfeed their infants?
Chapter 11: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Childhood and Adolescence
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Sample Questions
Q1) Describe the relationship between hunger and school performance.
Q2) No RDA for total fat has been established, but the DRI committee recommends a fat intake of 10 to 15 percent of energy for children 1 to 3 years of age.
A)True
B)False
Q3) At home, where teenagers are frequently snacking, the best strategy for parents is to stock the pantry with _____.
A) plenty of diet drinks and low-fat snacks
B) easy-to-grab foods that are nutritious
C) enough food for only one snack a day
D) 100-kcalorie snack packs
E) a variety of fruits, vegetables, and sweets
Q4) Adolescents eat about _____ of their meals away from home, which can enhance or hinder their nutritional well-being.
A) 1/4
B) 1/3
C) 1/2
D) 2/3
E) 3/4
Page 13
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Chapter 12: Nutrition Through the Life Span - Later
Adulthood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Despite adopting healthy lifestyle habits, people cannot slow the aging process because of the natural limits set by heredity.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Why is dehydration a risk for older adults?
Q3) The primary cause of hunger in developed countries is _____.
A) poverty
B) war
C) mental illness
D) politics
E) food waste
Q4) Zinc intake is commonly low in older adults.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The estimated energy requirements for adults decrease steadily after age _____.
A) 19
B) 30
C) 40
D) 51
E) 65
Page 14
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Chapter 13: Nutrition Care and Assessment
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Sample Questions
Q1) One example of a single-gene disorder would be _____.
A) diabetes
B) hypertension
C) hemochromatosis
D) hyperlipidemia
E) obesity
Q2) What best describes a task of the registered dietitian?
A) making referrals for dietary counseling
B) administering total parenteral nutrition
C) conducting nutrition assessments
D) administering formula through feeding tubes
E) prescribing diet orders
Q3) A coordinated program of treatment that merges the care plans of different health practitioners is a _____.
A) critical pathway
B) care map
C) clinical pathway
D) care plan
E) nutrition screening
Q4) nutrition support teams
Page 15
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Chapter 14: Nutrition Intervention and Diet-Drug
Interactions
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Sample Questions
Q1) A hospitalized patient is on a progressive diet following surgery. One day, the patient experiences nausea and vomiting after consuming lunch. The nurse recognizes that it is his responsibility to _____.
A) track the patient's tolerance and readiness to advance the diet
B) withhold all foods from the patient until the patient's physician has been contacted
C) contact the kitchen immediately to report a case of foodborne illness
D) contact the dietitian and request that the diet order be changed
E) ask the patient if he wants medication that would prevent vomiting
Q2) There are no known interactions between herbal supplements and medications.
A)True
B)False
Q3) The drug warfarin is structurally similar to _____.
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin K
C) vitamin D
D) vitamin E
E) vitamin A
Q4) Explain the concept of diet progression.
Q5) What are three general ways in which diet and drugs can interact?
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Chapter 15: Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support
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Sample Questions
Q1) Mr. Avery's feeding is being delivered continuously by an infusion pump. What best describes an advantage of using a continuous feeding?
A) It provides an accurate and steady flow rate
B) It is similar to usual patterns of eating for the patient
C) It provides more freedom of movement for the patient
D) There is less risk of diarrhea
E) It is a less expensive method
Q2) A "12 French" feeding tube has a diameter of _____.
A) 2 mm
B) 4 mm
C) 6 mm
D) 8 mm
E) 12 mm
Q3) Which patient would most likely be a candidate for enteral tube feedings?
A) A patient with severe dysphagia
B) A person suffering from intractable diarrhea
C) A patient with gastrointestinal bleeding
D) A person suffering from a paralytic ileus
E) A patient who has undergone a bone marrow transplant
Q4) What is refeeding syndrome, and how can it be prevented?
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Chapter 16: Nutrition in Metabolic and Respiratory Stress
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Sample Questions
Q1) A nurse is treating a patient who is experiencing fluctuations in hormone levels as a result of stress. Based on her understanding of the metabolic effects associated with certain hormones, the nurse knows that aldosterone is responsible for _____.
A) increasing the patient's metabolic rate
B) producing glucose from amino acids
C) reabsorbing sodium in the kidneys
D) releasing fatty acids from adipose tissue
E) reabsorbing water in the kidneys
Q2) Mr. Jones, a critically ill patient, is 5'9" tall and weighs 176 pounds. The nurse recommends that he receive a minimum of _____ grams of protein daily.
A) 64
B) 80
C) 96
D) 136
E) 240
Q3) The inflammatory process can alter immune cell function in the body.
A)True
B)False
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18
Chapter 17: Nutrition and Upper Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) Even occasional vomiting can cause esophagitis and fluid and electrolyte imbalances and may require medical care.
A)True
B)False
Q2) A condition in which a portion of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm is known as _____.
A) hiatal hernia
B) Barrett's esophagus
C) gastritis
D) gastric ulcer
E) gastroesophageal reflux
Q3) Describe the nutritional concerns for a patient following bariatric surgery.
Q4) Rapid weight loss following bariatric surgery increases the risk of developing _____.
A) cirrhosis
B) hypertension
C) type 2 diabetes
D) gallbladder disease
E) Sjögren's syndrome
Q5) Discuss the potential complications of gastritis.
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Chapter 18: Nutrition and Lower Gastrointestinal Disorders
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which way would A.R. benefit from using medium-chain triglycerides?
A) As a source of essential fatty acids
B) As a primary source of energy
C) To add flavor to foods
D) As a method of weight control
E) To keep foods palatable and soft
Q2) What describes a potential cause of osmotic diarrhea?
A) Foodborne illness
B) Intestinal inflammation
C) Irritating chemicals
D) High fructose intake
E) Accelerated colonic transit
Q3) In which ethnic group is lactose intolerance most prevalent?
A) Arab Americans
B) Asians
C) Australians
D) Caucasians
E) Pacific Islanders
Q4) Discuss the characteristic differences between Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis.
Page 20
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Chapter 19: Nutrition and Liver Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The nurse is working with a patient who has liver cirrhosis and who is malnourished. What describes the most appropriate type of nutrition support for this client?
A) A regular, balanced diet
B) Frequent, small meals
C) Enteral formula supplements
D) High-kcalorie, high-protein diet
E) Oral supplements of fluid and electrolyte replacements
Q2) An important consideration in the diet of a patient with esophageal varices is to provide a _____.
A) soft diet
B) clear liquid diet
C) low-protein diet
D) high-fat diet
E) high kcalorie, high-protein diet
Q3) Describe why ascites, portal hypertension, and esophageal varices occur in clients with cirrhosis.
Q4) A patient with cirrhosis may present with no symptoms.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 20: Nutrition and Diabetes Mellitus
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which insulin has the longest duration of action?
A) Glulisine
B) Regular
C) NPH
D) Aspart
E) Detemir
Q2) Mr. Hummel had been taking oral hypoglycemic agents for three months prior to this visit. Based on his _____ measurement, his glycemic control over this period needed improvement.
A) glycemic index
B) hemoglobin A1C
C) weight
D) fasting glucose
E) post-prandial glucose
Q3) How many of his risk factors for type 2 diabetes can Mr. Joiner control?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
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Chapter 21: Nutrition and Disorders of the Heart and Blood
Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Clinical studies suggest that an overweight hypertensive individual can reduce his blood pressure by losing weight.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The client asks the nurse about the effects of physical activity on CHD risk. The nurse should tell the patient that _____.
A) physical activity is not important in a program to reduce CHD risk
B) weight training can dramatically raise HDL if undertaken regularly
C) diet, rather than physical activity, should be the primary focus of reducing CHD risk
D) diet is ineffective against CHD risk if physical activity is not included in lifestyle changes
E) 30 minutes of moderate exercise on most days can reverse many risk factors for CHD
Q3) Describe the appropriate dietary intervention for a heart attack victim once he or she has been stabilized.
Q4) The most common cause of an aneurysm is high blood pressure.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 22: Nutrition and Renal Diseases
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Sample Questions
Q1) The most common cause of chronic kidney disease is _____
A) diabetes
B) infection
C) a genetic disorder
D) inflammation
E) peripheral vascular disease
Q2) Supplemental _____ among patients with chronic kidney disease should be limited to 70 mg per day because excessive intakes can contribute to kidney stone formation in those at risk.
A) vitamin D
B) phosphorus
C) potassium
D) vitamin C
E) iron
Q3) What food is a good source of phosphorus?
A) Chicken
B) Peanut butter
C) Peas
D) Broccoli
E) Cantaloupe
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Chapter 23: Nutrition - Cancer - and HIV Infection
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Sample Questions
Q1) What metabolic abnormality is most often associated with cancer?
A) Decreased protein turnover
B) Decreased carbon fixation
C) Elevated protein synthesis
D) Increased build up of triglycerides
E) Increased insulin resistance
Q2) Recurrent bacterial pneumonia is classified as an AIDS-defining illness.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A cancer patient complains that foods just don't taste right. An appropriate recommendation to help the patient handle this problem is to _____.
A) consume smaller meals
B) cut foods into smaller pieces
C) brush the teeth or use mouthwash before eating
D) include appetite-enhancing medications
E) take small bites and chew foods thoroughly
Q4) What factors contribute to the development of cancer cachexia?
Q5) Cancer cachexia affects almost all cancer patients.
A)True
B)False
25
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