Health and Society Final
Test Solutions
Course Introduction
This course explores the complex interrelationships between health, illness, and society, examining how social, cultural, economic, and political factors shape health outcomes and healthcare systems. Students will analyze topics such as health disparities, the social determinants of health, healthcare policies, the role of institutions, and cultural perceptions of illness and wellness. Through interdisciplinary approaches, the course aims to deepen understanding of contemporary health challenges and encourage critical reflection on strategies to promote health equity within diverse populations.
Recommended Textbook Human Biology Concepts and Current Issues 7th Edition by Michael D. Johnson
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Page 2
Chapter 1: Human Biology, Science, and Society
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Sample Questions
Q1) "Blind" experiments are designed to reduce the possibility that the outcome of an experiment might be affected by the power of suggestion.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q2) Because the natural world includes all energy and matter, it also includes all living organisms.
A)True
B)False
Answer: True
Q3) Special-interest groups are not permitted to post information as science on the Internet unless it has undergone peer review.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Organisms made up of one cell are said to be ________.
Answer: unicellular
Q5) The ability to stand upright and walk on two legs is termed ________. Answer: bipedalism
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Chapter 2: The Chemistry of Living Things
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Sample Questions
Q1) Lipids are important to biological systems because
A) they are solid at body temperature so they stabilize membranes
B) some lipid types are potentially large sources of energy to perform cellular work
C) most help to buffer aqueous solutions in the body
D) all lipids are very soluble in water
E) they are able to store and transmit genetic information
Answer: B
Q2) The label ________ points to a neutron.
Answer: B
Q3) Ions in body fluids of a human are referred to as
A) electrolytes
B) osmolytes
C) isotopes
D) atoms
Answer: A
Q4) In the atom, electrons are located in clouds, with negative charges around the nucleus; these are called ________.
Answer: shells
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Chapter 3: Structure and Function of Cells
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Sample Questions
Q1) Chemical reactions that take place in living organisms are collectively known as the organism's ________.
Answer: metabolism
Q2) At the end of the electron transport system, oxygen combines with electrons and hydrogen ions to form ________, a waste product.
A) urea
B) FAD
C) water
D) NAD
E) glucose
Answer: C
Q3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes on its surface, and is therefore the site of protein synthesis.
A)True
B)False
Answer: False
Q4) Alcohol is detoxified in organelles called ________.
Answer: peroxisomes
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Page 5
Chapter 4: From Cells to Organ Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) Epithelial tissues are classified according to the cell ________ as well as the number of cell layers making up the tissue.
Q2) A student in a histology class was asked to describe the structure of a stratified squamous epithelium. Which one of the following is the best description?
A) tissue composed of protein fibers in a ground substance and a few cells
B) tissue composed of one layer of flat cells located on a basement membrane
C) tissue composed of contracting protein fibers enclosed by plasma membranes
D) tissue composed of several layers of tall cells resting on a basement membrane
E) tissue composed of several layers of flat cells resting on a basement membrane
Q3) Which one of the following functions is associated with one type of connective tissue?
A) contraction
B) a membrane potential
C) absorption of digestive products
D) transport
E) secretion
Q4) Glands that secrete their product into a duct are classified as ________ glands.
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Chapter 5: The Skeletal System
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Sample Questions
Q1) In which of the following bones are the teeth anchored?
A) mandible and zygomatic bones
B) mandible and maxilla
C) maxilla and zygomatic bones
D) mandible and sphenoid bone
E) sphenoid bone and maxilla
Q2) Which bone is frequently broken when someone dies of deliberate strangulation?
A) floating ribs
B) maxilla
C) cervical vertebrae
D) hyoid bone
E) mandible
Q3) The outer ear and epiglottis have a small amount of flexibility associated with them because of the presence of ________ cartilage.
Q4) If a person has a herniated disk, sometimes surgery can relieve the pain that is associated with the condition. However, one side effect can be a loss in spinal flexibility. Why does this loss occur?
Q5) If a child needed to have surgery that removed all growth plates, what would be the effect on bone growth?
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Chapter 6: The Muscular System
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Sample Questions
Q1) The primary energy source used by muscle cells to generate ATP is
A) steroids
B) glycogen
C) glucose
D) starch
E) fatty acids
Q2) The swinging of a tennis racket is a brief, high-intensity activity that requires the contraction of ________ fibers.
Q3) A myogram is a recording of
A) the electrical activity of muscle cells
B) the electrical activity of nerves at neuromuscular junctions
C) the activity of muscle cells
D) blood pressure changes resulting from muscle contraction
E) the movement of myosin filaments
Q4) Which one of the following is an example of an isometric contraction?
A) person lifting books from the floor
B) tightening of abdominal muscles while sitting
C) kicking a soccer ball
D) swinging a golf club
E) doing abdominal "crunches" (sit-ups)
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Chapter 7: Blood
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Sample Questions
Q1) Dead and injured white blood cells are removed from circulation by the
A) spleen
B) tonsils
C) red bone marrow
D) kidney
E) thymus
Q2) Albumin proteins in human blood function
A) to initiate blood clotting
B) to transport oxygen to target cells
C) to maintain blood volume
D) as electrolytes
E) to attack foreign organisms that enter the blood
Q3) Platelets are pieces of ________.
Q4) In order to prevent the onset of hemolytic disease of the newborn, an Rh- woman who is pregnant with an Rh+ child can be given ________ during pregnancy.
Q5) Hemoglobin is most likely to release oxygen to tissues when the pH of tissues is ________ and the temperature is ________.
Q6) A condition resulting from a reduction in the number of platelets in the blood is
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Chapter 8: Heart and Blood Vessels
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following segments of the typical cardiac cycle is the briefest?
A) atrial systole
B) atrial diastole
C) ventricular systole
D) ventricular diastole
E) Macular systole
Q2) The amount of blood leaving the heart with every contraction is known as ________.
Q3) Fluid in the lymphatic system, as well as interstitial fluid, is
A) derived from blood plasma
B) pumped from the left ventricle into lymphatic vessels and then back into the right atrium
C) composed mostly of formed elements from blood
D) the liquid portion of fluid escaping from the digestive system
E) produced by the endothelium to lubricate the interior of vascular tissue
Q4) reabsorption of fluid occurs from extracellular area to capillary
Q5) carbon dioxide diffuses into the blood
Q6) When an athlete trains for a marathon, the goal is to increase cardiovascular output. What does that actually mean in terms of heart function?
Page 10
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Chapter 9: The Immune System and Mechanisms of Defense
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Sample Questions
Q1) During cytotoxic T cell attack of a target cell, which one of the following is released to pierce the cell membrane of the foreign cell, which ultimately kills the target cell?
A) interferon
B) eosinophil
C) histamine
D) perforin
E) antibody
Q2) Explain why passive immunization is not effective in producing long-term immunity.
Q3) Which of the following classes of antibodies activates the inflammatory response by causing the release of histamine?
A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA
Q4) The human body's first exposure to an antigen generates a primary ________ response.
Q5) Bacterial infections are generally treated with ________.
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Chapter 10: The Respiratory System: Exchange of Gases
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are involved in the regulation of the rate and depth of breathing EXCEPT which one?
A) carotid and aortic bodies
B) blood levels of CO
C) blood levels of O
D) bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli
E) medulla oblongata
Q2) During intense physical exercise, human cells and tissues increase their need for oxygen to provide the ATP necessary for work. Why does heart rate have to increase to meet the need for oxygen?
Q3) During inspiration, intercostal muscles function to
A) flatten the diaphragm
B) pull the rib cage up and out, so that lung volume increases
C) constrict the lungs so that intrapulmonary pressure increases
D) separate the layers of pleural membranes
E) increase blood flow to lung tissue
Q4) The respiratory system functions to ________ with the environment.
Q5) Tobacco smoke contains chemicals that ________ the production of mucus and ________ the activity of cilia in the respiratory system.
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Chapter 11: The Nervous System: Integration and Control
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Sample Questions
Q1) Control of respiratory rate, heart rate, and blood pressure is integrated through the A) cerebral cortex
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) hypothalamus
E) medulla oblongata
Q2) The motor division of the peripheral nervous system sends information to all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A) somatic division
B) autonomic division
C) sensory division
D) parasympathetic division
E) sympathetic division
Q3) voltage threshold for membrane
Q4) Twelve pairs of ________ nerves carry nerve impulses from the brain to glands, muscles, head, neck, and abdominal and thoracic cavities.
Q5) Arrival of an action potential at an axon terminal results in the release of
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Page 13
Chapter 12: Sensory Mechanisms
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following parts of the eye is continuous with the cornea and forms the outer surface of the back of the eye?
A) retina
B) choroid
C) oval window
D) iris
E) sclera
Q2) The vitreous humor fills the main chamber of the eye. Which one of the following structures of the eye would vitreous humor come in contact with?
A) sclera
B) cornea
C) iris
D) choroid
E) retina
Q3) Hyperopia or farsightedness can be corrected with the use of ________ lenses.
Q4) Hearing loss resulting from damage to the tympanic membrane or the bones of the middle ear is known as ________ deafness.
Q5) Foods that are potentially toxic or inedible are detected by ________ taste receptors.
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Chapter 13: The Endocrine System
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Sample Questions
Q1) When the amount of thyroxine in the body increases, the basal metabolic rate of the body also increases.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The anterior pituitary gland produces all of the following EXCEPT which one?
A) ACTH
B) LH
C) PRL
D) TSH
E) ADH
Q3) Cortisol is a glucocorticoid that helps maintain blood glucose levels during fasting by
A) stimulating the synthesis of fatty acids
B) promoting the conversion of amino acids into proteins in muscle tissues
C) increasing the glucose-dependent inflammatory response
D) promoting fat utilization
E) inhibiting glucose utilization in muscle cells
Q4) pancreas
Q5) Releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus are carried to the anterior pituitary gland by the ________.
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Chapter 14: The Digestive System and Nutrition
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Sample Questions
Q1) mechanical and chemical digestion begins here
Q2) Gingivitis occurs when tooth decay causes inflammation of the enamel and pulp of the tooth.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Which one of the following components of saliva has antibacterial properties?
A) sodium bicarbonate
B) amylase
C) mucin
D) HCl
E) lysozyme
Q4) Postmenopausal women are often advised to take the mineral ________ as a supplement to their diet in order to prevent bone loss due to osteoporosis.
Q5) Lipids are not soluble in water; therefore, they must be ________ before they can be digested.
Q6) Mucin is a major component of saliva, which lubricates the teeth and causes food to stick together during swallowing.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 15: The Urinary System
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Sample Questions
Q1) Aldosterone is secreted in response to changes in A) blood pressure
B) blood calcium levels
C) body temperature
D) blood potassium levels
E) blood glucose levels
Q2) relies on countercurrent exchange to move ions and water
Q3) As urine moves through a nephron, it is modified by ions, water, and other materials either being secreted into the fluid or by efflux of substances out of the urine. However, such modifications do not occur in which one of the following regions of the nephron?
A) loop of Henle
B) collecting duct
C) Bowman's capsule
D) proximal tubule
E) distal tubule
Q4) passes urine to ureter
Q5) filters plasma from glomerulus
Q6) delivers urine to the bladder
Q7) functions in ion reabsorption into blood
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Chapter 16: Reproductive Systems
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Sample Questions
Q1) The lining of the uterus is termed the myometrium.
A)True
B)False
Q2) The opening of the uterus is referred to as the A) endometrium
B) oviduct
C) cervix
D) fimbriae
E) clitoris
Q3) Trichomoniasis is a bacterial infection that is sexually transmitted; chronic infection often results in blindness, damage to the nervous system, and eventually death.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Endometrial tissue sometimes migrates out of the uterus and attaches to other abdominal organs.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The cervix is indicated by letter ________.
Q6) The oviduct is indicated by letter ________.
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Chapter 17: Cell Reproduction and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) A short segment of DNA that contains the code or blueprint for one or more proteins is called a gene.
A)True
B)False
Q2) Differentiation of embryonic cells begins immediately upon the first division of the fertilized egg.
A)True
B)False
Q3) A codon is
A) a type of DNA repair enzyme
B) a promoter that prevents the attachment of RNA polymerase
C) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid
D) the part of the ribosome to which mRNA attaches
E) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on tRNA that corresponds to an amino acid
Q4) Human cells, with the exception of the gametes, reproduce by mitosis.
A)True
B)False
Q5) prophase
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Chapter 18: Cancer: Uncontrolled Cell Division and Differentiation
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Sample Questions
Q1) The "ABCD" rule is used in the detection of a(n) ________.
Q2) Development of cancer in cells within lymph nodes is called A) in situ
B) lymphoma
C) leukemia
D) keratosis
E) cervical
Q3) The diagnosis of cancer may involve the use of ________, which employs short bursts of a powerful magnetic field to produce a cross-sectional image of tissues in the body.
Q4) Telomerase is an enzyme characteristic of normal cells that is active in DNA repair; most cancer cells have been found to lack telomerase.
A)True
B)False
Q5) Tumor suppressor genes function to increase the activity of cells during times of stress or when conditions do not favor cell division.
A)True
B)False
Q6) If an entire tumor remains localized, it is said to be a(n) ________ cancer.
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Chapter 19: Genetics and Inheritance
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Sample Questions
Q1) In ________, the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is an intermediate between the phenotype of either homozygous genotype.
Q2) If alleles for the same gene are different in the same person, that individual is heterozygous for the trait.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Genes represent the set of instructions for the expression of one or more traits human beings and influence human behaviors by
A) directly causing specific changes in mood or patterns of behavior
B) producing protein products that serve as switches for directly turning on or off certain behaviors
C) directing the synthesis of protein products that influence but do not directly cause most human behaviors
D) activating behavior pathways, like those leading to depression or happiness
E) functioning as specific behavior suppressors
Q4) During embryological development, if a certain gene on the ________ chromosome is activated during the sixth or seventh week of development, the embryo will develop into a male.
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Chapter 20: DNA Technology and Genetic Engineering
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Sample Questions
Q1) Which one of the following is an example of "gene pharming"?
A) the production of human insulin by E. coli
B) the production of beta carotene in golden rice
C) the production of goat milk that contains human antithrombin III protein
D) the production of HBV vaccines in yeast
Q2) Technique of using plasmid DNA to insert another species DNA into a bacterium or plant is called ________ transfer.
Q3) The following are steps involved in producing recombinant DNA using human DNA and a plasmid. Which one of the following answers best reflects the proper order of these steps? 1. select bacteria that contain human DNA
2) isolate and purify DNA to be recombined
3) add DNA ligase to join human DNA with plasmid
4) cut human DNA and plasmid with restriction enzyme
5) introduce new plasmid to bacteria
A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
B) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1
C) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4
D) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5
E) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
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Page 22
Chapter 21: Development and Aging
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Sample Questions
Q1) With the exception of cancer cells, most cells divide approximately ________ times before they stop reproducing.
A) 2-4
B) 10-12
C) 20-25
D) 50-90
E) 100-200
Q2) All of the following can pass through a healthy placenta EXCEPT which one?
A) water
B) nutrients
C) oxygen
D) some antibodies
E) blood cells
Q3) In humans, fertilization usually occurs ________ after intercourse, if an egg is present.
A) 1-2 hours
B) 3-6 days
C) 6-24 hours
D) 7-10 days
E) 24-48 hours
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Chapter 22: Evolution and the Origins of Life
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Sample Questions
Q1) All of the following are key elements of evolution EXCEPT which one?
A) Organisms have changed from their ancestors over time.
B) Change has been accomplished with a purpose and a plan.
C) Change is unpredictable and determined by natural processes.
D) Change depends on alterations in the DNA.
Q2) Homo neaderthalensis is believed to be a direct ancestor of Homo sapiens.
A)True
B)False
Q3) With the advent of photosynthesis and the subsequent production of oxygen by photosynthetic organisms, most of the anaerobic organisms present on Earth became extinct because oxygen was actually toxic to these organisms.
A)True
B)False
Q4) Darwin's proposal that organisms that are better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce is termed ________.
Q5) When considering evolution, structures of present-day organisms that have the same function but did not develop from the same ancestral structure are said to be ________.
Q6) ________ was an early human ancestor thought to be among the first tool makers.
Page 24
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Chapter 23: Ecosystems and Populations
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Sample Questions
Q1) Factors in the environment that limit the ability of a species to meet its biotic potential are known as ________ factors.
Q2) If an owl is moved from a mature evergreen forest to a mature hedgerow in a suburban neighborhood, the owl's ________ has been changed.
A) biosphere
B) habitat
C) range
D) environmental resistance
E) niche
Q3) Under natural conditions, the amount of nitrogen gas returned to the atmosphere by denitrification approximately balances
A) phosphorus cycling
B) evaporation
C) nitrogen fixation
D) sublimation
E) photosynthesis
Q4) A niche is the location within an environment within which a species lives.
A)True
B)False
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Chapter 24: Human Impacts, Biodiversity, and Environmental Issues
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Sample Questions
Q1) ________ is a biomass fuel.
A) Coal
B) Oil
C) Wood
D) Gas
E) Water
Q2) Twenty-five percent of all prescription drugs sold in the United States are based on substances derived from fewer than 50 species of plants.
A)True
B)False
Q3) Damage to the ecosystem by the processes of desertification and deforestation occurs most commonly in ________ areas.
Q4) Biodiversity refers to the variety of richness of species on Earth.
A)True
B)False
Q5) The death of animal life in a shallow body of water in conjunction with a rapid increase in plant life is known as ________.
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Q6) Explain how emissions of carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide create the greenhouse effect.